Test 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Bone Growth occurs throughout life

A

Remodels itself with cells called osteoblasts and osteoclasts

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2
Q

Motor Skill Development / 3 Stages

A

Cognitive, Associative, Autonomous

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3
Q

The nervous system requires electrolytes

A

Sodium, potassium, magnesium & water

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4
Q

What are the 5 Categories of Bone?

A

Long, short, flat, irregular & sesamoid

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5
Q

Which of the following types of balance occurs when an individual seeks to maintain postural control within a stationary limit of stability but with a moving base of support?

A

Semi-dynamic balance

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6
Q

What is the difference between open-ended and closed-ended questions?

A

Open-ended allows for elaboration, while closed-ended allows for one-word answers

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7
Q

Which statement best describes the final stage of the sales process?

A

Making the sale by asking for a financial commitment to solving the customer’s needs

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8
Q

A community could influence physical activity for its inhabitants by doing which of the following?

A

Creating more green spaces, playgrounds, and walking trails

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9
Q

Which mechanoreceptor is sensitive to changes in muscular tension and rate of that tension change, causing the muscle to relax, which prevents the muscle from excessive stress and possible injury?

A

Golgi tendon organs

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10
Q

Which muscle is classified as a local muscle involved in stabilizing the spine?

A

Multifidus

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11
Q

Which barrier is most often cited as a top barrier among most individuals?

A

Lack of time

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12
Q

Most exercises and motions of the body regularly occur in which plane of motion?

A

Sagittal

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13
Q

Which of the following is a component of quickness training?

A

Assessment of visual stimuli

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14
Q

Which of the following is true for elastic resistance bands as a modality?

A

Elastic resistance training is beneficial for muscular strength and endurance.

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15
Q

What effect would sleep deprivation have on growth hormone and cortisol levels?

A

Inadequate sleep will decrease growth hormone and increase cortisol levels.

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16
Q

The pancreas secretes which of the following hormones?

A

Insulin

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17
Q

Empathy is best described as?

A

The ability to identify with how another person feels

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18
Q

What key term would best describe an overactive hip flexor complex decreasing neural drive to the hip extensor complex?

A

Altered reciprocal inhibition

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19
Q

Which muscles are typically underactive with knee valgus during the overhead squat?

A

Gluteus maximus and medius

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20
Q

Balance exercises used for introducing balance training should initially involve little joint motion and improve what type of contractions?

A

Reflexive (automatic) joint-stabilization contractions

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21
Q

What are two medical precautions for self-myofascial techniques?

A

Joint hypermobility and scoliosis

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22
Q

Which of the following is true of protein shakes?

A

They are convenient options for increasing protein intake.

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23
Q

Which of the following reflects the characteristics of moderate-intensity exercise?

A

Ability to talk comfortably during exercise without breathlessness in the average untrained individual

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24
Q

Which of the following is not one of the primary levels of the OPT model?

A

Strength Endurance

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25
What must be maintained when performing exercises in a proprioceptively enriched environment?
Correct technique
26
What is best defined as the action of expanding the diameter of a blood vessel near the surface of the skin, which helps remove heat from the body?
Peripheral vasodilation
27
Which muscle acts to increase intra-abdominal pressure?
Transverse abdominis
28
Which client position during exercise has been shown to lead to the highest core muscle activity during breathing exercises?
Standing
29
What is known as a sudden lack of blood supply to the brain, caused by either a blockage in an artery or a ruptured blood vessel?
Stroke
30
Which of the following processes describes the passage of digested food into the blood system to be processed for energy, nutrients, and tissue building?
Absorption
31
Why is it important for clients to learn how to accelerate, decelerate, and stabilize in all planes of motion?
Injuries often occur when rotating or moving laterally.
32
What is a normal respiratory rate for an adult during rest?
15 breaths per minute
33
What is an example of an individual in the alarm reaction stage of the general adaptation syndrome?
The person is experiencing delayed-onset muscle soreness.
34
Using the healthcare continuum, how would training with a fitness professional be classified?
Preventive care
35
A Certified Personal Trainer is speaking with a client who is not currently doing any consistent aerobic training. They ask how ready the client is to do aerobic training once a week for 30 minutes, using a scale of 1 to 10, with 1 representing "not at all ready" and 10 representing "completely ready." If the client is at a 9, what stage of change are they in?
Preparation
36
What statement best describes a premium health club?
A health club that features multiple group-fitness studio options and provides a selection of high-end amenities
37
What is the most important reason that a Certified Personal Trainer should make sure an older adult has been cleared by the medical provider to take part in a balance training program?
To ensure safety
38
What is the most appropriate response from a Certified Personal Trainer if a client insists on using a steroid or other harmful substance?
Tell them no, and refer them to a licensed medical professional for further advice.
39
What is the name of the specialized cell that is the functional unit of the nervous system?
Neuron
40
What is cardiac output?
The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute
41
The goal of the Certified Personal Trainer in utilizing machines in Phase 1 of the OPT model should be to do what?
Progress their clients to more proprioceptively enriched exercises
42
How many B vitamins are there?
8
43
How are dietary supplements defined?
Regulated dietary materials used to increase intake of a desired nutritional component
44
Which muscles are typically overactive in association with lower crossed syndrome?
Hip flexors and lumbar extensors
45
Karim, an NASM Certified Personal Trainer, recently retired from playing professional football and is beginning his career in the fitness industry. How can Karim best promote his experience as a professional athlete?
Karim’s experience as a professional athlete allows him to create a unique selling proposition (USP) allowing club members to exercise with a former professional athlete.
46
What term is used to describe combined muscle contraction (co-contraction) of the global muscles of the core?
Bracing
47
What is the complete transition from eccentric to concentric muscle actions known as?
Stretch-shortening cycle
48
Which statement best defines the concept of relative flexibility?
Altered movement patterns
49
The process of diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide gases in and out of the bloodstream occurs in what structure or structures?
Alveolar sacs
50
What is a characteristic of type I muscle fibers?
Type I fibers are “slow twitch.”
51
What type of diabetes occurs when cells are resistant to insulin, meaning that the insulin present cannot transfer adequate amounts of blood sugar into the cell?
Type 2
52
Which of the following effects of the cardiovascular system occurs during exercise?
Increased ventricular filling
53
What surrounds the skeletal muscles and connects them to other surrounding muscles?
Fascia
54
Excessive anterior pelvic tilt would lead to this posture of the lumbar spine.
Increased lordosis
55
Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to the excessive forward trunk lean during the overhead squat assessment?
Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to the excessive forward trunk lean during the overhead squat assessment?
56
A client with osteoporosis has been medically cleared to perform exercise. Which form of training can have the most impact on increasing the client's bone mineral density?
Walking
57
What is the main role of a personal trainer?
Assess clients and make recommendations for exercise programming and other lifestyle changes
58
Which component of an OPT workout is intended to help preserve client autonomy?
Client's choice
59
What is the most appropriate SAQ program design for a beginner adult who is apparently healthy?
4 to 6 drills with limited inertia and unpredictability, such as cone shuffles and agility ladder drills
60
Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pushing assessment?
Lower trapezius
61
What types of foods provide all the essential amino acids?
Animal proteins
62
During which exercise will the upper body likely fatigue before the lower body?
Squat, curl to two-arm press
63
What term is used for a condition that would make it unsafe for the client to participate in any type of flexibility exercise?
Contraindication
64
If a Certified Personal Trainer helps a client make an action plan to enhance their confidence that they can exercise on their own, what determinant of behavior are they targeting?
Self-efficacy
65
Which muscles may be overactive with knee valgus during the single-leg squat?
Adductor complex
66
What is the Valsalva maneuver?
A process that involves expiring against a closed windpipe, creating additional intra-abdominal pressure and spinal stability
67
Which of the following is not a goal of Phase 1 of the OPT model?
Increasing strength
68
Which of the following is true about body image?
Body image may not match reality, and people may view their bodies in a negative way and evaluate themselves inaccurately.
69
You have a client seeking weight loss. What number of repetitions is most appropriate for SAQ drills?
3 to 5 reps
70
The cardiovascular and respiratory systems work together to remove what waste product?
Carbon dioxide
71
Hypertension is categorized by a blood pressure greater than what measurement?
120/80 mm Hg
72
What is the high-energy compound used by the body to do work?
ATP
73
Which heart chamber receives deoxygenated blood and pumps it to the lungs?
Right ventricle
74
Which of the following exercises is typically used to measure muscular endurance of the upper extremities during a pushing movement?
Push-up test
75
During a squat, which muscle group isometrically contracts to prevent unnecessary thigh movement in the frontal plane?
Hip abductors
76
What is the general recommended rest between SAQ reps for intermediate clients?
0 to 60 seconds
77
A new client has indicated that they are exercising due to advice from their physician, but they are generally amotivated. What would be the best choice for the personal trainer in their initial meeting?
Inquire further about what their motives are for participating.
78
Which of the following is the best source for reviewing information about dietary supplements?
PubMed
79
What is a drop set?
An approach that involves performing a set to failure, then removing a small percentage of the load and continuing with the set
80
What is an example of an individual in the exhaustion stage of the general adaptation syndrome?
The person has suffered an ACL sprain.
81
Iodine has a major role in which bodily process?
Thyroid function
82
An anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear is a common injury to what part of the body?
Knee
83
Which term best describes core training’s effect on decreasing the incidence of new injuries?
Injury resistance
84
Which of the following modality/exercise combinations provides the most freedom of movement in the transverse plane?
Elastic band woodchop
85
Before carbohydrates, fat, or protein can enter the citric acid cycle (CAC), they need to be converted to what common molecule?
Acetyl CoA
86
What is the best description of a steady-state heart rate?
Any stage at which the physiological response of heart rate from the cardiovascular system becomes relatively constant in relation to the amount of work being performed
87
Which component contributes the most to total energy expenditure?
Resting metabolism
88
Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to the low back arching during the overhead squat assessment?
Gluteus maximus
89
During short, high-intensity exercise, what is the primary fuel source for the body?
Carbohydrates
90
What is the best type of plyometric exercise for a beginner client?
Small jumps
91
SAQ training among seniors may help prevent which of the following conditions?
Osteopenia
92
Which of the following muscles are responsible for normal resting state (quiet) breathing?
Diaphragm
93
Long-term exercise adherence is associated with which type of motivation?
Intrinsic motivation
94
What blood pressure is reflective of stage 1 hypertension?
A reading of 130 to 139 mm Hg systolic or 80 to 89 mm Hg diastolic
95
What is an appropriate cue that can be given to a client to properly perform the drawing-in maneuver?
To perform the drawing-in maneuver, pull in the region just below the navel toward the spine.
96
A client is performing a dumbbell overhead press exercise. How should the fitness professional spot their client?
The fitness professional should spot their client at the wrists.
97
How is osteopenia best described?
The loss of bone density related to the aging process.
98
Which of the following best defines the base of support of the body?
The area beneath a person that consists of all points of contact between the body and the support surface
99
Which of the following terms can be used in place of repetition tempo?
Speed
100
What measurement is dependent upon the length of the lever arm and the angle between the force application and the lever arm?
Torque
101
What type of diabetes occurs when specialized cells in the pancreas (called beta cells) stop producing insulin?
Type 1
102
During which Phase of OPT should the exerciser be most concerned with increasing the speed (repetition tempo) of exercises?
Stabilization, strength, and power
103
Nervous system develops
As humans age
104
Synovial Joints
Unique with a synovial capsules, ligaments & fascia
105
Nervous system develops
As humans age
106
PNS / Sensory Receptors
Mechanoreceptors - touch / most relevant Nocireceptors - pain Chemoreceptors - chemical, taste, smell Photoreceptors - light
107
PNS - Two Subdivisions
Somatic and Autonomic Nervous System
108
Structure of Muscles
Includes different layers of connective tissue that surround contractile muscle fibers
109
Human Movement System
Integration of nervous, skeletal and muscular systems
110
Nervous System
Provide sensory (afferent) & motor (efferent) info.
111
Arthrokinematic
Movement at the joint surface
112
Vertebral Column
5 Regions | Cervical, Thoracic, Lumbar, Saccrum, Coccyx
113
Joints are formed
One bone articulating with another
114
Osteokinematic
Describes bone movement
115
Neuron
Functional Unit of the Nervous System
116
Two important sensory receptors (mechanoreceptors)
Muscle spindle and Golgi tendon organ