Test 2 Study Guide Flashcards

1
Q

What is the primary assessment for a client with Lymphatic disease?

A

Skin integrity- Pitting => firm, tight, shiny => thickened, rough, discolored; brawny (orange) => Weeping, oozing => ulcers, infection (from poor perfusion: tissue is nutrition impaired). Red, warm, painful.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Classification of Lymphedema

A

Grade I (Mild): Circumference of affected limb is 2 cm, but not more than 4 cm larger than the unaffected limb; patient is asymptomatic.

Grade II (Moderate): Circumference of affected limb is 4 cm, but not more than 8 cm larger than the unaffected limb; patient experiences symptoms such as heaviness in the limb, pain, and limited movement.

Grade III (Severe): Circumference of affected limb is 8 cm greater than the unaffected limb, involves the entire limb, or is accompanied by infection or cellulitis (inflammation of connective tissue in or close to the skin).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the signs and Symptoms of a person with Hodgkin’s disease?

A

Malignancy that produces enlargement of lymphoid tissue, spleen, and liver with invasion of other tissues (ie. bone marrow, lungs);
Early symptoms: painless enlargement of one or more lymph nodes (starts with cervical) that start to press on adjacent structures (esophagus or bronchi);
Retroperitoneal nodal enlargement: sense of stomach fullness, epigastric pain;
Common: marked wt loss, anorexia, fatigue, weakness, low-grade fever, pruritus, night sweats;
Less Common: marked anemia, thrombocytopenia (leading to a tendency to bleed), poor resistance to infection, staph skin infections, resp tract infections.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

A

Four Subtypes;
Two peaks of onset: [15,40] yrs and >55 yrs;
Reed-Sternberg cells;
40% of affected clients test pos to EBV;
B-cell origin;
Usually starts in lymph nodes above the clavicle, commonly in the neck and chest; 15% are below the diaphragm; spreads down-ward from initial site;
More orderly growth from one node to adjacent nodes;
More curable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

A

Thirty subtypes;
Peaks after age 50;
No Reed-Sternberg cells;
More common in industrial countries; common among patients with immunosuppression;
B- and T-cell origin;
Common in abdomen, tonsils; can develop in areas other than lymph nodes (ie. brain, nasal passages);
Less predictable growth; spreads to extranodal sites; less curable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What can a nurse help a client with lymphadenitis has developed persistent swelling?

A

Inflammation of the lymph nodes;

Patient ed: application of elastic sleeve or stocking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Why would a patient with Hodgkin’s develop anemia?

A

Low rbc’s and elevated leukocytes common; spleen enlargement = dec function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

With a diagnosis of lymphangitis. What interventions would the nurse institute?

A

Inflammation of lymphatic vessels;
Red streaks follow the course of the lymph channels and extend up the arm or leg;
Fever may be present;
Inspect area, note patient response to antibiotics, assistance with ADLs, elevate (to reduce swelling), warmth (comfort; inc circulation);
Notify physician: affected area appears to become enlarged, additional lymph nodes become involved, body temp remains elevated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A client had a left radical mastectomy with an axillary node dissection, What should the nurse inform the client is the reason for the edema?

A

Lack of lymph nodes in the armpit and scar tissue can inhibit lymphatic draining leading to edema.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What foods or liquids would be best to offer a client with infectious mono would hel woth food?

A

Soft, bland foods; cool liquids; gargling with warm salt water.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the signs and symptoms along with incubation period for infectious mononucleosis?

A

Usual Age: [15,25] yrs
Incubation Period: [30,50] days
S/S: fever- irregular, usually about 2 weeks;
sore throat- marked, whitish-gray exudate;
adenopathy (enlarged lymph nodes)- most commonly anterior and posterior cervical chains; often generalized;
Splenomegaly (enlargement of spleen)- ~50%
Hepatomegaly (enlargement of liver)- ~10%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the cell mediated response?

A

Immune response that T-cell lymphocytes perform; T-cells survey proteins in the body, actively analyze the surface features, respond to non-self by attacking the invading antigen.

Antigen -> nonspecific defenses -> Immune response (specific defences) -> activation of T cells (Helper T cells stimulate this activation) -> Production of memory T cells and cytotoxic T cells -> Maturation and migration of cytotoxic T cells -> Physically attack the antigen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What type of immunity to measles develops after the initial infection?

A

Naturally acquired active immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

In which type of client is a vaccine more likely to be less effective and why?

A

Elderly. The amount of antibody produced in response to most foreign antigens dec with age (=dec immune response)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the function of the thymus gland?

A

Programs T lymphocytes to become regulator or effector T cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What tests would the nurse expect to be ordered for a client with an immune disorder?

A

CBC with Diff;
Protein electrophoresis screens for diseases associated with a deficiency or excess of immunoglobulins;
T-cell ad B-cell assays;
Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay

17
Q

What type of immunity does a client have if they have had the mumps?

A

Naturally acquired, active immunity

18
Q

What type of immunity does the nurse understand that the newborn will have?

A

Naturally acquired, passive immunity

19
Q

Receiving a hepatitis B vaccination series What type of immunity will this provide?

A

Artificially acquired, active immunity

20
Q

A skin test for detection of exposure to tuberculosis, what would the skin test show if the person had exposure to TB?

A

Swelling where the wheel was placed;

Indicates antibodies against the antigen

21
Q

With a client that is being tested for HIV what is the nurses responsabilty?

A

Ensure written consent;

Keep results confidential

22
Q

Which cells circulate throughout the body looking for virus-infected cells and cancer cells?

A

Natural Killer Cells;
Lymphocyte-like cells;
Can identify atypical markers on cell membranes without the help of T-cell or B-cell lymphocytes.

23
Q

Which client would benefit from a shingles vaccine?

A

Elderly clients whose immune system may no longer suppress the vericella virus