Test 4

Question 1

A complete lesion of the femoral nerve as it leaves the lumbar plexus affects

Answer 1

Knee extension

Question 2

The primary flexor of the hip is

Answer 2

Iliopsoas

Question 3

Paralytic equines during swing phase is often caused by the injury to

Answer 3

Common peroneal nerve

Question 4

A cycle of gait is defined as all activities that occurs b/w

Answer 4

Heel strike on one limb and subsequent heel strike on the same limb

Question 5

Toe out or toe in is the relationship of the long axis of the foot to the

Answer 5

Line of progression

Question 6

The motion of inversion and eversion occurs at which joint

Answer 6

Subtalar

Question 7

A common lesion of the tibial nerve on one leg wil result in what gait deviation

Answer 7

Shortened step length on ipsilateral side

Question 8

____ disease is an osteochondrosis of the capital femoral epiphysis that generally occurs in ____.

Answer 8

Leg-calve-perthes; 3-10 year old males

Question 9

At which part of gaitare the most number of muscles active

Answer 9

Heel strike

Question 10

For correction of genu valgum forces should be applied over the

Answer 10

Lateral thigh, distal to the greater trochanter, lateral aspect of the foot and the medial condyle of the femur

Question 11

The purpose of measuring external rotation of the ankle joint is

Answer 11

Insure that the mechanical ankle axis coincide with the anatomical ankle axis in the transverse plane

Question 12

What is the max acceptable malaligngment of a tibial fx that can be managed with an off the shelf fx orthosis

Answer 12

10° varus or valgus, 20° of anterior posterior angulation- (CHECK)

Question 13

CONGENITAL osteoporosis along with fx before and during birth is indicative of which condition

Answer 13

Osteogenesis imperfecta

Question 14

A flexible varus hindfoot might be corrected using

Answer 14

Lateral wedge

Question 15

Shoe modification that will most likely be used for a fixed equines deformity

Answer 15

Heel lift

Question 16

Metatarsal pads function to____ as well as_______

Answer 16

Relieve metatarsal heads/ elevate the transverse arch

Question 17

What of the following ankle joint control would be indicated for a patient that has paralysis of the pf.

Answer 17

Df stop

Question 18

In relaterion to the apex of the greater troch, where is the mechanics all hip joint located

Answer 18

25 mm proximal, 12 mm anterior

Question 19

T or f quadriceps femoris muscle consists of four parts, only one of which acts across the hip joint

Answer 19

True

Question 20

What motion does a cushioned heel stimulate

Answer 20

Pf at heel strike

Question 21

More ankle joint clearance is allowed for the medial malleolus because

Answer 21

The medial malleolus is more prominent

Question 22

During late stance the hip joint requires how much extension for normal function

Answer 22

10°

Question 23

Which phase of gait does a rocker sole most closely simulate

Answer 23

Midstance to toe off

Question 24

When treating an adult patient with an anterior hip dislocation, it important to

Answer 24

Not allow hip to extend pass 30° of flexion

Question 25

When genu varus is present ton a lower-limb scheme, the mid-sagittal line connects the perineium and the mark made..

Answer 25

30mm medial to the ankle

Question 26

The Coleman lateral block test is used to assess flexibility of which presentation?

Answer 26

Hindfoot varus

Question 27

Which motion would be Lost if the superficial branch of the common peroneal nerve is injured

Answer 27

Eversion of the subtalar joint

Question 28

Tibialis posterior is innervates by which nerve

Answer 28

Tibial nerve

Question 29

At heel strike the ground reaction line pass

Answer 29

Anterior to hip and posterior to knee

Question 30

The greatest amount of DF in gait

Answer 30

Heeloff

Question 31

Hallucis rigidus, which part of stance phase will the patient have the most discomfort

Answer 31

Late stance phase

Question 32

Which of the following muscle groups are responsible for the majority of muscular activity in decelerating the limb at terminal swing

Answer 32

Hamstrings

Question 33

A unilateral pelvic band should be what percentage of the circumference

Answer 33

33%

Question 34

Posterior lean is most commonly seen with paralysis of which muscle group

Answer 34

Hip extensor

Question 35

Tibialis anterior, extensor hallucis longus , peroneus tertius all assist in what

Answer 35

DF

Question 36

A favorable outcome in ox management of a tibial fx is

Answer 36

No more than 5° angulation in any plane

Question 37

The ligament on which the talus rest and which helps support the medial longitudinal arch of the foot is the

Answer 37

Plantar calcaneonavicluar ligament (spring ligament)

Question 38

A patient demonstrates good hip strength but poor quad and poor pf. What settting of a double action AFO would be the most appropriate treatment

Answer 38

Anterior pins maintaining a few degrees pf

Question 39

Weakness of the hip extensors you would expect to see what

Answer 39

Increased lordosis

Question 40

Condition where there is a growth disturbance on the medial proximal aspect of the tibia is

Answer 40

Blount's disease

Question 41

The talocalcaneal or talocalcaneonavicular joint forms which joint

Answer 41

Subtalar

Question 42

Talipes equinovarus can be present in which one of the following pathologies

Answer 42

Arthrogryposis (congenital joint contracture)

Question 43

A spina bifida child presents with s1 intact. The ox indicated at this time would be

Answer 43

UCBL

Question 44

When presented with a 5 year old pediatric patient who has cerebral palsy and pf contracture the best recommendation is

Answer 44

Serial cast

Question 45

Fusion of talocalcaneal, talonavicluar and calcanealcuboid is better known as a

Answer 45

Triple arthrodesis

Question 46

The TLSO: Sagittarius control is best suited to manage

Answer 46

Kyphosis secondary to osteoporosis

Question 47

Recommend an ox for a 20 year old male who has sustained a L1 burst fx

Answer 47

TLSO polymer

Question 48

A patient presents with disruption of the supraspinous ligament, interspinous ligament, posterior longitudinal ligament, ligamentum flavum, capsular ligament and the the intervertebral disc. There is sparing o fthe anterior longitudinal ligament and the patient is neurologically intact. What is the most likely mechanism of injury?

Answer 48

Flexion

Question 49

On which side of the ox should the throchanteric extension be placed

Answer 49

The side of decompensation

Question 50

C1 fracture that is 6 weeks post injury- injury is stable and shoes signs of callous formation with neurologic function:

Answer 50

Rigid cervical orthosis

Question 51

Spine of scapula is at which approximate vertebral level

Answer 51

T3

Question 52

Which biomechanical principle would be most effective in unloading an intervertral disc

Answer 52

Increased intracavitary pressure

Question 53

End point vertebrae in a scoliotic curve are the

Answer 53

Last convergent vertebrae most superior and inferior to null point

Question 54

What condition should be positioned in sagitall flexion when managing with an orthosis?

Answer 54

Spinal stenosis

Question 55

The axillary extension axtension of a boston style scoliosis orthosis for a double curve should extend from the

Answer 55

Window to about T5

Question 56

What does it mean when there is a grade II pedicure rotation

Answer 56

Pedicure is rotated 2/3 towards midline

Question 57

Unilateral contracture of the sternocleidomastoid that is indicative of torticollis would cause what clinical presentation

Answer 57

Lateral head flexion to ipsolateral side and rotation to contralateral side

Question 58

Pt presents with L1 burst fracture. Before taking the impression and maintaining optimal saggital alignment, you would want to know the status of which ligament

Answer 58

Anterior longitudinal ligament

Question 59

In scoliotic curve, the spinous processes rotates towards the

Answer 59

Concavity

Question 60

In scheuermann's disease where should the throacic pad for a CTLSO: MILWAUKEE style be positioned

Answer 60

At apex

Question 61

Traumatic spondylolisthesis of C2 is known as a ______. If its unstable, its best to manage with a____.

Answer 61

Hangman fx, halo

Question 62

What is the method used to ring the baseline for corset measurement

Answer 62

Inferior costal margin to iliac crest divided by two

Question 63

Which cervical level exhibits the most sagittal motion

Answer 63

C0-C1 (check)

Question 64

Another name for a knight ox is

Answer 64

LSO: SAGITTAL/CORONAL CONTROL

Question 65

Milwaukee not recommended for a person with a paralytic spine

Answer 65

The person cannot provide active forces necessary for correction

Question 66

Hypokyyphosis can be defined as having a sagittal curves magnitude in the range of

Answer 66

0-20°

Question 67

What is the most likely mechanism of injury for a seatbelt fx

Answer 67

Flexion and distraction

Question 68

What deformity is most likely to result from ankylosing spondylitis

Answer 68

Flexion

Question 69

A patient presents with a grease III spondylolisthesis and a 45° slip angle. Based on the info what would likely be the most effective treatment

Answer 69

Surgery

Question 70

In lumbar spine where does most of the sagittal motion occur

Answer 70

Between L5 and S1 ( check)

Question 71

What effect does reducing decompensation have on the critical load of the spine

Answer 71

Increase