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Ox Test Q > Test 2 > Flashcards

Test 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Medial upright of a KAFO For an adult should terminate proximally:

A

3.8cm (1.5 in) distal to perineum

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2
Q

You are laying out a tracing for a KAFO and genuine varus is evident. The mid-saggital line should extend from the perineum through a point:

A

3.2cm (1.25in) medial to the medial malleolus

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3
Q

The hip joint is most stable during stance when the weightl line is

A

Posterior to joint

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4
Q

The pelvic band on an HKAFO should be located

A

Midway b/w the iliac crest and the greater trochanter of the femur

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5
Q

A metal single axis (free motion) orthotic hep joint will control all the following motions at the hip except:

A

Extension:

Will control abduction, adduction, in and ex rotation

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6
Q

An infant with bilateral dislocated hips is usually fitted with an ox that will hold hips in:

A

Flexion and abduction

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7
Q

The major flexor muscle of the hip is

A

Iliopsoas

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8
Q

What anatomical structure prevents excessive hip hyperextension

A

Iliofemoral ligament- strongest in body

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9
Q

Promote healing in a case of leg-perthes’ disease, an ox should hold the hip joint in:

A

Internal rotation and abduction

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10
Q

KAFO’s are seldom prescribed for paraplegic patents with leasions above:

A

L2

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11
Q

A soft cervical collar is most effective in

A

Minimizing forward flexion

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12
Q

Which of the following muscles remain functional in a quadriplegic patient with a complete lesion below the c6 root

A

Extensor Capri radialis brevis

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13
Q

The superior articulating surfaces of the atlas articulate with the:

A

Occipital condyles

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14
Q

The orthotic treatment indicated for a fracture of T3 is:

A

CTO (SOMI)

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15
Q

Which of the following offers the greatest immobilization for a fx of the odontoid

A

4 post w/ body jacket
SOMI with head band
*Halo-jacket
Milwaukee CTLSO

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16
Q

WHEN casting for the Milwaukee CTLSO, the patients pelvis should be in what position?

A

Flexed

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17
Q

The theory of the CTLSO with throat mold and occipital pads (Milwaukee brace) with treating scoliosis is that the lateral pressure must be coupled with:

A

Active distraction

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18
Q

Which of the following is a conditions is a Milwaukee CTLSO not recommended:

A

Curves greater than 60 degrees

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19
Q

Measurements for a TLSO ( anterior hyperextension) should be taken with the patient in what position

A

Lying supine

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20
Q

Spondylitis

A

Inflammation of vertebrae…?

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21
Q

Spondylolisthesis

A

Anterior displacement of one vertebra on the next inferior vertebra

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22
Q

Spondylosis

A

Degenerative OA

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23
Q

SPONDYLOLYSIS

A

Breakage

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24
Q

Primary purpose of the axillary straps on a TLSO (Taylor ox) is to resist:

A

Should girdle and thoracic motion

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25
Q

Avg. adult, the knee joint in a KAFO should be located

A

3/4” proximal to medial tibial plateau

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26
Q

A patient wears a metal KAFO demonstrates excessive knee flexion when standing. To correct this problem, the othotist should deepen the:

A

Calf band

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27
Q

When reducing a knee flexion contracture with an ox, the major problem is watch for

A

Posterior subluxation of the tibia on the femur

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28
Q

The ox. Of choice for a patient with good hip control but fair minus quads is

A

SCO, GRAFO

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29
Q

Which nerve innervates the sartorius muscle of thigh

A

Femoral

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30
Q

The obituary or innervates what muscle

A

Adductor longus

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31
Q

What is the major function of parapodium

A

Stabilizes the lower limb and spine

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32
Q

Anteroposterior instability of the knee is causes by a tear of which of ligaments

A

Cruciate

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33
Q

Which of the following would be the best ox for a patient with a complex neurological lesion just below t12

A

KAFO which double stop ankle joint

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34
Q

A complete lesion of the femoral nerve at the level of the inguinal ligament would affect

A

Hip flexion

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35
Q

Compared to the balmoral style, the major advantage of the Boucher style shoe is

A

Easier donning

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36
Q

The subtalar joint is an articulation b/w the talus and the:

A

Calcaneus

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37
Q

Reverse last or outflare shoes are generally prescribed to control

A

Forefoot adduction

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38
Q

Which shoe modification is designed to simulate df

A

Rocker bar

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39
Q

Muscles pass directly posterior to the medial malleolus

A

Flexor hallucis longus, tibialis posterior, flexor digitorum longus

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40
Q

The major problem with using torsion shafts (twisters) to correct for excessive rotation of the leg

A

Difficulty with localizing rotary forces

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41
Q

Inversion and version of the hindfoot occur at which of the following joints

A

Subtalar

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42
Q

When selecting an AFO for a patient who demonstrates both knee instability at heel strike and genu recurvatum at midstance, the most effective ankle joint to use should be:

A

Solid ankle

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43
Q

When a 120 lb man is standing normally how much weight is borne on his left first metatarsal head?

A

60lbs- 1/3 weight

44
Q

Loss of power in the gastrocnius soleus group indicates injury to which of the following nerves

A

Tibial

45
Q

The gastrocnemius produces which of the following knee and ankle motion

A

Knee- flexion

Ankle- pf

46
Q

Muscles part of the pretibial group

A

Extensor hallucis longus, tibialis anterior, extensor digitorum longus ( tom dick harry)

47
Q

In a metal AFO with a lock ankle joint, which of the following help diminish a knee flexion moment at heel strike

A

Adding a SACH heel wedge

48
Q

The recommended ox for an adult hemispheric with spastic gastrocnemius and soleus is

A

AFO with pf stop

49
Q

If the patient has more internal tibial torsion than a KAFO allows the foot will be forced to do what

A

Evert

50
Q

Peroneus longus muscles causes what motions at the foot and ankle

A

Foot- eversion

Ankle- pf

51
Q

Inflammation about the spinal cord and brain is known as

A

Meningitis

52
Q

High heel shoes tend to increase

A

Lordosis

53
Q

Volar surface is the same as

A

Palmar surface

54
Q

What muscle enters its primary action on the PIP joints

A

Flexor digitorum superficialis

55
Q

What action of the first dorsal interosseous muscle on the index metacarpophalangeal joint are to

A

Flex and abduct

56
Q

In the HO which component hold the thumb in abduction

A

C-bar

57
Q

The most appropriate device for a patient with a median and ulnar nerve laceration at the wrist is:

A

HO (short opponent with M-P stop)

58
Q

Adduction and abduction of the fingers occur at which of the following joints

A

Metacarpophalangeal

59
Q

The intrinsic muscles (lumbricals and interossei) of the hand function to produce which of the following actions at the metacarpophalangeal and inter phalange also joints

A

MCP joint-flexion

IP joint-extension

60
Q

An MP STOP should stabilize the metacarpophanlangeal joint in what degree of flexion

A

15

61
Q

Which if the following is a function of the serrated anterior muscle

A

Rotation of the scapula

62
Q

Which of the following is the birth injury to the brachial plexus

A

Klumpke’s palsy

63
Q

A musculocutaneous nervous lesion will cause loss of function of which of the following muscles

A

Biceps

64
Q

Erb’s palsy refers to paralysis from injury to the

A

Upper trunk of the brachial plexus

65
Q

The medial epicondyles of the humerus serves as the origin for which of the following muscles group

A

Finger flexors

66
Q

Primary action of the brachioradialis muscles is to

A

Flex the elbow

67
Q

Which of the following muscles in the forearm does not cross the wrist joint

A

Brachirodialis

68
Q

A local physician ask your opinion on fitting a complete brachial plexus injury with a functional orthosis. Which problem can be anticipated

A

Shoulder subluxation is difficult to control

69
Q

Ox to immobilize a fracture of the carpal navicular must include the

A

Mp joint on the thumb

70
Q

Following structures pass through the carpal tunnel

A

Median nerve, flexor digitorum profundus, flexor digitorum superficialis, flexor pollicus longus

71
Q

THE WHFOs: engen-TIRR, Rancho, and RIC are all what?

A

Wrist tenodesis orthosis

72
Q

Most effective for hand lacking thumb abductor strength

A

C-bar

73
Q

Metacarpophalangeal hyperextension and interphalangeal semi-flexion of the ring and little finger characterize a lesion of which nerve at the wrist

A

Ulnar

74
Q

Flexion of the distal interphalangeal joint is accomplished by which muscle and nerve

A

Flexor digitorum profundus (median)

75
Q

Orthosis indicated for a median nerve palsy at the wrist

A

HO- basic opponents orthosis

76
Q

Patients who have good extensor digitorum communis function but loss of intrinsics would require a hand orthosis with what component

A

An IP extension assist…?( look up why)

77
Q

Sensation is transmitted through which of the following structures of spinal cord?

A

Dorsal branch of the nerve roots

78
Q

Describe an aponeurosis

A

A thin flattened tendon

79
Q

During normal human locomotion, how much does the center of gravity shift from Side to side

A

2 inches

80
Q

Primary tissue involved in rheumatoid arthritis

A

Synovial membrane

81
Q

Charcot joint results from

A

Disruption of the sensory pathoways to the joint

82
Q

The most effective way to obtain max support with a metal spinal orthosis is to wear it with

A

A corset

83
Q

A guide in measuring the distance b/w posterior uprights on a lumbosacral ox is

A

Paraspinal muscles

84
Q

Lateral bending of the spine always includes what additional motion

A

Rotation

85
Q

Hydrocephalus may accompany

A

Spina bifida??

86
Q

Name 3 upper motor neuron lesions

A

Cva, ms, spinal cord transection

87
Q

A hernia support should be fit while patient is in

A

Supine

88
Q

A good purchase on the pelvis is required in spinal orthotics to

A

Increase intra abdominal pressure

89
Q

Lordosis can result from

A

Collapse of lumbar vertebral bodies

90
Q

Cauda equina refers to the

A

Nerve roots below the level of the spinal cord

91
Q

Increasing intraabdominal pressure by using spinal orthoses has the effect of

A

Limiting diaphragmatic respiration

92
Q

Which of the following orthoses would best treat spondylolisthesis

A

Lso- chair back

93
Q

For maximum leverage with an LSO, it should extend from the

A

Sacroccoygeal area to 1” below the inferior angle of the scapula

94
Q

Lateral stability of the pelvis in stance phase is accomplished through the action of what muscle

A

Gluteus medius

95
Q

Extension of the vertebral column is a function of which the following muscles

A

Erector spinal

96
Q

Which of the following ox is most effective for scoliosis curves with apex above t7

A

CTLSO - Milwaukee

97
Q

Most commonly prescribed external support for lower back pain is the

A

LSO

98
Q

Which of the following ox will most effectively treat juvenile epiphysitis of the spine (scheuermann’s disease)?

A

CTLSO-MILWAUKEE

99
Q

Which nerve divides into the common peroneal and tibial nerves of the distal thigh

A

Sciatic

100
Q

What is a disadvantage of the round caliper shoe attachment

A

Mechanical joint axis distal to anatomical axis

101
Q

Which metal ankle joint is the functional equivalent of a plastic AFO trimmed anterior to the malleolus

A

Double stop

102
Q

The correct location of the mechanical ankle joint is at

A

the distal border of the medial malleolus

103
Q

DF stop performs same as the functions of which muscle

A

Gastroc-soleus

104
Q

Major functions of the tibialis anterior muscle

A

Df and inversion

105
Q

In the absence of a functional TA, the muscle anatomically best suited to assume its role is the:

A

Extensor hallucis longus

Ox Test Q (10 decks)

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