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Ox Test Q > Test 4 > Flashcards

Test 4 Flashcards

1
Q

A complete lesion of the femoral nerve as it leaves the lumbar plexus affects

A

Knee extension

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2
Q

The primary flexor of the hip is

A

Iliopsoas

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3
Q

Paralytic equines during swing phase is often caused by the injury to

A

Common peroneal nerve

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4
Q

A cycle of gait is defined as all activities that occurs b/w

A

Heel strike on one limb and subsequent heel strike on the same limb

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5
Q

Toe out or toe in is the relationship of the long axis of the foot to the

A

Line of progression

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6
Q

The motion of inversion and eversion occurs at which joint

A

Subtalar

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7
Q

A common lesion of the tibial nerve on one leg wil result in what gait deviation

A

Shortened step length on ipsilateral side

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8
Q

____ disease is an osteochondrosis of the capital femoral epiphysis that generally occurs in ____.

A

Leg-calve-perthes; 3-10 year old males

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9
Q

At which part of gaitare the most number of muscles active

A

Heel strike

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10
Q

For correction of genu valgum forces should be applied over the

A

Lateral thigh, distal to the greater trochanter, lateral aspect of the foot and the medial condyle of the femur

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11
Q

The purpose of measuring external rotation of the ankle joint is

A

Insure that the mechanical ankle axis coincide with the anatomical ankle axis in the transverse plane

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12
Q

What is the max acceptable malaligngment of a tibial fx that can be managed with an off the shelf fx orthosis

A

10° varus or valgus, 20° of anterior posterior angulation- (CHECK)

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13
Q

CONGENITAL osteoporosis along with fx before and during birth is indicative of which condition

A

Osteogenesis imperfecta

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14
Q

A flexible varus hindfoot might be corrected using

A

Lateral wedge

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15
Q

Shoe modification that will most likely be used for a fixed equines deformity

A

Heel lift

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16
Q

Metatarsal pads function to____ as well as_______

A

Relieve metatarsal heads/ elevate the transverse arch

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17
Q

What of the following ankle joint control would be indicated for a patient that has paralysis of the pf.

A

Df stop

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18
Q

In relaterion to the apex of the greater troch, where is the mechanics all hip joint located

A

25 mm proximal, 12 mm anterior

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19
Q

T or f quadriceps femoris muscle consists of four parts, only one of which acts across the hip joint

A

True

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20
Q

What motion does a cushioned heel stimulate

A

Pf at heel strike

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21
Q

More ankle joint clearance is allowed for the medial malleolus because

A

The medial malleolus is more prominent

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22
Q

During late stance the hip joint requires how much extension for normal function

A

10°

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23
Q

Which phase of gait does a rocker sole most closely simulate

A

Midstance to toe off

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24
Q

When treating an adult patient with an anterior hip dislocation, it important to

A

Not allow hip to extend pass 30° of flexion

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25
Q

When genu varus is present ton a lower-limb scheme, the mid-sagittal line connects the perineium and the mark made..

A

30mm medial to the ankle

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26
Q

The Coleman lateral block test is used to assess flexibility of which presentation?

A

Hindfoot varus

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27
Q

Which motion would be Lost if the superficial branch of the common peroneal nerve is injured

A

Eversion of the subtalar joint

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28
Q

Tibialis posterior is innervates by which nerve

A

Tibial nerve

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29
Q

At heel strike the ground reaction line pass

A

Anterior to hip and posterior to knee

30
Q

The greatest amount of DF in gait

A

Heeloff

31
Q

Hallucis rigidus, which part of stance phase will the patient have the most discomfort

A

Late stance phase

32
Q

Which of the following muscle groups are responsible for the majority of muscular activity in decelerating the limb at terminal swing

A

Hamstrings

33
Q

A unilateral pelvic band should be what percentage of the circumference

A

33%

34
Q

Posterior lean is most commonly seen with paralysis of which muscle group

A

Hip extensor

35
Q

Tibialis anterior, extensor hallucis longus , peroneus tertius all assist in what

A

DF

36
Q

A favorable outcome in ox management of a tibial fx is

A

No more than 5° angulation in any plane

37
Q

The ligament on which the talus rest and which helps support the medial longitudinal arch of the foot is the

A

Plantar calcaneonavicluar ligament (spring ligament)

38
Q

A patient demonstrates good hip strength but poor quad and poor pf. What settting of a double action AFO would be the most appropriate treatment

A

Anterior pins maintaining a few degrees pf

39
Q

Weakness of the hip extensors you would expect to see what

A

Increased lordosis

40
Q

Condition where there is a growth disturbance on the medial proximal aspect of the tibia is

A

Blount’s disease

41
Q

The talocalcaneal or talocalcaneonavicular joint forms which joint

A

Subtalar

42
Q

Talipes equinovarus can be present in which one of the following pathologies

A

Arthrogryposis (congenital joint contracture)

43
Q

A spina bifida child presents with s1 intact. The ox indicated at this time would be

A

UCBL

44
Q

When presented with a 5 year old pediatric patient who has cerebral palsy and pf contracture the best recommendation is

A

Serial cast

45
Q

Fusion of talocalcaneal, talonavicluar and calcanealcuboid is better known as a

A

Triple arthrodesis

46
Q

The TLSO: Sagittarius control is best suited to manage

A

Kyphosis secondary to osteoporosis

47
Q

Recommend an ox for a 20 year old male who has sustained a L1 burst fx

A

TLSO polymer

48
Q

A patient presents with disruption of the supraspinous ligament, interspinous ligament, posterior longitudinal ligament, ligamentum flavum, capsular ligament and the the intervertebral disc. There is sparing o fthe anterior longitudinal ligament and the patient is neurologically intact. What is the most likely mechanism of injury?

A

Flexion

49
Q

On which side of the ox should the throchanteric extension be placed

A

The side of decompensation

50
Q

C1 fracture that is 6 weeks post injury- injury is stable and shoes signs of callous formation with neurologic function:

A

Rigid cervical orthosis

51
Q

Spine of scapula is at which approximate vertebral level

A

T3

52
Q

Which biomechanical principle would be most effective in unloading an intervertral disc

A

Increased intracavitary pressure

53
Q

End point vertebrae in a scoliotic curve are the

A

Last convergent vertebrae most superior and inferior to null point

54
Q

What condition should be positioned in sagitall flexion when managing with an orthosis?

A

Spinal stenosis

55
Q

The axillary extension axtension of a boston style scoliosis orthosis for a double curve should extend from the

A

Window to about T5

56
Q

What does it mean when there is a grade II pedicure rotation

A

Pedicure is rotated 2/3 towards midline

57
Q

Unilateral contracture of the sternocleidomastoid that is indicative of torticollis would cause what clinical presentation

A

Lateral head flexion to ipsolateral side and rotation to contralateral side

58
Q

Pt presents with L1 burst fracture. Before taking the impression and maintaining optimal saggital alignment, you would want to know the status of which ligament

A

Anterior longitudinal ligament

59
Q

In scoliotic curve, the spinous processes rotates towards the

A

Concavity

60
Q

In scheuermann’s disease where should the throacic pad for a CTLSO: MILWAUKEE style be positioned

A

At apex

61
Q

Traumatic spondylolisthesis of C2 is known as a ______. If its unstable, its best to manage with a____.

A

Hangman fx, halo

62
Q

What is the method used to ring the baseline for corset measurement

A

Inferior costal margin to iliac crest divided by two

63
Q

Which cervical level exhibits the most sagittal motion

A

C0-C1 (check)

64
Q

Another name for a knight ox is

A

LSO: SAGITTAL/CORONAL CONTROL

65
Q

Milwaukee not recommended for a person with a paralytic spine

A

The person cannot provide active forces necessary for correction

66
Q

Hypokyyphosis can be defined as having a sagittal curves magnitude in the range of

A

0-20°

67
Q

What is the most likely mechanism of injury for a seatbelt fx

A

Flexion and distraction

68
Q

What deformity is most likely to result from ankylosing spondylitis

A

Flexion

69
Q

A patient presents with a grease III spondylolisthesis and a 45° slip angle. Based on the info what would likely be the most effective treatment

A

Surgery

70
Q

In lumbar spine where does most of the sagittal motion occur

A

Between L5 and S1 ( check)

71
Q

What effect does reducing decompensation have on the critical load of the spine

A

Increase

Ox Test Q (10 decks)

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