Test 3 Flashcards

1
Q

palpebrae

A

eyelids

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2
Q

sclera

A

whites of eyes

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3
Q

cornea

A

curved, transparent anterior to iris and pupil

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4
Q

iris

A

pigmented part of the eye

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5
Q

pupil

A

opening in the iris

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6
Q

four external landmarks of eye

A

sclera
cornea
iris
pupil

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7
Q

conjuctiva

A

lines sclera and eyelid

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8
Q

function of conjuctiva

A

secrete mucus as lubricant for eyes/eyelids

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9
Q

function of lacrimal apparatus

A

produces/collects tears

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10
Q

lacrimal fluid

A

tears

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11
Q

lacrimal gland

A

produces and secretes tears

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12
Q

lacrimal canaliculi

A

from lacrimal punctum to nasolacrimal ducts

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13
Q

nasolacrimal duct

A

drains tears into nasal cavity where they are eventually swallowed

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14
Q

path of tears

A

lacrimal gland
swept across surface of eye by eyelids from lateral to medial
lacrimal canaliculi
nasolacrimal duct

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15
Q

extrinsic eye muscles

A
medial rectus
lateral rectus
superior rectus
inferior rectus
superior oblique
inferior oblique
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16
Q

medial rectus

A

moves eye medially (adducts)

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17
Q

lateral rectus

A

moves eye laterally (abducts)

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18
Q

superior rectus

A

elevates eye and moves medially (adducts)

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19
Q

inferior rectus

A

depresses eye and moves eye medially

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20
Q

superior oblique

A

depresses and moves eye laterally

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21
Q

inferior oblique

A

elevates eye and moves eye laterally

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22
Q

lens

A

biconvex, transparent structure inside eyeball

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23
Q

lens function

A

changes shape (flat or round) to focus light rays

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24
Q

suspensory ligament

A

holds lens in place

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25
Q

3 eyeball layers (tunics)

A

fibrous
vascular
neural/retinal

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26
Q

layrs of fibrous tunic (2)

A

sclera

cornea

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27
Q

fibrous tunic

A

avascular - contains sclera and cornea

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28
Q

sclera location

A

posterior 5/6 of eye

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29
Q

function of sclera

A

to provide shape to the eyeball and protects the inner parts

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30
Q

location of cornea

A

anterior 1/6 of eye

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31
Q

function of cornea

A

admits and refracts light

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32
Q

parts of vascular tunic

A

choroid
ciliary body
iris

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33
Q

choroid

A

dark brown membrane

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34
Q

function of choroid

A

contains many tiny blood vessels that help nourish the retina

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35
Q

ciliary body

A

a ring of smooth muscle tissue that surrounds the lens

attaches to lens via suspensory ligaments

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36
Q

function of ciliary body

A
  1. as smooth muscle contracts, the suspensory ligaments relax to make lens more round
  2. produces aqueous humor
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37
Q

iris

A

pigmented, colored part of eye

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38
Q

function of iris

A

regulates the amount of light entering eye (by enlarging or narrowing)

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39
Q

pupil

A

hole in middle of iris that lets light in

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40
Q

retina (2)

A

pigmented layer
neural layer
*posterior 3/4 of eye

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41
Q

pigmented layer

A

outer layer adjacent to choroid

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42
Q

function of pigmented layer

A

absorbs excess light to prevent reflection/glare

provides vitamin A to neural layer

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43
Q

neural layer

A

inner layer

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44
Q

function of neural layer

A

its photoreceptors receive light information and convert it into nerve impulses that are sent, via CNII (optic nerve) to the brain

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45
Q

two types of photoreceptors

A

rods and cones

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46
Q

rods

A

low light, black and white

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47
Q

cones

A

require more light, color

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48
Q

optic disc

A

blind spot
area where the optic nerve exits the eye
contains no photoreceptors

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49
Q

macula lutea

A

lateral to the optic disc

in center is fovea centralis

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50
Q

fovea centralis

A
center of macula lutea
sharpest vision (only cones)
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51
Q

anterior cavity

A

between cornea and lens

filled with aqueous humor

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52
Q

aqueous humor

A

supplies nutrients and removes waste for lens and cornea, continually produced and replaced

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53
Q

posterior cavity

A

between lens and retina

contains vitreous humour

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54
Q

vitreous humor

A

helps maintain shape of the eye and keep retina against choroid, not continually produced (same since birth)

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55
Q

hearing (audition)

A

detecting sound waves and converting them into nerve impulses

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56
Q

equilibrium

A

detect position of head

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57
Q

3 regions of ear

A

external ear
middle ear
inner ear

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58
Q

3 parts of external ear

A
auricle (pinna)
external acoustic meatus
tympanic membrane (eardrum)
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59
Q

auricle (pinna)

A

outer mass of tissue

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60
Q

function of auricle

A

collects sound waves and directs them into the auditory canal

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61
Q

external acoustic meatus

A

between auricle and tympanic membrane

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62
Q

function of external acoustic meatus

A

directs sound waves to tympanic membrane (eardrum)

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63
Q

function of tympanic membrane (eardrum)

A

to move/vibrate the auditory ossicles when sounds vibrate the tympanic membrane

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64
Q

middle ear boundaries

A

tympanic membrane (lateral) oval window and round window (medial)

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65
Q

two parts of middle ear

A
auditory ossicles (ear bones)
auditory (eustachian) tubes
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66
Q

3 auditory ossicles

A

malleus
incus
stapes

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67
Q

malleus

A

hammer - attached to inside of tympanic membrane

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68
Q

incus

A

anvil

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69
Q

stapes

A

stirrup - connects with oval window of the inner ear

oval window is where sound waves are transmitted to the inner ear

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70
Q

function of ossicles

A

to transmit and amplify vibrations from the eardrum to the inner ear

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71
Q

auditory (eustachian) tube

A

connects middle ear with the nasopharynx

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72
Q

function of auditory tube

A

equalizes air pressure in the middle ear

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73
Q

otitis media (middle ear infection)

A

infection from the throat travels to middle ear via auditory tube. middle ear fills up with fluid/pus and eardrum bulges outward

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74
Q

two parts of inner ear

A

bony labyrinth

membranous labyrinth

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75
Q

bony labyrinth

A

cavities inside temporal bone

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76
Q

membranous labyrinth

A

membranous sacs/tubes that rest inside the bony labyrinth

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77
Q

perilymph

A

fluid that rests between the bony and membranous labyrinth

  • inside the bony part and outside the membranous part
  • membranous part floats in the perilymph
  • chemically similar to CSF
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78
Q

endolymph

A

inside the membranous labyrinth

chemically similar to intracellular fluid

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79
Q

function of endolymph

A

helps conduct sound vibrations, and indirectly helps with changes in position/balance

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80
Q

3 parts of bony labyrinth

A

vestibule
semicircular canals
cochlea

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81
Q

vestibule

A

oval central portion

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82
Q

semicircular canals

A

three circular spaces/canals

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83
Q

cochlea

A

spiral chamber

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84
Q

four parts of membranous labyrinth

A

utricle
saccule
semicircular ducts
cochlear duct (scala media)

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85
Q

utricle

A

sac inside vestibule

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86
Q

saccule

A

another sac inside vestibule

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87
Q

semicircular ducts

A

three membranous tubes in semicircular canals

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88
Q

cochlear duct (scala media)

A

membranous tube inside the cochlea

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89
Q

function of utricle, saccule, and semicircular ducts

A

interpreting balance/equilibrium and transmitting that information via the vestibular branch of the vestibulocochlear nerve (CNVIII)

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90
Q

cochlea is split into two chambers by the…

A

cochlear duct

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91
Q

two chambers of cochlea

A

scala vestibuli

scala tympani

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92
Q

scala vestibuli

A

above cochlear duct
connects to oval window
filled with perilymph

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93
Q

vestibular membrane

A

thin membrane that separates the scala vestibuli from teh cochlear duct

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94
Q

scala tympani

A

below cochlear duct
connects to round window
filled with perilymph

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95
Q

basilar membrane

A

separates the scala tympani from the cochlear duct

96
Q

spiral organ (organ of corti)

A

contained in the cochlear duct
rests of basilar membrane
spiral organ contains hair cells

97
Q

stereocilia

A

on hair cells - when they move they create a nerve impulse

98
Q

what part of the basilar membrane responds to high frequencies?

A

part closest to oval window

99
Q

what part of the basilar membrane responds to lower frequencies?

A

part farthest away from oval window

100
Q

stereocilia touch the ____membrane

A

tectorial membrane

101
Q

nerve impulses sent to brain via the _____ of the ______

A

cochlear branch; vestibulocochlear nerve (CNVIII)

102
Q

what happens to the remaining sound waves?

A

transferred to the scala tympani and exit the inner ear via the round window

103
Q

sensory only cranial nerves

A

I - olfactory
II - optic
VIII - vestibulocochlear

104
Q

motor only cranial nerves

A
III - oculomotor
IV - trochlear
VI - abducens nerve
XI - accessory nerve
XII - hypoglossal nerve
105
Q

mixed cranial nerves

A

V - trigeminal
VII - facial
IX - glossopharyngeal
X - vagus

106
Q

CN I

A

olfactory nerve (sensory only)

107
Q

CN II

A

optic nerve (sensory only)

108
Q

CN III

A

oculomotor nerve (motor only)

109
Q

CN IV

A

trochlear nerve (motor only)

110
Q

CN V

A

trigeminal nerve (mixed)

111
Q

CN VI

A

abducens nerve (motor)

112
Q

CN VII

A

facial nerve (mixed)

113
Q

CN VIII

A

vestibulocochlear nerve (sensory only)

114
Q

CN IX

A

glossopharyngeal nerve (mixed)

115
Q

CN X

A

vagus nerve (mixed)

116
Q

CN XI

A

accessory nerve (motor only)

117
Q

CN XII

A

hypoglossal nerve (motor only)

118
Q

function of CN I

A

smell (olfaction)

119
Q

olfactory nerves synapse in ____

A

olfactory bulb

120
Q

olfactory bulbs connect to ___

A

olfactory tracts

121
Q

test for CN I nerve damage

A

test smell

122
Q

function of CN II

A

vision

123
Q

optic chiasm

A

where the two optic nerves come together

124
Q

optic tracts

A

where the nerves go through after leaving chiasm

125
Q

test for CN II nerve damage

A

test vision

126
Q

function of CN III

A
  1. somatic motor; supplies 4 eye muscles (superior rectus, inferior rectus, medial rectus, inferior oblique) and a muscle in the upper eyelid (levator palpebrae superioris)
  2. parasympathetic (autonomic) motor: supplies iris, constricts pupil
127
Q

test for CN III nerve damage

A
  1. does pupil constrict?
  2. does person’s eyelid droop?
  3. does person have diplopia? is the eye rotated down and out?
128
Q

function of CN IV

A

supplies superior oblique

129
Q

test for CN IV nerve damage

A

diplopia - patient will have difficulty looking downwards

130
Q

three branches of CN V

A

Opthalmic (VI) - sensory to upper face
maxillary (V2) - sensory to mid face (including nasal cavity)
mandibular (V3) - mixed - sensory to lower face, somatic to muscles of mastication

131
Q

test for CN V nerve damage

A
  1. test chewing ability

2. is the person able to detect touch/pressure on face?

132
Q

function of CN VI

A

supplies lateral rectus

133
Q

test for CN VI nerve damage

A

can person move eye laterally (abduct)

134
Q

functions of CN VII

A
  1. somatic motor: muscles of facial expression
  2. sensory: taste to anterior 2/3 of tongue
  3. parasympathetic motor: stimulates secretion of lacrimal gland, most salivary glands
135
Q

test for CN VII nerve damage

A
  1. somatic motor: paralysis of facial expression muscles
  2. sensory: test taste on anterior 2/3 of tongue
  3. parasympathetic motor: decreased salivary secretion - dry mouth. decreased tearing (dry eyes).
136
Q

function of CN VIII

A

hearing and equilibrium

137
Q

test for CN VIII nerve damage

A
  1. hearing loss or deafness

2. dizzy, vertigo, lack of balance, nausea/vomiting?

138
Q

functions of CN IX

A
  1. somatic motor: one pharynx muscle
  2. sensory: part of pharynx, touch and TASTE sensation on post 1/3 of otngue
  3. parasympathetic motor: stimulates secretion to parotid gland
139
Q

test for CN IX nerve damage

A
  1. decreased taste sensation of post 1/3 of tongue

2. decreased salivary production (dry mouth)

140
Q

functions of CN X

A
  1. somatic motor: supplies most pharynx (swallowing muscles) and larynx (voice box) muscles
  2. parasympathetic motor: supply muscle in the heart, lungs, most abdominal organs
  3. sensory: MINIMAL to ear and pharynx
141
Q

test for CN X nerve damage

A

difficulty swallowing?
loss of/hoarse voice?
generally speaking - damaging this nerve fucks you up

142
Q

function of CN XI

A

innervates trapezius and sternocleidomastoid

143
Q

test for CN XI nerve damage

A
  1. trapezius - can they shrug shoulders?

2. sternocleidomastoid - can they turn head from side to side?

144
Q

function of CN XII

A

supplies intrinsic tongue muscles and most extrinsic tongue muscles

145
Q

test for CN XII nerve damage

A

stick out tongue? - if they can’t do it - both sides affected
deviates to one side - tip goes to affected side

146
Q

spinal nerve

A

comes directly off the spinal cord

147
Q

number of spinal nerve pairs

A

31

148
Q

pairs of cervical spinal nerves

A

8

149
Q

pairs of thoracic spinal nerves

A

12

150
Q

pairs of lumbar spinal nerves

A

5

151
Q

pairs of sacral spinal nerves

A

5

152
Q

number of coccygeal spinal nerves

A

1

153
Q

two parts of spinal nerve

A

anterior (ventral) root

posterior (dorsal) root

154
Q

anterior root is composed of

A

axons of motor neurons

155
Q

posterior root is composed of

A

axons of sensory neurons

156
Q

posterior root ganglion

A

contains cell bodies of sensory neurons

157
Q

when a posterior and anterior root unite, they form a ___

A

spinal nerve

158
Q

two branches of spinal nerve

A

posterior (dorsal) ramus

anterior (ventral) ramus

159
Q

posterior (dorsal) ramus

A

innervates skin of back, deep back muscles

160
Q

anterior (ventral) ramus

A

innervates everything else from the neck inferiorly

also forms nerve plexuses

161
Q

roots are organized by___

A

function

162
Q

rami are organized by ___

A

location

163
Q

anterior horn contain___

A

cell bodies of motor neurons

164
Q

nerve plexus

A

a network of converging and/or diverging axons

165
Q

cervical plexus

A

anterior rami of C1-C4

166
Q

cervical plexus innervates____

A
  1. sensory: skin of neck, ear and shoulders

2. motor: anterior neck muscles

167
Q

cervical plexus contains the ____ nerve

A

phrenic (some axons from cervical plexus)
(C3-C5)
supplies diaphragm

168
Q

brachial plexus

A

anterior (ventral) rami of C5-T1

169
Q

brachial plexus innervates ___

A

upper limb

each nerve has sensory and motor components

170
Q

nerves of brachial plexus (5)

A
axillary nerve
musculocutaneous nerve
radial nerve
median nerve
ulnar nerve
171
Q

axillary nerve

A

sensory: lateral shoulder
motor: deltoid and teres minior

172
Q

musculocutaneous nerve

A

sensory: lateral forearm
motor: most muscles on anterior surface of arm
- coracobrachialis, biceps brachii, brachialis

173
Q

radial nerve

A

sensory: posterior arm, forearm, and hand
motor: 1. posterior arm muscles, 2. posterior forearm muscles

174
Q

median nerve

A
sensory: lateral palm and fingers
motor:
1. almost all anterior forearm muscles
2. Thenar muscles
3. lumbricals going to fingers 2,3
175
Q

ulnar nerve

A

sensory: skin on medial hand
motor: 3/2 anterior forearm muscles (medial half of flexor digitorum profundus, flexor carpi ulnaris)
most intrinsic hand muscles (hypothenar muscles, lumbricals to fingers 4-5, palmar and dorsal interossei)

176
Q

lumbar plexus

A

anterior rami of L1-L4

each nerve has motor and sensory components

177
Q

lumbar plexus innervates ___

A

innervates inferior abdominal wall, part of lower limb

178
Q

nerves of the lumbar plexus (2)

A

femoral nerve

obturator nerve

179
Q

femoral nerve

A

sensory: anterior thigh
motor: medial thigh muscles

180
Q

obturator nerve

A

sensory: medial thigh
motor: medial thigh muscles

181
Q

sacral plexus

A

anterior rami of L4-S4

each nerve has sensory and motor components

182
Q

sacral plexus innervates____

A

the buttocks, pelvic structures, and majority of lower limb

183
Q

nerve of sacral plexus

A

sciatic nerve

184
Q

sciatic nerve splits into

A

tibial nerve and common fibular nerve

185
Q

tibial nerve

A

sensory: posterior leg/sole of foot
motor:
a. most posterior thigh muscles
b. posterior leg muscles
c. muscles on sole of foot

186
Q

common fibular nerve

A
sensory: anterior and lateral legs/dorsum of foot
motor:
a. anterior leg muscles
b. lateral leg muscles
c. muscles on dorsum of foot
187
Q

somatic nervous system

A

innervates skeletal muscles and receives sensory information from the senses
CNS and PNS components

188
Q

autonomic nervous system

A

innervates the viscera (organs)
influences smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands of the skin and viscera
CNS and PNS components

189
Q

hypothalamus

A

oversees ALL ANS activity

190
Q

middle management of ANS

A

autonomic nervous centers in the brainstem

191
Q

ordinary workers of ANS

A

preganglionic and postganglionic neurons

192
Q

somatic motor

A

uses one neuron to go from spinal cord to skeletal muscle

193
Q

autonomic motor

A

uses 2 neurons to go from spinal cord to target tussie
1st neuron: preganglionic neuron
2nd neuron: postganglionic neuron

194
Q

preganglionic neuron

A

cell body located in CNS

axon synapses with postganglionic neuron

195
Q

postganglionic neuron

A

cell body located in an autonomic ganglion

this axon will connect to the target tissue

196
Q

two divisions of autonomic nervous system

A

sympathetic division

parasympathetic division

197
Q

anatomical name of sympathetic division

A

thoracolumbar

198
Q

anatomical name of parasympathetic division

A

craniosacral

199
Q

origin of sympathetic division

A

lateral horns of T1-L2 region of spinal cord

200
Q

sympathetic division activation

A

emergency situations
flight or fight response
mass activation effect

201
Q

parasympathetic division contains

A

some cranial nerves and parts of the sacral region of the spinal cord

202
Q

parasympathetic division activation

A

maintains a homeostatic environment
rest and digest
parasympathetic activity is usually discrete and localized

203
Q

cranial components of parasympathetic division

A

CN III, CN VII, IX, X

204
Q

components of the sympathetic division (7)

A
  1. cell bodies of preganglionic motor neurons in lateral horns of T1-L2 segments of spinal cord
  2. white rami
  3. sympathetic trunks
  4. gray rami
  5. splanchnic nerves
  6. prevertebral ganglia
  7. sympathetic postganglionic axons
205
Q

preganglionic sympathetic axons spinal nerve pathway

A

synapse in the sympathetic trunk and leave through gray rami to spinal nerves

206
Q

thoracic pathway

A

synapse in sympathetic trunk and leave anteriorly to go to thoracic organs

207
Q

splanchnic pathway

A

some preganglionic axons leave sympathetic trunk as splanchnic nerves, go to prevertebral ganglia to synapse before heading to abdominal organs

208
Q

placement of heart

A

left hand of body in thoracic cavity

209
Q

size of heart

A

about the size of fist

210
Q

apex

A

pointed left part of the heart

211
Q

base

A

top part of the heart with vessels and shit

212
Q

four chambers of the heart

A

right and left atria and ventricles

213
Q

pericardium

A

membrane that encloses the heart

214
Q

fibrous pericardium

A

outermost layer of heart

dense CT

215
Q

function of fibrous pericardium

A

prevents heart from overfilling, restricts heart movements

216
Q

serous pericardium

A

parietal cavity

217
Q

two layers of serous pericardium

A

parietal layer

visceral layer

218
Q

two layers of pericardium

A

fibrous pericardium

serous pericardium

219
Q

parietal layer

A

adheres to fibrous pericardium

220
Q

visceral layer

A

adheres to heart wall

aka epicardium

221
Q

histology layers

A

endocardium
myocardium
epicardium

222
Q

endocardium

A

outermost layer - endothelium covering a CT layer

lines the inside of the heart and covers its valves

223
Q

myocardium

A

cardiac muscle

thickest layer

224
Q

epicardium

A

visceral layer of serous pericardium

thin serous membrane and some fat

225
Q

right atrium

A

receives venous blood from superior and inferior vena cava

blood flows from right atrium to right ventricle

226
Q

right atrioventricular valve

A

tricuspid valve

between right atrium and right ventricle

227
Q

how many papillary muscles in the right ventricle

A

3

228
Q

chordae tendinae

A

from the papillary muscles to the 3 flaps of right AV valve

keep flaps from being everted into atrium by the contracting ventricle

229
Q

valve separating right ventricle and lungs

A

pulmonary semilunar valve

3 semilunar cusps

230
Q

blood flows from pulmonary arteries to___

A

lungs

231
Q

left atrium receives ___ blood from___

A

oxygenated; lungs

232
Q

valve between left atrium and ventricle

A

mitral/bicuspid valve - left atrioventricular valve

2 triangular cusps

233
Q

arterial circulation involves

A

right and left coronary artery

234
Q

venous circulation involves

A

most of these veins drain into the coronary sinus

235
Q

pathway of heart electrical signal

A
  1. SA node
  2. AV node
  3. AV bundle
  4. left and right bundle branches
  5. purkinje fibers
236
Q

Sinoatrial node

A

located in upper wall of right atrium - it is responsible for initiating the heartbeat

237
Q

Atrioventricular node

A

lies in the floor of the right atrium

transmits nerve impulse through an opening in the fibrous skeleton to the AV bundle