Test 3 Flashcards
1
Q
Performing 4 weeks of stabilization training before moving on to strength endurance training for another 4 weeks would be an example of what kind of periodization?
A
Linear periodization
2
Q
Stage 3 balance exercise should include what types of motion?
A
Hopping motions with a single-leg stance landing
3
Q
What is the bone type of the clavicle, radius, and ulna?
A
Long
4
Q
Using battle ropes is considered which sort of exercise?
A
Low-impact activity
5
Q
What are the three pathways through which the body can produce ATP?
A
The ATP-PC system, glycolysis, and oxidative phosphorylation
6
Q
For which movement impairment would you see the shoulders moving upward toward the ears?
A
Shoulder elevation
7
Q
Which of the following is considered a benefit of performing a warm-up prior to cardiorespiratory training?
A
Increased respiratory rate and tissue temperature
8
Q
Which benefit will positively affect the body through integrated training?
A
Improved sleep
9
Q
Which of the following waist-to-hip ratios (WHRs) places Amy (a female) in the high-risk category for cardiovascular disease?
A
WHR of 0.88
10
Q
What stage of change is a person in if they are not planning on exercising within the next 6 months?
A
Precontemplation
11
Q
Which synergist would assist the upper-body pectoral muscles to enhance chest stabilization, strength, or power?
A
Triceps brachii
12
Q
What resistance training system involves a progressive or regressive step approach that either increases or decreases weight with each set?
A
Pyramid system
13
Q
Social physique anxiety is more prevalent in which population?
A
Females
14
Q
What disease is a condition in which fibrous lung tissue results in a decreased ability to expand the lungs?
A
Restrictive lung disease
15
Q
Having an informal role in an exercise group is demonstrated by which example?
A
Planning social gatherings for the group
16
Q
Humans can learn new things at any stage of life, due to which process that causes the brain to reform neural pathways?
A
Neuroplasticity
17
Q
Contraction of the erector spinae and hip flexor muscles creates what motion of the pelvis in the sagittal plane?
A
Anterior pelvic tilt
18
Q
At what age is total peak bone mass reached?
A
30
19
Q
Which of the following hormones, if increased at baseline, may be indicative of overtraining?
A
Cortisol
20
Q
A client who has been training consistently for over a year has indicated that he wants to find more efficient ways to exercise at home. Which type of social support does he need?
A
Informational support
21
Q
Which of the following is true about the biologically active forms of vitamins?
A
Biologically active forms are most effective for augmenting body levels.
22
Q
What blood pressure is reflective of a hypertensive crisis?
A
A systolic reading greater than 180 mm Hg and/or a diastolic reading greater than 120 mm Hg
23
Q
To increase the metabolic demand of SAQ exercises among weight-loss clients, which of the following adjustments to a workout session could be implemented?
A
Decreased rest periods
24
Q
What must older adults complete prior to initiating an exercise program with a Certified Personal Trainer?
A
PAR-Q+
25
Which statement about lowering blood pressure is true?
Planned exercise alone is typically insufficient for acutely lowering and controlling hypertension.
26
What is the general recommended rest between SAQ reps for beginner clients?
15 to 60 seconds
27
What type of flexibility training is most likely to use instruments or equipment to help the body improve range of motion?
Self-myofascial techniques
28
What is the recommended recovery time between bouts of plyometric training for novice clients?
48 to 72 hours
29
During a squat, the lowering phase would be described as what type of muscle action?
Eccentric
30
Which term best describes observable movement of the limbs?
Osteokinematics
31
Which term best describes the ability to contract muscles of the core with force in an effort to flex the trunk during a slow controlled movement?
Core strength
32
When glucose is broken down via glycolysis, what molecule is created that could also be oxidized under aerobic conditions?
Pyruvate
33
Which of the following would be the appropriate progression for a core training program to optimize function?
Intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency
34
Which of the following statements describes the abdominal skinfold location?
A vertical skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button)
35
Which activity best demonstrates evidence-based practice?
Referencing peer-reviewed research
36
Which of the following statements is considered to be most accurate?
An individual’s cardiorespiratory fitness level is a strong predictor of morbidity and mortality.
37
What percentage of alpha-linolenic acid (ALA) converts to a biologically available form called eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA)?
About 5-15%
38
What is a safe flexibility modification that you can recommend to a client who has varicose veins?
Gentle static stretching
39
What are the three macronutrients?
Protein, carbohydrates, and lipids
40
According to the integrated performance paradigm, which of the following is a requirement for the safe control of movement during plyometrics?
Neuromuscular stabilization
41
What is considered to be the mechanism of action with self-myofascial rolling?
Autogenic inhibition
42
What does BMI (body mass index) assess for?
Whether a person's weight is appropriate for their height
43
Why is the hurdler's stretch considered to be a controversial lower-body stretch?
The stretch provides excessive stress to the inside of the knee.
44
What concept allows a person to jump higher during plyometric exercises?
Eccentric loading
45
Which of the following effects may be experienced with overtraining?
High levels of cortisol, which lead to a catabolic environment
46
In order to optimally load muscle during the eccentric phase, the fitness professional should recommend which of the following?
Lower the weight more slowly to increase time under tension
47
In what phase of plyometric exercise does preloading or stretching of the agonist muscle occur?
Eccentric
48
Creatine is most effective for what purpose?
Improving strength and muscle size
49
What is a characteristic of a type I muscle fiber?
Less force production
50
What three joint actions comprise triple extension?
Plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension
51
Which scenario best demonstrates companionship support?
Coordinating group events that are centered around physical activities
52
Which of the following hormones have an anabolic function and have been shown to increase up to 48 hours following resistance training?
Insulin-like growth factor (IGF)
53
Which postural distortion is characterized by a forward head and rounded shoulders?
Upper crossed syndrome
54
What disease is a condition of altered airflow through the lungs, generally caused by airway obstruction due to mucus production?
Chronic obstructive lung disease
55
Which of the following defines the center of gravity of the body?
The approximate midpoint of the body
56
Why is continued education required for NASM Certified Personal Trainers?
To ensure that fitness professionals stay current on the latest understandings and research findings within the industry
57
You have a youth client. What training frequency is most recommended for a young athlete performing SAQ?
1 to 3 times per week
58
What is the physical action in the body during the eccentric phase of the stretch-shortening cycle?
Stretching of the agonist muscle
59
Which of the following nutrition topics are within the scope of practice for a Certified Personal Trainer?
General guidance on the importance of nutrition for health and performance
60
A client reports that he was recently told by his doctor that he has high blood sugar and that he should try to reduce it through dietary changes before considering medication. He asks you for advice. What would be the most appropriate course of action?
Explain that medical nutrition therapy is outside your scope of practice, then refer him to a registered dietitian for nutrition counseling.
61
How does taking "high" doses of vitamin C impact health?
More is not always better. In some cases, increasing the dosage does not come with many adverse effects, but it also does not increase health benefits. An increased dose of Vitamin C over 1 g reduces absorption.
62
Which of the following is an example of an exercise modality to enrich the proprioceptive nature of an exercise?
Wobble board
63
Approximately what percentage of Americans aged 20 years and older are obese?
0.4
64
Local muscles typically consist of which type of muscle fibers?
Type I
65
What is an example of a mechanism that can lead to muscle imbalance?
Postural distortions
66
What is the scientific term that describes the nervous system’s role in the contract/relax relationship between agonists and antagonists?
Reciprocal inhibition
67
What term is used to describe muscle tension that is created without a change in muscle length and no visible movement of the joint?
Isometric
68
Which of the following workout stages can include steady-state exercise?
Stage 2
69
What is something that allows a fitness professional to stand out from others in featuring their services?
Unique selling proposition (USP)
70
Which of the following is not a component of an integrated approach to exercise?
Diet supplementation
71
Besides Power Training, which phase of training would be the best option for someone who is attempting to improve their Olympic weightlifting?
Maximal Strength Training
72
What condition is characterized by the narrowing of coronary arteries?
ischemic heart disease
73
Which type of exercise accommodates effort whereby the harder the individual pushes or pulls, the more resistance they feel, despite the movement speed remaining constant?
Isokinetic
74
What are the two divisions of the skeletal system?
Axial and appendicular
75
Loaded movement training is best achieved with which training modality?
ViPR
76
If a client is exercising for 150 minutes per week (30 minutes, 5 days per week), then a 10% increase in volume would result in how many minutes total per week?
165 minutes per week
77
Which of the following most closely resembles a SMART goal?
I want to lose 20 pounds over the next 8 months.
78
Which of the following is an open-ended question?
What can you tell me about your past exercise experiences?
79
A client who has been training for 6 months has recently moved farther from the fitness facility. Which barrier should she be preparing to overcome?
Convenience
80
Which statement is an accurate reflection of exercise and physical activity as it relates to cancer?
Self-myofascial techniques are not recommended for clients receiving chemotherapy or radiation treatments.
81
How is steady-state aerobic exercise best defined?
Aerobic exercise that remains at a relatively constant intensity, including a stable heart rate and oxygen consumption
82
What are the two physiological responses that can occur from myofascial rolling?
Mechanical and neurophysiological response
83
When using linear periodization with a client, what would you progress them to after 4 weeks of training maximal strength adaptations?
Power
84
What are the basic two types of disease?
Chronic and Acute
85
What is the corresponding heart rate for an intensity scored as 14 on the original Borg 6 to 20 scale of exertion?
140 beats per minute
86
This term describes an unstable-but-controlled environment used to improve someone's static, semi-dynamic, and dynamic balance.
Proprioceptively enriched
87
This term describes an unstable-but-controlled environment used to improve someone's static, semi-dynamic, and dynamic balance.
Proprioceptively enriched
88
How is an isokinetic muscle contraction best described?
A contraction that occurs when the speed of movement is fixed and the resistance varies with the force exerted
89
What best defines a Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q+)?
What best defines a Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q+)?
90
Which of the following is the most accurate statement regarding proprioceptive modalities?
Using heavy weights while performing exercises on proprioceptive modalities is considered dangerous.
91
Which statement about a Certified Personal Trainer's scope of practice is accurate?
Certified Personal Trainers do not diagnose or treat areas of pain or disease.
92
Which characteristic is exhibited by type I muscle fibers?
Slow to fatigue
93
Which phase of the OPT model introduces lifting near or at maximal intensity?
Phase 4
94
Which of the following modalities is most likely to allow for strength and/or power development in the transverse plane?
Medicine balls
95
How is upper crossed syndrome characterized?
Forward head and protracted shoulders
96
Which concept should be used to describe the functioning of the serratus anterior as it assists the anterior deltoid during shoulder flexion?
Synergist
97
During normal walking, the pelvis rotates in what plane to facilitate the necessary momentum for the swing phase?
Transverse
98
What area of the body is most targeted during the single-leg squat to row exercise?
Posterior chain
99
Which of the following parts of the body is not subject to increases in density through resistance training?
Nerves
100
What is the most accurate description of motor control?
The ability to initiate and correct purposeful controlled movements
101
Which term defines the degree to which a test specifically measures what it is intended to measure?
Validity
102
Why can personal trainers be considered among the most important employees within a health club?
Personal trainers come in direct contact with members and can have the greatest influence on whether members achieve results.
103
Which of the following is considered a closed-chain exercise?
Push up
104
What would be considered a normal resting heart rate for a healthy sedentary person?
80 beats per minute
105
What scientific term is used to describe the concept whereby a loaded eccentric contraction prepares the muscles for a rapid concentric contraction?
Stretch-shortening cycle
106
Which of the following is an example of linear periodization?
4 weeks in Phase 1 followed by 4 weeks in Phase 2
107
Which of the following is the most highly progressed plyometric exercise?
Transverse plane box jump down
108
How should the amortization phase of the stretch-shortening cycle be described?
The transition from eccentric loading to concentric unloading
109
What phase of plyometric movement is also referred to as the electromechanical delay?
Amortization
110
What step height is used for the YMCA 3-minute step test?
12 inches
111
What type of communication includes posture, hand gestures, proximity to others, and facial expressions?
Nonverbal communication
112
Movement represents the integrated functioning of which three main body systems?
Muscular, nervous, skeletal
113
Which type of professionals are qualified to counsel individuals who are diagnosed with depression, using exercise as a supplemental treatment?
Psychologist or psychiatrist
114
What advice would enable a client to breathe properly?
Sit upright and slowly breathe in through your nose while allowing your stomach to expand
115
Which scheme would be the most ideal to achieve stabilization and muscular endurance adaptations?
2 sets, 20 repetitions, 50% 1RM
116
If someone went out for a 5-mile jog with their friend, which energy system would provide most of the ATP for this activity?
Oxidative phosphorylation
117
Which component of evidence-based practice refers to a fitness professional’s accumulated education, experience, and practical skills?
Individual professional expertise
118
If you have a client who wants to increase speed, what phase of the OPT model would they fall into?
Phase 5
119
What is the peripheral heart action system?
A variation of circuit training that alternates upper body and lower body exercises throughout the circuit
120
What is excess postexercise oxygen consumption (EPOC)?
EPOC is the increase in aerobic metabolism above baseline that occurs for a period after exercise.
121
What is the correct order of fascia, starting with the most superficial?
Epimysium, perimysium, endomysium
| Ep per endo
122
Which physiological systems comprise the human movement system (HMS)?
The muscular, skeletal, and nervous systems
123
Proper abdominal crunches on a stability ball allows for
Increased spinal extension due to the curvature of the ball
124
Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets the global muscles of the core?
Back extension
125
What most correctly identifies the purpose of a resume?
A resume allows a job candidate to present their job skills to a potential employer.
126
What is a physical benefit of resistance training?
Increased muscular hypertrophy
127
Informational support would be provided by which example?
Teaching a client how many minutes of cardio they should be accumulating each day
128
Robert is a recently retired military veteran. He has earned his NASM-CPT credential because he wants to help young people prepare for the physical demands of serving in the military. Which employment options provide him with the greatest access to potential clients in all geographic locations?
Conducting online coaching and personal training
129
Which of the following is the initial assessment that should be completed prior to starting any exercise or training program?
Health risk assessment
130
What phase of the OPT model aims to increase maximal strength and rate of force production?
Power Training
131
Which of the following is considered one of the Four Horsemen of Fitness?
Medicine Ball
| Indian Clubs, Dumbbells & Wands
132
Which of the following tests is designed to test reaction capabilities, acceleration, and maximal sprinting speed?
40 Yard Dash
133
Which of the following are the correct five kinetic chain checkpoints when utilizing kettlebells?
Feet, knees, hips, shoulders, head
134
What is the correct order of the phases of plyometric exercise?
Eccentric loading, amortization, concentric unloading
135
Which disease is associated with normal aging and is attributable to a lower production of estrogen and progesterone, both of which are involved with regulating the rate at which bone is lost?
Stage 1 Osteoporosis
136
What muscles does the tubing (shoulder) external rotation exercise primarily target?
Infraspinatus and teres minor
137
Contraction of the hamstring and rectus abdominis muscles create what motion of the pelvis in the sagittal plane?
Posterior Pelvic Tilt
138
When a person loses body weight, what is the only way that mass is lost?
As exhaled carbon dioxide
139
Waist circumference acts as an important indicator for diseases such as what?
Heart disease and diabetes
140
What is a proper regression if a client cannot perform the lunge exercise correctly?
Step ups
141
Which type of assessment assesses the alignment of the body while in motion?
Dynamic posture assessment
142
Performing a biceps curl with a dumbbell in the hand is an example of which type of lever?
Third class
143
Before studying to become an NASM Certified Personal Trainer, Kim worked as a copywriter for a large ad agency. Now that she is working as a personal trainer at a fitness studio, she is looking for additional income opportunities. Which of the following would provide her with the best option for increasing her earning potential?
Marketing her services as a writer to create blogs and social media posts for her studio as well as other fitness professionals in her area
144
Why is nonexercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT) important?
NEAT can be protective against obesity.
145
What are triglycerides?
The stored form of fat
146
Which term best describes when someone has mixed feelings about exercise and can see both the pros and cons of participating?
Ambivalence
147
Which of the following is iron considered to be?
Trace mineral
148
Where is the heart located in the thoracic cavity?
Central to the left and anterior to the spine
149
Which balance task would require significant use of the vestibular system?
Squatting on one limb with eyes closed
150
Which component of a monthly training plan should always be performed before moving to the next month’s mesocycle?
Reassessment
151
Which of the following represents a criterion for terminating an exercise test or exercise bout that involves exertion?
Any indication of chest pain or angina-like symptoms
152
What are the three movements performed during the ball combo II exercise?
Row, shoulder external rotation, and shoulder press
153
Which of the following should be considered when determining if a client is ready to undertake plyometric training?
Injury history
154
The upper trapezius works with what muscle as a force couple to create upward rotation of the scapula?
Serratus anterior
155
What is Bernadette’s waist-to-hip ratio (WHR) if she is measured with a waist circumference of 28 inches and a hip circumference of 33 inches?
0.85
156
What is the recommended number of SAQ sessions per week for weight-loss clients?
1 to 2 sessions per week
157
When attempting to increase muscular size and strength in the lower body, which of the following exercise is least likely to be beneficial?
BOSU Squat
158
Social physique anxiety is best defined by which statement?
When someone feels insecure about how they think others are viewing their body
159
Which of the following types of balance occurs when an individual seeks to maintain the center of mass over an ever-changing limit of stability?
Dynamic balance
160
What duration does the National Academy of Sports Medicine (NASM) typically recommend for the cardiorespiratory portion of the warm-up?
Between 5 and 10 minutes
161
When observing sprint mechanics, which joint action should you see occurring in the rear leg if proper form is used?
Ankle plantar flexion
162
Loaning some exercise bands to a client who is scheduled to go on vacation is an example of which type of social support?
Instrumental Support
163
You have a client seeking weight loss. What range of sets is most appropriate for SAQ drills?
3 or 4 sets
164
Which of the following should be emphasized the most in a core training program?
Quality of Movement
165
Posture uses which anatomical landmark in comparison to other positions of the body?
Spine
166
What is one advantage of using the Karvonen method (heart rate reserve or HRR) to calculate training heart rates, versus percentage of maximal heart rate (HRmax)?
It accommodates for discrepancies in resting heart rate.
167
It accommodates for discrepancies in resting heart rate.
Dual foot drills
168
During the cable rotation exercise, which position of the hip will help to decrease stress to the low-back?
Hip extension
169
Why is it important for fitness professionals to pay attention to their personal grooming when working in a fitness facility?
Personal trainers are professionals. Having a professional appearance can help ensure that clients treat personal trainers as the professionals they are.
170
What is a key technique consideration during the squat jump with stabilization?
Keeping the knees in line with the toes
171
Which barrier to exercise is most likely to be associated with body image issues?
Social physique anxiety
172
The difference between the end-diastolic and end-systolic volumes is referred to as what?
Stroke volume
173
Which of these is considered the most advanced plyometric exercise?
Depth jumps
174
A hypertensive client is taking a beta-blocker medication. What is the most appropriate method to monitor exercise intensity?
Talk test
175
Where is the appropriate location to take a waist circumference measurement?
At the narrowest point of the waist, below the rib cage and just above the top of the hip bones (while standing)
176
What are nonessential amino acids?
Amino acids that can be synthesized by the body if overall nutrition intake is adequate
177
If the concentric phase of a plyometric exercise doesn’t use all the stored elastic energy from the eccentric phase, what occurs?
The unused energy is dissipated as heat.
178
What is end-systolic volume?
The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction
179
Which modality allows for movements to occur as explosively as possible without the need for eccentric deceleration?
Medicine Ball
180
Which of the following answers indicates a primary difference between working as an independent contractor and working as an employee?
An independent contractor is responsible for paying their own taxes, while an employee has taxes withheld by the employer.
181
Which of the following is the most effective type of exercise to increase proprioceptive demands in training?
Exercise with free weights
182
Which term describes the act of lightly pushing on a client’s shoulders when they are balancing on one foot so they can learn to maintain or recover balance?
Perturbation
183
Local muscles typically consist of which type of muscle fibers?
Type I
184
Which of the following injuries is characterized by a sharp pain in the bottom of the heel that makes it difficult to walk?
Plantar fasciitis
185
How should an eccentric muscle action be described?
The development of muscle tension during lengthening of the contractile tissue
186
What is the primary action of the multifidus?
Stabilize and extend the spine
187
Which leadership component refers to the leader being a great example for how to live a healthy and balanced life, which includes being optimistic, empathetic, and knowledgeable?
Leader's qualities
188
Flexibility is defined as the following:
Normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allows for complete range of motion
189
What is the primary function of the large intestine?
Absorption of food and passage of waste into the rectum
190
Where in the digestive system are most fluids absorbed?
Small intestine
191
Changing leadership style based on the size of a group would be an example of which component of leadership?
Situational factors
192
How many vertebrae make up the thoracic spine?
12
193
Which of the following is not an appropriate expectation for a CPT?
Prescribing a supplement
