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Hygiene Theory III > Test 3 > Flashcards

Test 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Where does the alveolar ridge sit in health?

A

1.5 - 2mm apical to the CEJ

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2
Q

What does the aveolar ride look like on a radiograph of the anterior in health?

A

Pointed
Sharp
Very radiopaque

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3
Q

What does the alveolar ridge look like on radiographs of the posterior in health?

A

Flat
Smooth
Parallel to the CEJ
Less radiopaque than anterior

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4
Q

What does the alveolar ridge look like on radiographs in disease?

A

More than 2mm apical to the CEJ
Indistinct

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5
Q

What does the PDL space look like on radiographs?

A

The thin radiolucent line between the tooth and the lamina dura

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6
Q

What does the lamina dura look like on a radiograph?

A

Radiopaque line around the outside of the PDL space

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7
Q

What types of radiographs should you use to diagnose bone loss?

A

PA using paralleling technique (RINN)
Vertical BW for posterior

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8
Q

What type of radiographs should you not use to diagnose bone loss?

A

Any type using the bisecting technique
Horizontal BWs alone

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9
Q

Why don’t you use the bisecting technique for bone loss assessment?

A

Dimesntional distortion due to vertial angulation

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10
Q

Why shouldn’t you use horizontal BW alone to diagnose disease?

A

Limited vision of interproximal bone loss

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11
Q

What areas of bone are difficult to see on radiographs?

A

Buccal and / or lingual
Furcation

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12
Q

What type of bone loss is parallel to the CEJ?

A

Horizontal

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13
Q

What type of bone loss is not parallel to the CEJ?

A

Vertical / angular

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14
Q

What early signs can indicate bone change?

A

Fuzziness at the crest
Widened PDL space
Finger-like radiolucent projections

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15
Q

What are the predisposing factors to periodontal disease?

A

Calculus
Overhangs
Inadequate / uneven margins
Open / loose contacts
Poor contour

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16
Q

How do overhangs contribute to periodontal disease?

A

Food / bacteria gets trapped

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17
Q

What does calculus look like on radiographs?

A

Pointed, irregulat radiopaque projections
Nodular radiopaque projections
Smooth radiopacity

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18
Q

What is a one wall bony defect?

A

One wall remaining

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19
Q

What is a two wall bony defect?

A

Two walls remaining

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20
Q

What is a two wall bony defect also known as?

A

Osseous crater

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21
Q

What is a three wall bony defect?

A

Three walls remaining

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22
Q

What is a four wall bony defect?

A

Circumferential defect surrounds the tooth, no wall remaining

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23
Q

What type of radiograph is used to diagnose mandibular fractures?

A

Panoramic

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24
Q

What are the signs of a fracture on a radiograph?

A

Sharpe defined radiolucent lines within the bone
Change in anatomic outline
Asymmetrical mandible
Loss of continuity of outer border
Increase in radiopacity due to overlapping of fragments

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25
Q

Horizontal fractures can be directionally

A

Horizontal or oblique

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26
Q

Where are horizontal fractures more common?

A

Maxillary centrals

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27
Q

What causes a horizontal fracture?

A

Direct application of force

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28
Q

What type of fracture is lengthwise from the crown to the apex?

A

Vertical fracture

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29
Q

True or False: vertical fractures are usually through facial and lingual surfaces

A

True

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30
Q

Where are vertical fractures more common?

A

With molars

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31
Q

What is a tooth concussion?

A

When a tooth has been hit but not knocked out or broken

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32
Q

Symptoms of tooth concussions

A

Crush injury
Inflammatory edema results
No displacement
Minimal loosening
Widening of the PDL space

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33
Q

True to False: Tooth concussion can cause minor avulsion resulting in premature tooth contact.

A

True

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34
Q

What is a long term effect of tooth concussion?

A

Pulp chamber size changes

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35
Q

What is a dislocation of a tooth from it’s socket but is still present in the mouth?

A

Luxation

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36
Q

Symptoms of tooth luxation

A

Abnormally mobile teeth due to severing of the PDL attachment
Apical portion of the PDL space is widened

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37
Q

In which teeth is luxation most common?

A

Central incisors

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38
Q

What is tooth displacement into the alveolar process?

A

Intrusive luxation

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39
Q

What is partial displacement externally?

A

Extrusive luxation

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40
Q

What is the movement of a tooth other than intrusive or extrusive?

A

Lateral luxation

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41
Q

What is the complete displacement of a tooth?

A

Avulsion

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42
Q

What is the number one cause for permanent tooth loss?

A

Fights

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43
Q

What is the number one cause for primary tooth loss?

A

Falls

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44
Q

What teeth are most commonly lost through avulsion?

A

Maxillary centrals

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45
Q

What is the process of reimplantation dependent on?

A

Condition of the tooth outisde the mouth
Time spent outside the mouth
Viability of the residual PDL

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46
Q

Will endodontic therapy be needed on a reimplanted avulsed tooth?

A

Possibly

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47
Q

What is physiological resorption?

A

Roots of primary teeth are resorbed as permanent teeth move in

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48
Q

What is pathological resporption?

A

Roots are resorbed due to regressive alteration of tooth structure under abnormal stimuli.

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49
Q

Where does external resporption occur?

A

Along the periphery of the root surface, at the apex

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50
Q

What is external resorption often associated with?

A

Reimplanted teeth
Impacted teeth
Trauma
Chronic inflammation

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51
Q

What does a tooth with external resporption look like on a radiograph?

A

Blunted apex
Shortened length

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52
Q

Where does internal resorption occur?

A

Within the root and / or crown

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53
Q

What tooth structures are involved with interal root resporption?

A

Pulp
Dentin

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54
Q

What causes internal root resorption?

A

Trauma
Pulp capping
Pulp polyps

55
Q

How does internal resorption appear on a radiograph?

A

Round / oval radiolucency

56
Q

What is the treatment for external resorption?

A

None

57
Q

What is the treatment for internal resorption?

A

Extraction if tooth is weakened
Endo if the tooth is not weakened

58
Q

What is pulpal sclerosis?

A

Diffused, calcification of the pulp chamber and canals

59
Q

True or False: pulpal sclerosis causes an increase in canal size

A

False. Pulpal sclerosis causes a decease in canal size

60
Q

What is pulpal obliteration?

A

The tooth does not have a pulp chamber or canals due to the formation of secondary dentin

61
Q

Is a tooth with pulpal obliteration vital or non-vital?

A

Non-vital

62
Q

What are round / ovoid / cylindrical calcifications within the pulp chamber?

A

Pulp stones

63
Q

Do pulp stones cause the person any problems?

A

No

64
Q

What are common periapical radiolucencies?

A

Granulomas
Cysts
Abscesses

65
Q

What is a localized mass of chronically inflammed granulation tissue?

A

Periapical granuloma

66
Q

Is a tooth with a periapical granuloma vital or non-vital?

A

Non-vital

67
Q

What causes periapical granuloma?

A

Pulpal necrosis

68
Q

What commonly follows pulpitis?

A

Periapical granuloma

69
Q

True or False: periapical granulomas are asymptomatic but the clients commonly have a history of sensitivity to sweets

A

False. Periapical granulomas are asymptomatic but the clients commonly have a history of sensitivity to temperature

70
Q

What is the appearance of a periapical granuloma on radiographs?

A

Widened PDL space at the apex that enlarges with time
No lamina dura

71
Q

What is a periapical cyst also known as?

A

Radicular cyst

72
Q

What are periapical cysts caused by?

A

Pulpal necrosis

73
Q

True or False: periapical cysts are the most common.

A

True

74
Q

Are periapical cysts symptomatic or asymptomatic?

A

Asymptomatic

75
Q

What is the appearance of a periapical cyst on a radiograph?

A

Similar to a periapical granuloma but has a lamina dura

76
Q

What is an infection in the pulp of a tooth, causing a collection of pus a the apex?

A

Periapical abscess

77
Q

What are the characteristics of an acute periapical abscess?

A

Painful
Non-vital tooth
No change in the PDL space widening

78
Q

What are the characteristics of a chronic periapical abscess?

A

Asymptomatic due to draining
Appears round / ovoid with poorly defined margins and no lamina dura on an x-ray

79
Q

What is a periodontal abscess?

A

A bacterial infection within the walls that results from a pre-existing periodontal condition

80
Q

Characteristics of a peridontal abscess?

A

Painful
Rapidly progressing
Destruction

81
Q

What is the treatment of a periodontal abscess

A

Scaling

82
Q

Conditions that appear as periapical radiopacities?

A

Condensing osteitis
Sclerotic bone
Hypercementosis

83
Q

What is condensing osteitis?

A

Well-defined radiopacity that is apical to the apex of a non-vital tooth from a proliferation of periapical bone in response to pulpal necrosis

84
Q

Does condensing osteitis appear attached to the root on a radiograph?

A

No

85
Q

What is the most common radiopacity?

A

Condensing osteitis

86
Q

Where is condensing osteitis most commonly found?

A

Mandibular first molars

87
Q

Where else is condensing osteitis commonly found?

A

Teeth with large carious lesions or restorations

88
Q

What does sclerotic bone look like in a radiograph?

A

Well-defined radiopacity apical of vital, non-carious teeth

89
Q

True or False: sclerotic bone is idiopathic

A

True

90
Q

Is sclerotic bone associtated with inflammation?

A

No

91
Q

Is sclerotic bone attached to the tooth?

A

No

92
Q

Is scelrotic bone symptomatic or asymptomatic?

A

Asymptomatic

93
Q

What is extra deposition of cementum on all surfaces of the root?

A

Hypercementosis

94
Q

What causes hypercementosis?

A

Supra-eruption
Inflammation
Trauma

95
Q

True or False: hypercementosis is large and bulbous.

A

True

96
Q

What is the law?

A

A system of rules

97
Q

What are statutes?

A

Laws passed by legislature (Acts)

98
Q

What are regulations?

A

Rules that set out to detail the practical application made under the authority of statutes

99
Q

What are moral principals that govern behaviour?

A

Ethics

100
Q

What governs hygienists?

A

HARP
RHPA
DHA

101
Q

What does HARP govern for hygienists?

A

Safety involving the use of x-rays

102
Q

How does the RHPA govern hygienists?

A

Outlines controlled acts

103
Q

How does the DHA govern hygienists?

A

Under the RHPA that dictates the scope of practice and authorized acts

104
Q

What are the five ethical principles?

A

Beneficence
Autonomy
Privacy and confidentiality
Accountability
Professionalism

105
Q

What is beneficence?

A

Promoting the good of another

106
Q

What is autonomy?

A

The right to make decisions

107
Q

What is privacy and confidentiality?

A

Controlling the collection, use, and disclosure of personal information and the right to expect that information is kept secure

108
Q

What is accountability?

A

Answering for one’s actions

109
Q

What is professionalism?

A

Commitment to use and advance skills and knowledge. As well as being honest, competent, and fair

110
Q

What are DH examples of benefience?

A

Scaling effectively / completely
Education

111
Q

What are DH examples of autonomy?

A

Informed consent
Involvement in treatment planning

112
Q

What is DH example of privacy and confidentiality?

A

Not sharing any information

113
Q

What are DH examples of accountability?

A

Meeting clients’ needs
Infection control

114
Q

What are DH examples of professionalism?

A

Client-centered care
QA program
Continuing education

115
Q

What is providing high-quality services every time called?

A

Competence

116
Q

What is truthful in actions and statements?

A

Honesty

117
Q

What happens if legal obligations are not followed?

A

Legal action, fines, or imprisonment

118
Q

What is fairness?

A

Balancing competing interests

119
Q

What happens legally when violating ethical principles?

A

May or may not have legal consequences

120
Q

What is the failure to meet the bare minimum of legal requirements?

A

Professional misconduct

121
Q

What follows professional misconduct?

A

Disciplinary proceedings

122
Q

What is an ethical dilemma?

A

When two or more eithical principles are in conflict

123
Q

What are the decision-making model steps?

A
  1. Identify the problem
  2. Gather information
  3. Clarify the problem
  4. Identify options
  5. Assess options
  6. Choose an option
  7. Implement option
  8. Evaluate outcome (consequences and benefits)
124
Q

True or False: DH are mandatory sexual abuse reporters.

A

True

125
Q

What can failure to report sexual abuse lead to?

A

Severe penalties

126
Q

When must a report of suspected sexual abuse be reported?

A

Within 30 days

127
Q

True or False: if the client does not want you to report, you still have to and it is not a breach of confidentiality.

A

True

128
Q

Sexual abuse in inacteractions with clients include

A

Sexual relations
Touching of a sexual nature
Behaviour / remarks of a sexual nature
Treatment of someone you have been intimate with

129
Q

What happens to a hygienist guilty of sexual abuse of a client?

A

Mandatory penalty and removal of certificate

130
Q

Who is a client?

A

A person receiving services from the registrant
Person who has has an entry in their health record by the registrant
Person who consented to a service provided by the registrant
Had a drug prescribed to them by the registrant

131
Q

When is a person no longer considered a client?

A

If one full year has passed

132
Q

When of the treatment of spouses allowed?

A

Person is defined by the Family Law Act (married)
Person has lived with the registrant outside of marriage continuously for 3 year or more (common law)
The treatment is an emergency situation

133
Q

How to maintain firm boundaries with clients

A

Avoid sexual behaviour and put a stop to it
Avoid misinterpretation
Do not comment on body or sex life
Never date a client
Do not treat spouses / partners
Detect and deflect emotionally attached clients

134
Q

What does the Child, Youth, and Family Services Act dictate?

A

Responsibility for the welfare of children
Mandatory report for anyone under the age of 16

Hygiene Theory III (3 decks)

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