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Bio 1442 > Test 4 > Flashcards

Test 4 Flashcards

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1
Q

What type of signal is long-lasting and works at night?

A

olfactory

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2
Q

What type of signal is brief and can work among obstructions at night?

A

auditory

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3
Q

What type of signal is fast and requires daylight with no obstructions?

A

visual

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4
Q

circannual rhythms in birds are influenced by_________.

A

periods of daylight and darkness

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5
Q

Upon returning to its hive, a European honeybee communicates to other worker bees the presence of a nearby food source it has discovered by__________.

A

performing a round dance

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6
Q

Displays of nocturnal mammals are usually______.

A

olfactory and auditory

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7
Q

A lizard’s bobbing dewlap (a colorful flap of skin hanging from an Anolis lizard’s throat) is an example of a(n)__________.

A

signal

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8
Q

What was the main reason the honeybees switched from the “round dance” to the “waggle dance”?

A

the preferred food source was farther away

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9
Q

The proximate causes of behavior are interactions with the environment, but behavior is ultimately shaped by _____.

A

evolution

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10
Q

Which of the following is required for a behavioral trait to evolve by natural selection?

A

an individual’s reproductive success depends in part on how the behavior is performed

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11
Q

Through trial and error, a rat learns to run a maze without mistakes to receive a food reward. Whats the behavior type?

A

operant conditioning

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12
Q

A human baby performs a sucking behavior perfectly when it is put in the presence of the nipple of its mother’s breast. Whats the behavior type?

A

innate behavior

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13
Q

A mother goat can recognize its own kid by smell. Whats the behavior type?

A

Imprinting

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14
Q

Every morning at the same time, John went into the den to feed his new tropical fish. After a few weeks, he noticed that the fish swam to the top of the tank when he entered the room. This is an example of _____.

A

classical conditioning

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15
Q

Some dogs love attention, and Frodo the beagle learns that if he barks, he gets attention. Which of the following might you use to describe this behavior?

A

the dog’s behavior is a result of operant conditioning

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16
Q

Which of the following is true of innate behaviors? Innate behaviors _____.

A

are expressed in most individuals in a population

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17
Q

Learning has the most influence on behavior when_________.

A

making mistakes does not result in death

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18
Q

You discover a rare new bird species, but you are unable to observe its mating behavior. You see that the male is large and ornamental compared with the female. On this basis, you can probably conclude that the species is _____.

A

polygamous

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19
Q

Female spotted sandpipers aggressively court males and, after mating and egg laying, leave the clutch of young for the male to incubate. This sequence may be repeated several times with different males until no available males remain, forcing the female to incubate her last clutch. Which of the following terms best describes this behavior?

A

polyandry

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20
Q

feeding behavior with a high energy intake-to-expenditure ration is called___________.

A

optimal foraging

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21
Q

Which of the following is most likely associated with the evolution of mating systems?

A

sexual dimorphism

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22
Q

Females are typically larger and more ornamented than males where_____ occurs.

A

polyandry

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23
Q

Which of the following statements is true about certainty of paternity?

A

paternal behavior exists because it has been reinforced over generations by natural selection

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24
Q

Which of the following best describes “game theory” as it applies to animal behavior?

A

the fitness of a particular behavior is influenced by other behavioral phenotypes in a population

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25
Q

Upon observing a golden eagle flying overhead, a sentry prairie dog gives a warning call to other foraging member of the prairie dog community. What is this animal behavior?

A

altruistic behavior

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26
Q

Which of the following statements about evolution of behavior is correct?

A

natural selection will favor behavior that enhances survival and reproduction

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27
Q

How do altruistic behaviors arise through natural selection?

A

by his/her actions, the altruist increases the likelihood that some of its genes will be passed on to the next generation

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28
Q

animals that help other animals of the same species___________.

A

are usually related to the other animals helped

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29
Q

How would you classify the genetic basis for most behavioral traits in the animal kingdom?

A

many genes typically code for one behavior

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30
Q

Which level of ecological study focuses the most on abiotic factors?

A

ecosystem ecology

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31
Q

What would happen to the seasons if the Earth were tilted 35 degrees off its orbital plane instead of the usual 23.5 degrees?

A

winters and summers would be more severe

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32
Q

Which of the following choices includes all of the others in creating global terrestrial climates?

A

differential heating of Earth’s surface

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33
Q

Why is the climate drier on the leeward (downwind) side of mountain ranges that are subjected to prevailing winds?

A

pushed by the prevailing winds on the windward side, air is forced to rise, cool, condense, and drop its precipitation, leaving drier air to descend the leeward side.

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34
Q

Which of the following events might you predict to occur if the tilt of Earth’s axis relative to its plane of orbit was increased to 33.5 degrees?

A

summers and winters in the United States would likely become warmer and colder, respectively.

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35
Q

The main reason polar regions are cooler than the equator is that____.

A

sunlight strikes the poles at a lower angle

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36
Q

The success of plants extending their range northward following glacial retreat is best determined by_____.

A

their speed dispersal rate

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37
Q

Air masses formed over the Pacific Ocean are moved by prevailing westerlies where they encounter extensive north-south mountain ranges, such as the Sierra Nevada and the Cascades. Which statement best describes the outcome of this encounter between a landform and an air mass?

A

The warm, moist Pacific air rises and cools, releasing precipitation as it moves up the windward side of the range. This cool, now dry air mass heats up as it descends on the leeward side of the range.

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38
Q

Coral reefs can be found on the southeast coast of the United States but not at similar latitudes on the southwest coast. Differences in which of the following most likely account for this?

A

ocean currents

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39
Q

Generally speaking, deserts are located in places where air masses are usually_____.

A

descending

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40
Q

When climbing a mountain, we can observe transitions in biological communities that are analogous to the changes_______.

A

in biomes at different latitudes

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41
Q

If the direction of Earth’s rotation reversed, the most predictable effect would be_______.

A

winds blowing from west to east along the equator

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42
Q

Besides sunlight, which would be the next most important climatic factors for terrestrial plants?

A

temperature and moisture

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43
Q

Which statement describes how climate might change if Earth was 75 percent land and 25 percent water?

A

Earth’s daytime temperatures would be higher and nighttime temperature lower

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44
Q

If global warming continues at its present rate, which biomes will likely take the place of the coniferous forest(tiga)?

A

temperate broadleaf forest and grassland

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45
Q

fire suppression by humans_____.

A

can change the species composition within biological communities

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46
Q

Two plant species live in the same biome but on different continents. Although the two species are not at all closely related, they may appear quite similar as a result of _____.

A

convergent evolution

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47
Q

in deep water, which of the following abiotic factors would most limit productivity?

A

light availability

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48
Q

Wetlands are standing bodies of freshwater, just like lakes and ponds. However, wetlands are different from lakes and ponds because wetlands have______.

A

shallow water and emergent vegetation

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49
Q

Which of the following statements regarding turnover in a lake is correct?

A

in fall turnover, dense water at 4 degrees celcius sinks and disturbs sediments in the benthic zone.

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50
Q

Which of the following types of organisms is likely to have the widest geographic distribution?

A

bacteria

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51
Q

Turnover of water in temperate lakes during the spring and fall is made possible by which of the following?

A

the changes in the density of water as seasonal temperatures change

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52
Q

Imagine that a deep temperate zone lake did not turn over during the spring and fall seasons. Based on the physical and biological properties of limnetic ecosystems, what would be the difference from normal seasonal turnover?

A

lakes would suffer a nutrient depletion in surface layers

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53
Q

If you are interested in observing a relatively simple community structure in a clear water lake, you would do well to choose diving into_____.

A

an oligotrophic lake

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54
Q

Which of the following is responsible for the differences in summer and winter temperature stratification of deep temperate zone lakes?

A

water is densest at 4 degrees celcius

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55
Q

Which of the following statements best describes the effect of climate on biome distribution?

A

the average climate and pattern of climate are important in determining biome distribution

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56
Q

in the development of terrestrial biomes, which factor is most dependent on all the others?

A

the species of colonizing animals

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57
Q

Which of the following is the most important assumption for the mark-recapture method to estimate the size of wildlife populations?

A

marked individuals have the same probability of being recaptured as unmarked individuals during the recapture phase

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58
Q

Uniform spacing patterns in plants such as the creosote bush are most often associated with _____.

A

competitive interaction between individuals of the same population

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59
Q

During exponential growth, a population always _____.

A

grows at its maximum per capita rate

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60
Q 
Which of the following causes populations to shift most quickly from an exponential to a logistic population growth?
A) favorable climatic conditions
B) removal of predators
C) decreased death rate
D) competition for resources
A

d

61
Q

What is the primary limiting factor that determines why no female animal can produce a very large number of very large eggs?

A

there are energy constraints

62
Q

Natural selection involves energetic trade-offs between _____.

A

high survival rates of offspring and the cost of parental care

63
Q

Why does the 2009 U.S. population continue to grow even though the United States has essentially established a zero population growth (ZPG)?

A

immigration

64
Q

A recent study of ecological footprints concluded that _____.

A

the ecological footprint of the United States is large because per capita resource use is high

65
Q

Some birds follow moving swarms of army ants in the tropics. As the ants march along the forest floor hunting insects and small vertebrates, birds follow and pick off any insects or small vertebrates that fly or jump out of the way of the ants. This situation is an example of what kind of species interaction between the birds and the ants?

A

commensalism

66
Q

If two species are close competitors, and one species is experimentally removed from the community, the remaining species would be expected to _____.

A

expand its realized niche

67
Q

Resource partitioning would be most likely to occur between______.

A

sympatric populations of species with similar ecological niches

68
Q

Which of the following is an example of cryptic coloration?

A

a “walking stick” insect that resembles a twig

69
Q

Which of the following is an example of Mullerian Mimicry?

A

two species of unpalatable butterfly that have the same color pattern

70
Q

Which of the following is an example of Batesian mimicry?

A

a nonvenomous snake that looks like a venomous snake

71
Q

Which of the following is an example of aposematic coloration?

A

the brightly colored patterns of poison dart frogs

72
Q

In some circumstances, grasses benefit from being grazed. Which of the following terms would best describe such a plant-herbivore interaction?

A

mutualism

73
Q

How might an ecologist test whether a species is occupying all of its fundamental niche or only a portion of it?

A

observe if the species expands its range after the removal of a competitor

74
Q

In a tide pool, fifteen species of invertebrates were reduced to eight after one species was removed. The species removed was likely a(n) _____.

A

keystone species

75
Q

According to bottom-up and top-down control models of community organization, which of the following expressions would imply that an increase in the size of a carnivore (C) population would negatively impact its prey (P) population, but not vice versa?

A

c——p

76
Q

Which of the following is a likely explanation for why invasive species take over communities into which they have been introduced?

A

Invasive species are not held in check by the predators and agents of disease that have always been in place for native species

77
Q

Keystone predators can maintain species diversity in a community if they _____.

A

prey on the community’s dominant species

78
Q

Food chains are sometimes short because________.

A

most of the energy in a trophic level is lost as it passes to the next higher level

79
Q

Which of the following could qualify as a top-down control on a grassland community?

A

effect of grazing intensity by bison on plant species diversity

80
Q

What is the main advantage of controlled burnings of forested areas? controlled burnings _____________.

A

prevent the overgrowth of the underbrush

81
Q

According to the nonequilibrium model of community diversity, _____.

A

communities are constantly changing after being influenced by disturbances

82
Q

Why do moderate levels of disturbance result in an increase in community diversity?

A

habitats are opened up for less competitive species

83
Q

Based on the intermediate disturbance hypothesis, a community’s species diversity is increased by _____.

A

moderate levels of disturbance

84
Q

There are more species in tropical areas than in places more distant from the equator. This is probably a result of _____.

A

more intense annual solar radiation

85
Q

Which of the following is a widely supported explanation for the tendency of tropical communities to have greater species diversity than temperate or polar communities?

A

tropical communities are generally older than temperate and polar communities

86
Q

According to the equilibrium model of island biogeography, species richness would be greatest on an island that is _____.

A

large and close to a mainland

87
Q

The most plausible hypothesis to explain why species richness is higher in tropical than in temperate regions is that _____.

A

tropical regions generally have more available water and higher levels of solar radiation

88
Q

Why is a pathogen generally more virulent in a new habitat?

A

Hosts in new environments have not had a chance to become resistant to the pathogen through natural selection.

89
Q

In terms of community ecology, why are pathogens often more virulent now than in the past?

A

Human activities are transporting pathogens into new habitats (or communities) at an unprecedented rate.

90
Q

If the sun were to suddenly stop providing energy to Earth, most ecosystems would vanish. Which of the following ecosystems would likely survive the longest after this hypothetical disaster?

A

benthic ocean

91
Q

Which of the following terms encompasses all of the others?

A

heterotrophs

92
Q

Which of the following is an example of an ecosystem?

A

all of the organisms and their physical environment in a tropical rain forest

93
Q 
Which of the following organisms is INCORRECTLY paired with its trophic level?
A) cyanobacterium — primary producer
B) grasshopper — primary consumer
C) zooplankton — primary producer
D) fungus — detritivore
A

c

94
Q

Which of the following has the greatest effect on the rate of chemical cycling in an
ecosystem?
A) the ecosystem’s rate of primary production
B) the production efficiency of the ecosystem’s consumers
C) the rate of decomposition in the ecosystem
D) the trophic efficiency of the ecosystem

A

c

95
Q

matter is gained or lost in ecosystems. How does this occur?

A

matter can be moved from one ecosystem to another

96
Q

Why is terrestrial productivity higher in equatorial climates?

A

the answer is most likely a combination of the other responses

97
Q

As big as it is, the ocean is nutrient-limited. If you wanted to investigate this phenomenon, one reasonable approach would be to___________.

A

experimentally enrich some areas of the ocean and compare their productivity to that of untreated areas

98
Q

If you applied a fungicide to a cornfield, what would you expect to happen to the rate of decomposition and net ecosystem production (NEP)?

A

decomposition rate would decrease and NEP would increase

99
Q

Which of the following is a true statement regarding mineral nutrients in soils and their implication for primary productivity?
A) Globally, phosphorous availability is most limiting to primary productivity.
B) Adding a nonlimiting nutrient will stimulate primary productivity.
C) Phosphorous is sometimes unavailable to producers due to leaching.
D) Alkaline soils are more productive than acidic soils.

A

c

100
Q

How is net ecosystem production (NEP) typically estimated in ecosystems?

A

the net flux of carbon dioxide or oxygen in or out of an ecosystem

101
Q

Which of the following ecosystems would likely have the largest net primary productivity per hectare and why?

A

grassland, because of the small standing crop biomass that results from consumption by herbivores and rapid decomposition

102
Q

How is it that satellites can detect differences in primary productivity on Earth?

A

satellites compare the wavelengths of light captured and reflected by photoautotrophs in different ecosystems

103
Q

Which one of the following correctly ranks these organisms in order from lowest to highest percent in production efficiency?

A

mammals, fish, insects

104
Q

how does inefficient transfer of energy among trophic levels result in the typically high endangerment status of many top-level predators?

A

top-level predators are destined to have small populations that are sparsely distributed

105
Q

Why does a vegetarian leave a smaller ecological footprint than an omnivore?

A

eating meat is an inefficient way of acquiring photosynthetic productivity

106
Q

For most terrestrial ecosystems, pyramids composed of species abundances, biomass, and energy are similar in that they have a broad base and a narrow top. the primary reason for this pattern is that__________.

A

at each step, energy is lost from the system

107
Q

Which of the following is primarily responsible for limiting the number of trophic levels in most ecosystems?

A

energy transfer between trophic levels is usually less than 20 percent efficient

108
Q

Which trophic level is most vulnerable to extinction?

A

tertiary consumer level

109
Q

Which statement best describes what ultimately happens to the chemical energy that is not converted to new biomass in the process of energy transfer between trophic levels in an ecosystem?
A) It is undigested and winds up in the feces and is not passed on to higher trophic levels.
B) It is used by organisms to maintain their life processes through the reactions of cellular respiration.
C) Heat produced by cellular respiration is used by heterotrophs for thermoregulation.
D) It is eliminated as feces or is dissipated into space as heat, consistent with the second law of thermodynamics.

A

d

110
Q

If the flow of energy in an arctic ecosystem goes through a simple food chain, perhaps involving humans, starting from phytoplankton to zooplankton to fish to seals to polar bears, then which of the following could be true?

A

fish can potentially provide more food for humans than seal meat

111
Q

Which of the following statements is correct about biogeochemical cycling?

A

the phosphorus cycle involves the weathering of rocks

112
Q

Nitrifying bacteria participate in the nitrogen cycle mainly by__________.

A

converting ammonium to nitrate, which plants absorb

113
Q

Why do logged tropical rain forest soils typically have nutrient-poor soils?

A

most of the nutrients in the ecosystem are removed in the harvested timber

114
Q

The first step in ecosystem restoration is to_________.

A

restore the physical structure

115
Q

The goal of restoration ecology is to________.

A

return degraded ecosystems to a more natural state

116
Q

The discipline that applies ecological principles to returning degraded ecosystems to a more natural state is known as_______.

A

restoration ecology

117
Q

Which of the following would be considered an example of bioremediation?

A

adding nitrogen-fixing microorganisms to a degraded ecosystem to increase nitrogen availability

118
Q

What is the biological significance of genetic diversity between populations?

A

genes for traits conferring an advantage to local conditions make microevolution possible

119
Q

With regard to the destruction of tropical forests, the focus is often on biodiversity and the impact to these ecosystems. What is a direct benefit to humans that helps explain why these forests need to be preserved?

A

The diversity could contain novel drugs for consumers

120
Q

Which of the following statements regarding extinction is (are) correct?
I) Only a small percentage of species is immune from extinction.
II) Extinction occurs whether humans interfere or not.
III) Extinctions can even be caused indirectly by humans.

A

only II and III

121
Q

Which of the following ecological locations has the greatest species diversity?

A

tropical rain forests

122
Q

Which of the following provides the best evidence of a biodiversity crisis?

A

high rate of extinction

123
Q

Which of the following terms includes all of the others?

A

biodiversity

124
Q

To better comprehend the magnitude of current extinctions, it will be necessary to________.

A

identify more of the yet unknown species of organisms on Earth

125
Q

We should care about loss in biodiversity in other species because of _____.
I) potential loss of medicines and other products yet undiscovered from threatened species
II) potential loss of genes, some of which may code for proteins useful to humans
III) the risk to global ecological stability

A

I, II and III

126
Q

Which of the following is the most direct threat to biodiversity?

A

habitat destruction

127
Q

Over harvesting encourages extinction and is most likely to affect______.

A

large animals with low intrinsic reproductive rates

128
Q

Of the following ecosystem types, which have been impacted the most by humans?

A

wetland and riparian

129
Q

Which of the following criteria have to be met for a species to qualify as invasive?

A

introduced to a new area, spreads rapidly, and displaces native species

130
Q

Which of the following conditions is the most likely indicator of a population in an extinction vortex?

A

genetic measurements indicate a loss of genetic variation over time

131
Q

What strategy was used to rescue Illinois prairie chickens from a recent extinction vortex?

A

Introducing individuals from other populations to increase genetic variation

132
Q

If the sex ration in a population is significantly different from 50:50, then which of the following will always be true?

A

the effective population size will be less than the actual population size

133
Q

Which of the following strategies would most rapidly increase the genetic diversity of a population in an extinction vortex?

A

introduce new individuals transported form other populations of the same species

134
Q

Which on of the following is least likely to be a hotspot for birds?

A

Greenland

135
Q

The main purpose of wildlife (movement) corridors is to________.

A

connect two otherwise isolated populations

136
Q

Brown-headed cowbirds utilize fragmented forests effectively by_____.

A

parasitizing the nests of forest birds and feeding on open-field insects

137
Q

Movement (wildlife) corridors can be harmful to certain species because they_______.

A

spread disease and parasites

138
Q

Locating new nature preserves in biodiversity hot spots may not necessarily the best choice because______.

A

changing environmental conditions may shift the location of the communities

139
Q

Why is the biggest problem with selecting a site for a preserve?

A

making a proper selection is difficult because currently the environmental conditions of almost any site can change quickly

140
Q

What is a critical load?

A

the amount of added nutrient that can be absorbed by plants without damaging ecosystem integrity

141
Q

Agricultural lands frequently require nutrient augmentation because________.

A

the nutrients that become the biomass of plants are not cycled back to the soil on lands where they are harvested

142
Q

This is caused by excessive nutrient runoff into aquatic ecosystems.

A

eutrophication

143
Q

This causes extremely high levels of toxic chemicals in fish-eating birds.

A

biological magnification

144
Q

The main cause of the increase in the amount of carbon dioxide in Earth’s atmosphere over the past 150 years is_______.

A

the burning of larger amounts of wood and fossil fuels

145
Q

Which of the following is a consequence of biological magnification (biomagnification)?

A

toxic chemicals in the environment pose greater risk to top-level predators than to primary consumers

146
Q

Why are changes in the global carbon cycle important?
I) Burning reduces available carbon for primary producers and, therefore, primary consumers.
II) Deforestation and suburbanization reduce an area’s net primary productivity.
III) Increasing atmospheric concentrations of carbon dioxide could alter Earth’s climate.
IV) By using fossil fuels we are destroying a nonrenewable resource.

A

all four

147
Q

The main goal of sustainable development is to_________.

A

use natural resources such that they do not decline over time

148
Q

Which of the following nations has become a world leader in the establishment of zoned reserves?

A

Costa Rica

Bio 1442 (4 decks)

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