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CPT Exam > Test 3 > Flashcards

Test 3 Flashcards

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1
Q

Performing 4 weeks of stabilization training before moving on to strength endurance training for another 4 weeks would be an example of what kind of periodization?

A

Linear periodization

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2
Q

Stage 3 balance exercise should include what types of motion?

A

Hopping motions with a single-leg stance landing

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3
Q

What is the bone type of the clavicle, radius, and ulna?

A

Long

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4
Q

Using battle ropes is considered which sort of exercise?

A

Low-impact activity

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5
Q

What are the three pathways through which the body can produce ATP?

A

The ATP-PC system, glycolysis, and oxidative phosphorylation

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6
Q

For which movement impairment would you see the shoulders moving upward toward the ears?

A

Shoulder elevation

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7
Q

Which of the following is considered a benefit of performing a warm-up prior to cardiorespiratory training?

A

Increased respiratory rate and tissue temperature

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8
Q

Which benefit will positively affect the body through integrated training?

A

Improved sleep

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9
Q

Which of the following waist-to-hip ratios (WHRs) places Amy (a female) in the high-risk category for cardiovascular disease?

A

WHR of 0.88

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10
Q

What stage of change is a person in if they are not planning on exercising within the next 6 months?

A

Precontemplation

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11
Q

Which synergist would assist the upper-body pectoral muscles to enhance chest stabilization, strength, or power?

A

Triceps brachii

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12
Q

What resistance training system involves a progressive or regressive step approach that either increases or decreases weight with each set?

A

Pyramid system

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13
Q

Social physique anxiety is more prevalent in which population?

A

Females

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14
Q

What disease is a condition in which fibrous lung tissue results in a decreased ability to expand the lungs?

A

Restrictive lung disease

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15
Q

Having an informal role in an exercise group is demonstrated by which example?

A

Planning social gatherings for the group

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16
Q

Humans can learn new things at any stage of life, due to which process that causes the brain to reform neural pathways?

A

Neuroplasticity

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17
Q

Contraction of the erector spinae and hip flexor muscles creates what motion of the pelvis in the sagittal plane?

A

Anterior pelvic tilt

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18
Q

At what age is total peak bone mass reached?

A

30

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19
Q

Which of the following hormones, if increased at baseline, may be indicative of overtraining?

A

Cortisol

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20
Q

A client who has been training consistently for over a year has indicated that he wants to find more efficient ways to exercise at home. Which type of social support does he need?

A

Informational support

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21
Q

Which of the following is true about the biologically active forms of vitamins?

A

Biologically active forms are most effective for augmenting body levels.

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22
Q

What blood pressure is reflective of a hypertensive crisis?

A

A systolic reading greater than 180 mm Hg and/or a diastolic reading greater than 120 mm Hg

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23
Q

To increase the metabolic demand of SAQ exercises among weight-loss clients, which of the following adjustments to a workout session could be implemented?

A

Decreased rest periods

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24
Q

What must older adults complete prior to initiating an exercise program with a Certified Personal Trainer?

A

PAR-Q+

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25
Q

Which statement about lowering blood pressure is true?

A

Planned exercise alone is typically insufficient for acutely lowering and controlling hypertension.

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26
Q

What is the general recommended rest between SAQ reps for beginner clients?

A

15 to 60 seconds

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27
Q

What type of flexibility training is most likely to use instruments or equipment to help the body improve range of motion?

A

Self-myofascial techniques

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28
Q

What is the recommended recovery time between bouts of plyometric training for novice clients?

A

48 to 72 hours

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29
Q

During a squat, the lowering phase would be described as what type of muscle action?

A

Eccentric

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30
Q

Which term best describes observable movement of the limbs?

A

Osteokinematics

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31
Q

Which term best describes the ability to contract muscles of the core with force in an effort to flex the trunk during a slow controlled movement?

A

Core strength

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32
Q

When glucose is broken down via glycolysis, what molecule is created that could also be oxidized under aerobic conditions?

A

Pyruvate

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33
Q

Which of the following would be the appropriate progression for a core training program to optimize function?

A

Intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency

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34
Q

Which of the following statements describes the abdominal skinfold location?

A

A vertical skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button)

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35
Q

Which activity best demonstrates evidence-based practice?

A

Referencing peer-reviewed research

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36
Q

Which of the following statements is considered to be most accurate?

A

An individual’s cardiorespiratory fitness level is a strong predictor of morbidity and mortality.

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37
Q

What percentage of alpha-linolenic acid (ALA) converts to a biologically available form called eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA)?

A

About 5-15%

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38
Q

What is a safe flexibility modification that you can recommend to a client who has varicose veins?

A

Gentle static stretching

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39
Q

What are the three macronutrients?

A

Protein, carbohydrates, and lipids

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40
Q

According to the integrated performance paradigm, which of the following is a requirement for the safe control of movement during plyometrics?

A

Neuromuscular stabilization

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41
Q

What is considered to be the mechanism of action with self-myofascial rolling?

A

Autogenic inhibition

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42
Q

What does BMI (body mass index) assess for?

A

Whether a person’s weight is appropriate for their height

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43
Q

Why is the hurdler’s stretch considered to be a controversial lower-body stretch?

A

The stretch provides excessive stress to the inside of the knee.

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44
Q

What concept allows a person to jump higher during plyometric exercises?

A

Eccentric loading

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45
Q

Which of the following effects may be experienced with overtraining?

A

High levels of cortisol, which lead to a catabolic environment

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46
Q

In order to optimally load muscle during the eccentric phase, the fitness professional should recommend which of the following?

A

Lower the weight more slowly to increase time under tension

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47
Q

In what phase of plyometric exercise does preloading or stretching of the agonist muscle occur?

A

Eccentric

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48
Q

Creatine is most effective for what purpose?

A

Improving strength and muscle size

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49
Q

What is a characteristic of a type I muscle fiber?

A

Less force production

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50
Q

What three joint actions comprise triple extension?

A

Plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension

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51
Q

Which scenario best demonstrates companionship support?

A

Coordinating group events that are centered around physical activities

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52
Q

Which of the following hormones have an anabolic function and have been shown to increase up to 48 hours following resistance training?

A

Insulin-like growth factor (IGF)

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53
Q

Which postural distortion is characterized by a forward head and rounded shoulders?

A

Upper crossed syndrome

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54
Q

What disease is a condition of altered airflow through the lungs, generally caused by airway obstruction due to mucus production?

A

Chronic obstructive lung disease

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55
Q

Which of the following defines the center of gravity of the body?

A

The approximate midpoint of the body

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56
Q

Why is continued education required for NASM Certified Personal Trainers?

A

To ensure that fitness professionals stay current on the latest understandings and research findings within the industry

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57
Q

You have a youth client. What training frequency is most recommended for a young athlete performing SAQ?

A

1 to 3 times per week

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58
Q

What is the physical action in the body during the eccentric phase of the stretch-shortening cycle?

A

Stretching of the agonist muscle

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59
Q

Which of the following nutrition topics are within the scope of practice for a Certified Personal Trainer?

A

General guidance on the importance of nutrition for health and performance

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60
Q

A client reports that he was recently told by his doctor that he has high blood sugar and that he should try to reduce it through dietary changes before considering medication. He asks you for advice. What would be the most appropriate course of action?

A

Explain that medical nutrition therapy is outside your scope of practice, then refer him to a registered dietitian for nutrition counseling.

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61
Q

How does taking “high” doses of vitamin C impact health?

A

More is not always better. In some cases, increasing the dosage does not come with many adverse effects, but it also does not increase health benefits. An increased dose of Vitamin C over 1 g reduces absorption.

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62
Q

Which of the following is an example of an exercise modality to enrich the proprioceptive nature of an exercise?

A

Wobble board

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63
Q

Approximately what percentage of Americans aged 20 years and older are obese?

A

0.4

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64
Q

Local muscles typically consist of which type of muscle fibers?

A

Type I

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65
Q

What is an example of a mechanism that can lead to muscle imbalance?

A

Postural distortions

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66
Q

What is the scientific term that describes the nervous system’s role in the contract/relax relationship between agonists and antagonists?

A

Reciprocal inhibition

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67
Q

What term is used to describe muscle tension that is created without a change in muscle length and no visible movement of the joint?

A

Isometric

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68
Q

Which of the following workout stages can include steady-state exercise?

A

Stage 2

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69
Q

What is something that allows a fitness professional to stand out from others in featuring their services?

A

Unique selling proposition (USP)

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70
Q

Which of the following is not a component of an integrated approach to exercise?

A

Diet supplementation

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71
Q

Besides Power Training, which phase of training would be the best option for someone who is attempting to improve their Olympic weightlifting?

A

Maximal Strength Training

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72
Q

What condition is characterized by the narrowing of coronary arteries?

A

ischemic heart disease

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73
Q

Which type of exercise accommodates effort whereby the harder the individual pushes or pulls, the more resistance they feel, despite the movement speed remaining constant?

A

Isokinetic

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74
Q

What are the two divisions of the skeletal system?

A

Axial and appendicular

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75
Q

Loaded movement training is best achieved with which training modality?

A

ViPR

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76
Q

If a client is exercising for 150 minutes per week (30 minutes, 5 days per week), then a 10% increase in volume would result in how many minutes total per week?

A

165 minutes per week

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77
Q

Which of the following most closely resembles a SMART goal?

A

I want to lose 20 pounds over the next 8 months.

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78
Q

Which of the following is an open-ended question?

A

What can you tell me about your past exercise experiences?

79
Q

A client who has been training for 6 months has recently moved farther from the fitness facility. Which barrier should she be preparing to overcome?

A

Convenience

80
Q

Which statement is an accurate reflection of exercise and physical activity as it relates to cancer?

A

Self-myofascial techniques are not recommended for clients receiving chemotherapy or radiation treatments.

81
Q

How is steady-state aerobic exercise best defined?

A

Aerobic exercise that remains at a relatively constant intensity, including a stable heart rate and oxygen consumption

82
Q

What are the two physiological responses that can occur from myofascial rolling?

A

Mechanical and neurophysiological response

83
Q

When using linear periodization with a client, what would you progress them to after 4 weeks of training maximal strength adaptations?

A

Power

84
Q

What are the basic two types of disease?

A

Chronic and Acute

85
Q

What is the corresponding heart rate for an intensity scored as 14 on the original Borg 6 to 20 scale of exertion?

A

140 beats per minute

86
Q

This term describes an unstable-but-controlled environment used to improve someone’s static, semi-dynamic, and dynamic balance.

A

Proprioceptively enriched

87
Q

This term describes an unstable-but-controlled environment used to improve someone’s static, semi-dynamic, and dynamic balance.

A

Proprioceptively enriched

88
Q

How is an isokinetic muscle contraction best described?

A

A contraction that occurs when the speed of movement is fixed and the resistance varies with the force exerted

89
Q

What best defines a Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q+)?

A

What best defines a Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q+)?

90
Q

Which of the following is the most accurate statement regarding proprioceptive modalities?

A

Using heavy weights while performing exercises on proprioceptive modalities is considered dangerous.

91
Q

Which statement about a Certified Personal Trainer’s scope of practice is accurate?

A

Certified Personal Trainers do not diagnose or treat areas of pain or disease.

92
Q

Which characteristic is exhibited by type I muscle fibers?

A

Slow to fatigue

93
Q

Which phase of the OPT model introduces lifting near or at maximal intensity?

A

Phase 4

94
Q

Which of the following modalities is most likely to allow for strength and/or power development in the transverse plane?

A

Medicine balls

95
Q

How is upper crossed syndrome characterized?

A

Forward head and protracted shoulders

96
Q

Which concept should be used to describe the functioning of the serratus anterior as it assists the anterior deltoid during shoulder flexion?

A

Synergist

97
Q

During normal walking, the pelvis rotates in what plane to facilitate the necessary momentum for the swing phase?

A

Transverse

98
Q

What area of the body is most targeted during the single-leg squat to row exercise?

A

Posterior chain

99
Q

Which of the following parts of the body is not subject to increases in density through resistance training?

A

Nerves

100
Q

What is the most accurate description of motor control?

A

The ability to initiate and correct purposeful controlled movements

101
Q

Which term defines the degree to which a test specifically measures what it is intended to measure?

A

Validity

102
Q

Why can personal trainers be considered among the most important employees within a health club?

A

Personal trainers come in direct contact with members and can have the greatest influence on whether members achieve results.

103
Q

Which of the following is considered a closed-chain exercise?

A

Push up

104
Q

What would be considered a normal resting heart rate for a healthy sedentary person?

A

80 beats per minute

105
Q

What scientific term is used to describe the concept whereby a loaded eccentric contraction prepares the muscles for a rapid concentric contraction?

A

Stretch-shortening cycle

106
Q

Which of the following is an example of linear periodization?

A

4 weeks in Phase 1 followed by 4 weeks in Phase 2

107
Q

Which of the following is the most highly progressed plyometric exercise?

A

Transverse plane box jump down

108
Q

How should the amortization phase of the stretch-shortening cycle be described?

A

The transition from eccentric loading to concentric unloading

109
Q

What phase of plyometric movement is also referred to as the electromechanical delay?

A

Amortization

110
Q

What step height is used for the YMCA 3-minute step test?

A

12 inches

111
Q

What type of communication includes posture, hand gestures, proximity to others, and facial expressions?

A

Nonverbal communication

112
Q

Movement represents the integrated functioning of which three main body systems?

A

Muscular, nervous, skeletal

113
Q

Which type of professionals are qualified to counsel individuals who are diagnosed with depression, using exercise as a supplemental treatment?

A

Psychologist or psychiatrist

114
Q

What advice would enable a client to breathe properly?

A

Sit upright and slowly breathe in through your nose while allowing your stomach to expand

115
Q

Which scheme would be the most ideal to achieve stabilization and muscular endurance adaptations?

A

2 sets, 20 repetitions, 50% 1RM

116
Q

If someone went out for a 5-mile jog with their friend, which energy system would provide most of the ATP for this activity?

A

Oxidative phosphorylation

117
Q

Which component of evidence-based practice refers to a fitness professional’s accumulated education, experience, and practical skills?

A

Individual professional expertise

118
Q

If you have a client who wants to increase speed, what phase of the OPT model would they fall into?

A

Phase 5

119
Q

What is the peripheral heart action system?

A

A variation of circuit training that alternates upper body and lower body exercises throughout the circuit

120
Q

What is excess postexercise oxygen consumption (EPOC)?

A

EPOC is the increase in aerobic metabolism above baseline that occurs for a period after exercise.

121
Q

What is the correct order of fascia, starting with the most superficial?

A

Epimysium, perimysium, endomysium

Ep per endo

122
Q

Which physiological systems comprise the human movement system (HMS)?

A

The muscular, skeletal, and nervous systems

123
Q

Proper abdominal crunches on a stability ball allows for

A

Increased spinal extension due to the curvature of the ball

124
Q

Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets the global muscles of the core?

A

Back extension

125
Q

What most correctly identifies the purpose of a resume?

A

A resume allows a job candidate to present their job skills to a potential employer.

126
Q

What is a physical benefit of resistance training?

A

Increased muscular hypertrophy

127
Q

Informational support would be provided by which example?

A

Teaching a client how many minutes of cardio they should be accumulating each day

128
Q

Robert is a recently retired military veteran. He has earned his NASM-CPT credential because he wants to help young people prepare for the physical demands of serving in the military. Which employment options provide him with the greatest access to potential clients in all geographic locations?

A

Conducting online coaching and personal training

129
Q

Which of the following is the initial assessment that should be completed prior to starting any exercise or training program?

A

Health risk assessment

130
Q

What phase of the OPT model aims to increase maximal strength and rate of force production?

A

Power Training

131
Q

Which of the following is considered one of the Four Horsemen of Fitness?

A

Medicine Ball

Indian Clubs, Dumbbells & Wands

132
Q

Which of the following tests is designed to test reaction capabilities, acceleration, and maximal sprinting speed?

A

40 Yard Dash

133
Q

Which of the following are the correct five kinetic chain checkpoints when utilizing kettlebells?

A

Feet, knees, hips, shoulders, head

134
Q

What is the correct order of the phases of plyometric exercise?

A

Eccentric loading, amortization, concentric unloading

135
Q

Which disease is associated with normal aging and is attributable to a lower production of estrogen and progesterone, both of which are involved with regulating the rate at which bone is lost?

A

Stage 1 Osteoporosis

136
Q

What muscles does the tubing (shoulder) external rotation exercise primarily target?

A

Infraspinatus and teres minor

137
Q

Contraction of the hamstring and rectus abdominis muscles create what motion of the pelvis in the sagittal plane?

A

Posterior Pelvic Tilt

138
Q

When a person loses body weight, what is the only way that mass is lost?

A

As exhaled carbon dioxide

139
Q

Waist circumference acts as an important indicator for diseases such as what?

A

Heart disease and diabetes

140
Q

What is a proper regression if a client cannot perform the lunge exercise correctly?

A

Step ups

141
Q

Which type of assessment assesses the alignment of the body while in motion?

A

Dynamic posture assessment

142
Q

Performing a biceps curl with a dumbbell in the hand is an example of which type of lever?

A

Third class

143
Q

Before studying to become an NASM Certified Personal Trainer, Kim worked as a copywriter for a large ad agency. Now that she is working as a personal trainer at a fitness studio, she is looking for additional income opportunities. Which of the following would provide her with the best option for increasing her earning potential?

A

Marketing her services as a writer to create blogs and social media posts for her studio as well as other fitness professionals in her area

144
Q

Why is nonexercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT) important?

A

NEAT can be protective against obesity.

145
Q

What are triglycerides?

A

The stored form of fat

146
Q

Which term best describes when someone has mixed feelings about exercise and can see both the pros and cons of participating?

A

Ambivalence

147
Q

Which of the following is iron considered to be?

A

Trace mineral

148
Q

Where is the heart located in the thoracic cavity?

A

Central to the left and anterior to the spine

149
Q

Which balance task would require significant use of the vestibular system?

A

Squatting on one limb with eyes closed

150
Q

Which component of a monthly training plan should always be performed before moving to the next month’s mesocycle?

A

Reassessment

151
Q

Which of the following represents a criterion for terminating an exercise test or exercise bout that involves exertion?

A

Any indication of chest pain or angina-like symptoms

152
Q

What are the three movements performed during the ball combo II exercise?

A

Row, shoulder external rotation, and shoulder press

153
Q

Which of the following should be considered when determining if a client is ready to undertake plyometric training?

A

Injury history

154
Q

The upper trapezius works with what muscle as a force couple to create upward rotation of the scapula?

A

Serratus anterior

155
Q

What is Bernadette’s waist-to-hip ratio (WHR) if she is measured with a waist circumference of 28 inches and a hip circumference of 33 inches?

A

0.85

156
Q

What is the recommended number of SAQ sessions per week for weight-loss clients?

A

1 to 2 sessions per week

157
Q

When attempting to increase muscular size and strength in the lower body, which of the following exercise is least likely to be beneficial?

A

BOSU Squat

158
Q

Social physique anxiety is best defined by which statement?

A

When someone feels insecure about how they think others are viewing their body

159
Q

Which of the following types of balance occurs when an individual seeks to maintain the center of mass over an ever-changing limit of stability?

A

Dynamic balance

160
Q

What duration does the National Academy of Sports Medicine (NASM) typically recommend for the cardiorespiratory portion of the warm-up?

A

Between 5 and 10 minutes

161
Q

When observing sprint mechanics, which joint action should you see occurring in the rear leg if proper form is used?

A

Ankle plantar flexion

162
Q

Loaning some exercise bands to a client who is scheduled to go on vacation is an example of which type of social support?

A

Instrumental Support

163
Q

You have a client seeking weight loss. What range of sets is most appropriate for SAQ drills?

A

3 or 4 sets

164
Q

Which of the following should be emphasized the most in a core training program?

A

Quality of Movement

165
Q

Posture uses which anatomical landmark in comparison to other positions of the body?

A

Spine

166
Q

What is one advantage of using the Karvonen method (heart rate reserve or HRR) to calculate training heart rates, versus percentage of maximal heart rate (HRmax)?

A

It accommodates for discrepancies in resting heart rate.

167
Q

It accommodates for discrepancies in resting heart rate.

A

Dual foot drills

168
Q

During the cable rotation exercise, which position of the hip will help to decrease stress to the low-back?

A

Hip extension

169
Q

Why is it important for fitness professionals to pay attention to their personal grooming when working in a fitness facility?

A

Personal trainers are professionals. Having a professional appearance can help ensure that clients treat personal trainers as the professionals they are.

170
Q

What is a key technique consideration during the squat jump with stabilization?

A

Keeping the knees in line with the toes

171
Q

Which barrier to exercise is most likely to be associated with body image issues?

A

Social physique anxiety

172
Q

The difference between the end-diastolic and end-systolic volumes is referred to as what?

A

Stroke volume

173
Q

Which of these is considered the most advanced plyometric exercise?

A

Depth jumps

174
Q

A hypertensive client is taking a beta-blocker medication. What is the most appropriate method to monitor exercise intensity?

A

Talk test

175
Q

Where is the appropriate location to take a waist circumference measurement?

A

At the narrowest point of the waist, below the rib cage and just above the top of the hip bones (while standing)

176
Q

What are nonessential amino acids?

A

Amino acids that can be synthesized by the body if overall nutrition intake is adequate

177
Q

If the concentric phase of a plyometric exercise doesn’t use all the stored elastic energy from the eccentric phase, what occurs?

A

The unused energy is dissipated as heat.

178
Q

What is end-systolic volume?

A

The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction

179
Q

Which modality allows for movements to occur as explosively as possible without the need for eccentric deceleration?

A

Medicine Ball

180
Q

Which of the following answers indicates a primary difference between working as an independent contractor and working as an employee?

A

An independent contractor is responsible for paying their own taxes, while an employee has taxes withheld by the employer.

181
Q

Which of the following is the most effective type of exercise to increase proprioceptive demands in training?

A

Exercise with free weights

182
Q

Which term describes the act of lightly pushing on a client’s shoulders when they are balancing on one foot so they can learn to maintain or recover balance?

A

Perturbation

183
Q

Local muscles typically consist of which type of muscle fibers?

A

Type I

184
Q

Which of the following injuries is characterized by a sharp pain in the bottom of the heel that makes it difficult to walk?

A

Plantar fasciitis

185
Q

How should an eccentric muscle action be described?

A

The development of muscle tension during lengthening of the contractile tissue

186
Q

What is the primary action of the multifidus?

A

Stabilize and extend the spine

187
Q

Which leadership component refers to the leader being a great example for how to live a healthy and balanced life, which includes being optimistic, empathetic, and knowledgeable?

A

Leader’s qualities

188
Q

Flexibility is defined as the following:

A

Normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allows for complete range of motion

189
Q

What is the primary function of the large intestine?

A

Absorption of food and passage of waste into the rectum

190
Q

Where in the digestive system are most fluids absorbed?

A

Small intestine

191
Q

Changing leadership style based on the size of a group would be an example of which component of leadership?

A

Situational factors

192
Q

How many vertebrae make up the thoracic spine?

A

12

193
Q

Which of the following is not an appropriate expectation for a CPT?

A

Prescribing a supplement

CPT Exam (4 decks)

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