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Gross II > Test 3 Part 2 > Flashcards

Test 3 Part 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Does the bicipital bursa communicate with the cavity of the shoulder joint?

A

NO!

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2
Q

Job of the lacertus fibrosus?

A

joins the long tendon of the biceps brachii to the tendon of the ext. carpi radialis m.

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3
Q

Location of ext. carpi radialis?

A

lies on the caudal surface of the radius

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4
Q

O and I of the ext. carpi radialis?

A

O: Lateral supracondylar crest of the humerus
I: MCIII (metacarpal tuberosity)

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5
Q

Action of the ext. carpi radialis?

A
  • extends carpal joint
  • flexes elbow
  • stabilizes carpal joint
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6
Q

O and I of Ulnaris lateralis?

A

O: lateral epicondyle of the humerus
I: Accessory carpal bone (short tendon) and MC IV (long tendon)

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7
Q

Action of the ulnaris lateralis?

A
  • FLEXES CARPAL JOINT

- extends elbow

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8
Q

Bursa for the ulnaris lateralis?

A

under its tendon of origin

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9
Q

T/F: The long tendon of the ulnaris lateralis is enveloped by a synovial sheath

A

True

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10
Q

O and I of the flexor carpi radialis?

A

O: medial epicondyle of the humerus
I: MCII

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11
Q

Action of the flexor carpi radialis?

A
  • flexes carpal joint

- extends elbow

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12
Q

Bursa of the Flexor carpi radialis?

A

under tendon of insertion

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13
Q

The flexor carpi radialis is enclosed by ______ and bound by the __________

A

synovial sheath; flexor retinaculum

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14
Q

O and I for flexor carpi ulnaris?

A

O:
-humeral head = medial epicondyle of humerus
-ulnar head = olecranon
I: Accessory carpal bone

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15
Q

Action of the flexor carpi ulnaris?

A
  • flex carpal

- extend elbow

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16
Q

Where is the bursa for the flexor carpi ulnaris? Does it communicate with the elbow?

A

Under ulnar head; extends elbow joint

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17
Q

Is there a synovial sheath for the flexor carpi ulnaris?

A

no

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18
Q

O and I of common digital extensor?

A

O: lateral epicondyle of humerus
I:
-Extensor process of distal phalanx
-proximal and middle phalanx (dorsal surface)

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19
Q

Action of common digital extensor?

A
  • extends carpal and digital joints

- flexes elbow joint

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20
Q

Location of the bursa of the common digital extensor?

A

at fetlock joint, between its tendon and the fetlock joint

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21
Q

O and I of the SDF?

A

O: medial epicondyle of the humerus
I: middle phalanx and proximal phalanx

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22
Q

Action of the SDF?

A
  • flexes carpal and distal joints (fetlock, pastern)

- extends elbow

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23
Q

Accessory ligament (proximal check lig) of SDF?

A

fuses w/ its tendon just proximal to carpus

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24
Q

________ is common for the SDF and DDF, bound by the flexor retinaculum

A

Carpal synovial sheath

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25
Q

what is the manica flexoria?

A

ring in the SDF at the level of the fetlock, where the DDF passes

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26
Q

O and I of DDF?

A

O: medial epicondyle of the humerus
I: distal phalanx

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27
Q

Action of the DDF?

A
  • flexes carpal and digital joints

- extends elbow joint

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28
Q

How many head does the DDF have?

A

3 - humeral, radial, and ulnar

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29
Q

The accessory ligament for the DDF is a direct continuation of ___________

A

palmar carpal ligament

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30
Q

Where is the navicular bursa?

A

between the tendon of the DDF and the navicular bone

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31
Q

T/F: There are collateral ligaments for the shoulder

A

FALSE!!

NO collateral lig. for shoulder

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32
Q

Applications of joint injection and aspiration (4)

A
  • Intraarticular anesthesia
  • administer medication
  • collect synovial fluid
  • administer a radiographic contrast medium
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33
Q

Where is the needle inserted for injection in the shoulder?

A
  • Cr. margin of the palpable infraspinatus tendon
  • level of the notch between the Cr. and Cd. parts of the greater tubercle
  • needle is directed parallel to ground and caudally, aiming toward the opposite elbow
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34
Q

Major role of the forelimb?

A

support the weight of the body

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35
Q

Approx. ______% of the body weight is supported by the forelimb

A

60%

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36
Q

The weight supported by the forelimb is received at the proximal end of the scapula through the attachment of this muscle

A

serratus ventralis

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37
Q

What is one of the most important features of the suspensory apparatus?

A

suspensory ligament

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38
Q

These things prevent excessive overextension of the fetlock joint by the suspensory apparatus (6)

A
  • suspensory ligament
  • proximal sesamoid bones
  • metacarpo-intersesamoidean ligament
  • straight sesamoidean ligament
  • oblique sesamoidean ligament
  • cruciate sesamoidean ligament
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39
Q

What prevents excessive overextension of the pastern joint?

A
  • axial and abaxial palmar ligaments, medial and lateral
  • straight sesamoidean ligament
  • DDF tendon
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40
Q

___________ prevents the pastern joint from buckling forward (flexion)

A

SDF tendon

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41
Q

T/F: When weight is on the limb, the SDF is under tension and pulls back on the joint

A

True

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42
Q

The carpus is stabilized by the ….

A
  • palmar carpal ligament
  • digital flexor tendons
  • ECR tendon
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43
Q

Overextension of the carpus is blocked by the…

A
  • primatily = flat dorsal parts of the articular surfaces in the radiocarpal and midcarpal joints
  • secondary = palmar carpal ligament
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44
Q

This prevent the carpus from buckling forward (flexion)

A

constant upward pull of the ECR tendon through the lacertus fibrosus

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45
Q

The elbow is stabilized and prevented from flexion by…

A
  • carpal and digital flexor muscles
  • medial and lateral collateral ligaments
  • short tendon of the Biceps brachii
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46
Q

Coronary border of the wall of the hoof

A
  • external surface = periople

- internal surface = coronary groove

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47
Q

Periople (5)

A
  • soft, light-colored horn
  • forms a 1-2 cm wide band
  • becomes wider on the palmar aspect
  • covers the bulbs of the heels
  • blends with the base of the frog
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48
Q

Coronary groove (3)

A
  • contains coronary corium
  • narrows on the sides
  • merges at the angles with the perioplic groove
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49
Q

Sole border (margo solearis)

A
  • contacts with the ground (unshod hoof)
  • its thickness is greater in front and at the angles
  • its inner face is united with the periphery of the sole by horn of lighter color and softer texture, which appears on the ground surface of the hoof as the white line
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50
Q

Layers of the hoof wall

A
  • stratum externum
  • stratum medium
  • stratum internum
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51
Q

Stratum externum

A

comprises
-periople -proximally
-stratum tectorium
_very thin layer of glossy horn, derived from the periople
_carried distally with the growth of the wall

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52
Q

Stratum medium

A
  • forms the bulk of the wall
  • its horn tubules run parallel from the coronary to the sole border
  • pigmented in dark hooves, except in its deepest part
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53
Q

stratum internum

A
  • consists of horny laminae

- non-pigmented

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54
Q

What is the white line of the hoof?

A

juction between sole and the wall, where the hard coronary horn is mixed with the softer sole horn

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55
Q

What is the corium of the hoof?

A
  • specially modified and highly vascular continuation of the connective tissue layer of the skin
  • furnishes nutrition to the hoof
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56
Q

Papillae of the corium of the hoof (3)

A
  • entire corium carries papillae
  • run parallel to each other and to the dorsal surface of the hoof
  • directed toward the ground
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57
Q

How many parts are there to the corium? Names?

A

5

  • perioplic corium
  • coronary corium
  • laminar corium
  • corium of the sole
  • corium of the frog
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58
Q

The digital cushion is __________ supplied with blood vessels

A

poorly

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59
Q

role of the digital cushion

A

shock absorber

60
Q

Veins of the hoof are ________ and form a venous network

61
Q

These arteries supply the corium of the hoof

A

lateral and medial palmar arteries

62
Q

This is an anastomose of the the lat. and med. palmar digital arteries

A

terminal arch

63
Q

Arteries of the hoof

A
  • lat. and med. palmar digital arteries
  • terminal arch
  • artery of the sole margin
64
Q

Innervation of the hoof

A
  • palmar digital nerve

- dorsal branch

65
Q

What does the palmar digital nerve innervate?

A
  • navicular complex
  • palmar 1/3 of the wall, sole, frog, heel bulbs, hoof cartilage
  • coffin joint
66
Q

Dorsal branch innervates what?

A

perioplic, coronary and wall segment

67
Q

When is it most effective to apply a nose twitch when doing nerve blocks in the leg?

A

immediately before needle placement

68
Q

Why is it not ideal to use a sedative to manage the horse when doing nerve blocks?

A

may interfere with gait assessment

69
Q

While rare, what are some complications that might occur during nerve blocks?

A
  • broken needle
  • subcutaneous infection
  • septic synovitis
70
Q

Golden Rule of Regional Anesthesia

A

Start distally in the limb and work proximally to localize the lesion!!!!

71
Q

Forelimb Nerve Blocks (distal to proximal)

A
  • palmar digital
  • abaxial sesamoid
  • low palmar
  • high palmar
  • lateral palmar
72
Q

What does a palmar digital nerve block desensitize?

A
  • entire sole
  • navicular apparatus
  • digital cushion
  • almost all region of corium (except perioplic, coronary, and lateral side of the laminar corium)
  • DDF tendon - digital potion
  • coffin joint
73
Q

How can you tell if a palmar digital nerve block was a success? (2)

A
  • resolution of lameness

- loss of skin sensation at the coronary band in the palmar portion of the foot

74
Q

Nerves blocked by abaxial sesamoid nerve block?

A
  • palmar digital nerves

- dorsal branch of the palmar digital nerve

75
Q

What does an abaxial sesamoid nerve block desensitize?

A
  • proximal phalanx (palmar apsect)
  • middle phalanx
  • fetlock joint (except the proximal portion of the fetlock joint pouch)
  • pastern joint
  • SDF, DDF tendons -distal portion
  • distal sesamoidean ligaments
  • digital annular ligaments
76
Q

How can you tell if an abaxial sesamoid nerve block was successful?

A

loss of skin sensation at

  • coronary band in the toe region
  • palmar portion of the foot or the heels
77
Q

Nerves blocked with a low palmar nerve block?

A
  • medial and lateral palmar nerves

- medial and lateral palmar metacarpal nerves

78
Q

What does a low palmar nerve block desensitize?

A 
-fetlock 
  _dorsal and palmar pouch
  _skin over the dorsal aspect of it
-SDF and DDF tendons = distal to this region
-suspensory apparatus
79
Q

A successful low palmar nerve block has a loss of skin sensation where?

A
  • over dorsal aspect of P1

- fetlock

80
Q

Another name for a low palmar nerve block?

A

low four point block

81
Q

Nerves blocked by a high palmar nerve block?

A
  • medial and lateral palmar nerves

- medial and lateral palmar metacarpal nerves

82
Q

What is desensitized with a high palmar nerve block?

A
  • distal check ligament
  • palmar carpal ligament
  • SDF and DDF ligament
  • MCII and MCIV bones
  • suspensory ligament - proximal portion
83
Q

Where is there loss of skin sensation with a successful high palmar nerve block?

A

over the palmar aspect of the metacarpus

84
Q

Another name for the high palmar nerve block?

A

high four nerve block

85
Q

What is desensitized with a lateral palmar nerve block?

A

suspensory ligament - proximal part

86
Q

What is desensitized by a medial cutaneous antebrachial nerve block?

A
  • carpus (partially)
  • antebrachium - distal part
  • structures innervated by the medial and lateral palmar nerves
87
Q

A successful median cutaneous antebrachial nerve block has loss of skin sensation where?

A

craniomedial aspect of the pastern

88
Q

Desensitized with ulnar cutaneous antebrachial nerve block

A

skin of the lateral aspect of the forelimb distal to the injection site down to the fetlock

89
Q

Successful ulnar cutaneous antebrachial nerve block blocks skin sensation where?

A

craniolateral aspect of the metacarpus

90
Q

Where is there loss of skin sensation with a successful medial cutaneous antebrachial nerve block?

A

dorsomedial aspect of the metacarpus

91
Q

T/F: The medial cutaneous antebrachial nerve block is necessary for lameness exams

A

FALSE - this one innervates only skin

92
Q

The frog of the hoof should be _____ the length of the hoof and about ________ width

A

2/3; whole

93
Q

A well conformed hoof will have the _________ side more upright

94
Q

Pathognomonic stance for horse with foot issue?

A

pointing the toe

95
Q

When it’s a leg problem, how does the horse have its leg?

A

tucked in and protected

96
Q

T/F: Non-wear/non-use of hooves can be a sign of anatomical issues

97
Q

Ventral border of the jugular groove in ox?

A

sternomandibularis

98
Q

Dorsal border of the jugular groove in ox?

A

cleidomastoideus

99
Q

Floor (medial border) of the jugular groove in ox?

A

sternomastoideus

100
Q

Superficial border of the jugular groove in ox?

A

Skin only

- cutaneous colli is rudimentary

101
Q

T/F: The nuchal ligament in ruminants has bursa

102
Q

In large, but not small, ruminants there is a terminal lymph node. What is it?

A

lateral retropharyngeal

103
Q

T/F: There is not a facial crest in ruminants

A

True - instead they have a facial tuberosity

104
Q

Frontal sinus and maxillary sinus ________ communicate with each other

105
Q

Most significant sinuses in ruminants?

A

frontal and maxillary

106
Q

Why should small ruminants not be restrained by their horns?

A

Horns connect to the frontal sinus and the horn can break or fracture, exposing the frontal sinus

107
Q

What’s an issue of dehorning an older animal?

A

The horns connect with the frontal sinus in older animals. Dehorning would expose the frontal sinus.

108
Q

T/F: In large ruminants, the frontal sinus extends caudally over the brain.

109
Q

How soon should the diverticulum in the horn be developed?

A

By 6 months of age

110
Q

3 diverticulum of the frontal sinus in ruminants

A
  • cornual
  • nuchal
  • postorbital
111
Q

T/F: As the frontal sinus has several compartments, each with its own opening into the dorsal ethmoid meatus, flushing the sinus may require several openings.

112
Q

This sinus communicates with the palatine sinus

113
Q

How does the palatine sinus communicate with the nasal cavity?

A

Via the maxillary sinus

114
Q

Ruminants have this type of teeth for their incisors, but have this type for their molars

A

brachydont; hypsodont

115
Q

Dental formula for ruminants? (permanent)

A

2 (I 0/3, C 0/1, P 3/3, M 3/3) = 32

116
Q

Dental formula for ruminants? (deciduous)

A

2 (i 0/3, c 0/1, p 3/3) = 20

117
Q

How soon after birth are all deciduous teeth present in ox?

A

within 2 weeks

118
Q

How many molars should ruminants have by one year of age?

119
Q

Which species have an infraorbital pouch as a superficial structure of the face?

120
Q

T/F: Small ruminants have a facial artery.

A

FALSE!!!!!!!

121
Q

What anesthesia drug are small ruminants VERY sensitive to?

122
Q

What is the efferent pathway for the observable reaction of both the palpebral and menace reflexes?

123
Q

Cornual nerve block?

A

numb the horn

124
Q

Auriculopalpebral nerve block?

A

paralyze the eyelids

125
Q

Peterson orbital or retrobulbar nerve block?

A

numb the orbit

126
Q

Maxillary and/or inftaorbital nerve block?

A

generally, numb upper jaw/lip

127
Q

Mandibular and/or mental nerve block?

A

generally, numb lower jaw/lip

128
Q

What is the torus linguae?

A

large bulbous area of the ruminant tongue

129
Q

Do ruminants have an extracranial portion of the internal carotid artery?

130
Q

Thoracodorsal nerve innervates what muscle?

A

latissimus dorsi m

131
Q

what innervates cutaneus trunci?

A

lateral thoracic nerve

132
Q

A needle placed craniodorsal to the diaphragmatic line of pleural reflection would first enter which of the following?

  • abdominal cavity
  • caudodorsal blind sac
  • peritoneal cavity
  • pleural cavity
A

pleural cavity

133
Q

Ruminant left lung lobes?

A

cranial lobe -Cr. and Cd. parts

caudal lobe

134
Q

Ruminant right lung lobes?

A

cranial lobe -Cr. and Cd. parts
middle lobe
caudal lobe
accessory lobe

135
Q

Air supply to the right cranial lobe?

A

tracheal bronchus

136
Q

Which lung is larger?

A

Right lung = about 1.5x size of left lung

137
Q

Where is the mediastinum positioned?

A

Shifted to the left by the relatively larger right lung

138
Q

Is it more or less likely to have communication between the pleural cavities in ruminants than in other species?

A

Less likely - the mediastinum is relatively thicker and stronger than that of other species

139
Q

Type I vagal indigestion

A

failure of eructation

140
Q

Type II vagal indigestion

A

failure of omasal transport

141
Q

Type III vagal indigestion

A

secondary abomasal impaction

142
Q

Type IV vagal indigestion

A

indigestion of late gestation

143
Q

Roughly what % of the heart sits to the left of the midline?

144
Q

where is the ossa cordis found?

A

w/in the CT related to the cusps of the aortic valve

145
Q

Sternopericardial ligament

A
  • thickening of the endothoracic fascia
  • continuous with the fibrous pericardium
  • anchors pericardium to the sternum to hold the heart ina somewhat fixed position
146
Q

The sternopericardial ligament is called what in carnivores?

A

phrenicopericardial ligament - attaches to diaphragm instead of sternum

147
Q

T/F: in the ruminant, the coronary sinus contains only blood that is returning to the right atrium from the heart itself

Gross II (3 decks)

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