Test 4 Flashcards
A complete lesion of the femoral nerve as it leaves the lumbar plexus affects
Knee extension
The primary flexor of the hip is
Iliopsoas
Paralytic equines during swing phase is often caused by the injury to
Common peroneal nerve
A cycle of gait is defined as all activities that occurs b/w
Heel strike on one limb and subsequent heel strike on the same limb
Toe out or toe in is the relationship of the long axis of the foot to the
Line of progression
The motion of inversion and eversion occurs at which joint
Subtalar
A common lesion of the tibial nerve on one leg wil result in what gait deviation
Shortened step length on ipsilateral side
____ disease is an osteochondrosis of the capital femoral epiphysis that generally occurs in ____.
Leg-calve-perthes; 3-10 year old males
At which part of gaitare the most number of muscles active
Heel strike
For correction of genu valgum forces should be applied over the
Lateral thigh, distal to the greater trochanter, lateral aspect of the foot and the medial condyle of the femur
The purpose of measuring external rotation of the ankle joint is
Insure that the mechanical ankle axis coincide with the anatomical ankle axis in the transverse plane
What is the max acceptable malaligngment of a tibial fx that can be managed with an off the shelf fx orthosis
10° varus or valgus, 20° of anterior posterior angulation- (CHECK)
CONGENITAL osteoporosis along with fx before and during birth is indicative of which condition
Osteogenesis imperfecta
A flexible varus hindfoot might be corrected using
Lateral wedge
Shoe modification that will most likely be used for a fixed equines deformity
Heel lift
Metatarsal pads function to____ as well as_______
Relieve metatarsal heads/ elevate the transverse arch
What of the following ankle joint control would be indicated for a patient that has paralysis of the pf.
Df stop
In relaterion to the apex of the greater troch, where is the mechanics all hip joint located
25 mm proximal, 12 mm anterior
T or f quadriceps femoris muscle consists of four parts, only one of which acts across the hip joint
True
What motion does a cushioned heel stimulate
Pf at heel strike
More ankle joint clearance is allowed for the medial malleolus because
The medial malleolus is more prominent
During late stance the hip joint requires how much extension for normal function
10°
Which phase of gait does a rocker sole most closely simulate
Midstance to toe off
When treating an adult patient with an anterior hip dislocation, it important to
Not allow hip to extend pass 30° of flexion
When genu varus is present ton a lower-limb scheme, the mid-sagittal line connects the perineium and the mark made..
30mm medial to the ankle
The Coleman lateral block test is used to assess flexibility of which presentation?
Hindfoot varus
Which motion would be Lost if the superficial branch of the common peroneal nerve is injured
Eversion of the subtalar joint
Tibialis posterior is innervates by which nerve
Tibial nerve
At heel strike the ground reaction line pass
Anterior to hip and posterior to knee
The greatest amount of DF in gait
Heeloff
Hallucis rigidus, which part of stance phase will the patient have the most discomfort
Late stance phase
Which of the following muscle groups are responsible for the majority of muscular activity in decelerating the limb at terminal swing
Hamstrings
A unilateral pelvic band should be what percentage of the circumference
33%
Posterior lean is most commonly seen with paralysis of which muscle group
Hip extensor
Tibialis anterior, extensor hallucis longus , peroneus tertius all assist in what
DF
A favorable outcome in ox management of a tibial fx is
No more than 5° angulation in any plane
The ligament on which the talus rest and which helps support the medial longitudinal arch of the foot is the
Plantar calcaneonavicluar ligament (spring ligament)
A patient demonstrates good hip strength but poor quad and poor pf. What settting of a double action AFO would be the most appropriate treatment
Anterior pins maintaining a few degrees pf
Weakness of the hip extensors you would expect to see what
Increased lordosis
Condition where there is a growth disturbance on the medial proximal aspect of the tibia is
Blount’s disease
The talocalcaneal or talocalcaneonavicular joint forms which joint
Subtalar
Talipes equinovarus can be present in which one of the following pathologies
Arthrogryposis (congenital joint contracture)
A spina bifida child presents with s1 intact. The ox indicated at this time would be
UCBL
When presented with a 5 year old pediatric patient who has cerebral palsy and pf contracture the best recommendation is
Serial cast
Fusion of talocalcaneal, talonavicluar and calcanealcuboid is better known as a
Triple arthrodesis
The TLSO: Sagittarius control is best suited to manage
Kyphosis secondary to osteoporosis
Recommend an ox for a 20 year old male who has sustained a L1 burst fx
TLSO polymer
A patient presents with disruption of the supraspinous ligament, interspinous ligament, posterior longitudinal ligament, ligamentum flavum, capsular ligament and the the intervertebral disc. There is sparing o fthe anterior longitudinal ligament and the patient is neurologically intact. What is the most likely mechanism of injury?
Flexion
On which side of the ox should the throchanteric extension be placed
The side of decompensation
C1 fracture that is 6 weeks post injury- injury is stable and shoes signs of callous formation with neurologic function:
Rigid cervical orthosis
Spine of scapula is at which approximate vertebral level
T3
Which biomechanical principle would be most effective in unloading an intervertral disc
Increased intracavitary pressure
End point vertebrae in a scoliotic curve are the
Last convergent vertebrae most superior and inferior to null point
What condition should be positioned in sagitall flexion when managing with an orthosis?
Spinal stenosis
The axillary extension axtension of a boston style scoliosis orthosis for a double curve should extend from the
Window to about T5
What does it mean when there is a grade II pedicure rotation
Pedicure is rotated 2/3 towards midline
Unilateral contracture of the sternocleidomastoid that is indicative of torticollis would cause what clinical presentation
Lateral head flexion to ipsolateral side and rotation to contralateral side
Pt presents with L1 burst fracture. Before taking the impression and maintaining optimal saggital alignment, you would want to know the status of which ligament
Anterior longitudinal ligament
In scoliotic curve, the spinous processes rotates towards the
Concavity
In scheuermann’s disease where should the throacic pad for a CTLSO: MILWAUKEE style be positioned
At apex
Traumatic spondylolisthesis of C2 is known as a ______. If its unstable, its best to manage with a____.
Hangman fx, halo
What is the method used to ring the baseline for corset measurement
Inferior costal margin to iliac crest divided by two
Which cervical level exhibits the most sagittal motion
C0-C1 (check)
Another name for a knight ox is
LSO: SAGITTAL/CORONAL CONTROL
Milwaukee not recommended for a person with a paralytic spine
The person cannot provide active forces necessary for correction
Hypokyyphosis can be defined as having a sagittal curves magnitude in the range of
0-20°
What is the most likely mechanism of injury for a seatbelt fx
Flexion and distraction
What deformity is most likely to result from ankylosing spondylitis
Flexion
A patient presents with a grease III spondylolisthesis and a 45° slip angle. Based on the info what would likely be the most effective treatment
Surgery
In lumbar spine where does most of the sagittal motion occur
Between L5 and S1 ( check)
What effect does reducing decompensation have on the critical load of the spine
Increase
