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Training Division > TEST 2 STUDY GUIDE > Flashcards

TEST 2 STUDY GUIDE Flashcards

1
Q

The incident action plan is based on:

A

Incident Strategy Chosen.

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2
Q

Of the following, the best reason to conduct a post-incident analysis is to:

A

Evaluate and refine operational tactics and training methods.

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3
Q

The agency established to ensure safe working conditions is the:

A

Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA).

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4
Q

NFPA 1500 provides guidance for which program to benefit firefighters?

A

Employee Assistance Program (EAP).

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5
Q

Which would be considered a program offered by an Employee Assistance Program?

A

Dealing with physical problems.

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6
Q

National Incident Management System (NIMS) identifies the sides of the building as:

A

A, B, C, D.

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7
Q

When dealing with multiple floor buildings, each floor noted as a:

A

Division.

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8
Q

Which activity is prohibited during training?

A

Horseplay.

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9
Q

The development and implementation of a plan that incorporates specific goals to bring a fire under control is called a:

A

Strategy.

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10
Q

Read the following statements and choose the correct answer from choices A to C.

A) Federal Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) authority and regulations apply mainly to private sector and do not cover employee of state and local governments.

B) Federal OSHA has jurisdiction and over every state in the U.S.

C) Agencies must adopt OSHA as recognized national standards.

A

Statement A is true, Statements B and C are false.

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11
Q

In an Incident Management System (IMS), groups deal with a specific.

A

Activity.

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12
Q

In an Incident Management System (IMS), divisions deal with specific.

A

Geographic area.

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13
Q

Read the following statements and choose the correct answer from the alternatives A to C.

A) A policy is a guide to thinking or decision making.

B) A procedure is a detailed plan of action.

C) Standard Operating Procedures apply to both emergency and non-emergency situations.

A

All three statements are true.

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14
Q

The difference between strike teams and task forces is:

A

Strike teams are of a similar kind and type, while task forces are any combination of single resources.

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15
Q

Characteristics firefighters should possess include a:

A

Sense of integrity.

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16
Q

The finance section includes the:

A

Compensation/Claims Unit.

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17
Q

The operations section:

A

May establish groups, divisions, and branches.

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18
Q

The planning section is response for:

A

Documentation and demobilization.

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19
Q

Critical factors in the scene size-up include:

A

Life safety hazards.

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20
Q

Read the following statements and choose the correct answer from alternatives A to C.

A) Most fire departments use fire prevention, code enforcement, and public education programs to prevent fires.

B) In the United States, the ambulance service is the main first-line medical responder in virtually every community.

C) The mission of the fire service is to save lives.

A

Statement A is true, Statements B and C are false.

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21
Q

A general overview and critique of the incident by members of responding agencies is called:

A

Post-incident analysis.

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22
Q

Which is true regarding National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) standards?

A

They are consensus documents.

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23
Q

Most fire departments:

A

Use fire prevention, code enforcement, and public education programs to prevent fires.

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24
Q

Standard operating procedures:

A

Apply to both emergency and non-emergency situations.

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25
Q

Information on the training and performance qualifications for firefighters is located in which National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) Standard?

A

NFPA 1001.

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26
Q

What is one factor that plays a significant role in the physical demands of a firefighters job?

A

Physical conditioning.

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27
Q

How soon after a traumatic call should Critical Incident Stress Debriefing (CISD) be held?

A

As soon as possible.

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28
Q

Which statement regarding National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) Standards is true?

A

They are viewed as consensus documents.

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29
Q

In the Incident Management System (IMS), the functional area responsible for all incident activities is:

A

Command.

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30
Q

Which is one of the keys to improving a firefighters physical health?

A

Health screening.

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31
Q

In the Incident Management System (IMS), the functional area that directs the organization’s tactics to meet the strategic goals is:

A

Operations.

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32
Q

Fire department employee assistance programs provide ____ help with problems that might affect performance.

A

Confidential.

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33
Q

In the Incident Management System (IMS), the functional area responsible for all costs and aspects of an incident, especially at a large-scale, long-term incident, is:

A

Finance.

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34
Q

Critical Incident Stress Management/Debriefing (CISD) is defined as:

A

A process for managing the short and long term effects of critical incident stress reactions.

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35
Q

National Fire Protection Association 1001 is:

A

Standard for Fire Fighter Professional Qualifications.

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36
Q

Depending on a departments mission statement, a firefighter may also be required to perform in areas such as a:

A

Emergency Medical Technician

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37
Q

In the Incident Management System (IMS), the functional area responsible for providing facilities, services, and materials necessary to support an incident is:

A

Logistics.

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38
Q

In the Incident Management System (IMS), the functional area responsible for the collection, evaluation, dissemination, and use of Information to the Incident is:

A

Planning.

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39
Q

Historically, the standard operating unit of a fire department is:

A

The Company.

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40
Q

Where are medical requirements for fire fighters specified?

A

NFPA 1582.

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41
Q

One of the primary functions of the truck/ladder company is?

A

Performing forcible entry to the fire building.

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42
Q

A function of the rescue company is?

A

Victim removal.

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43
Q

The person ultimately responsible for the operations and administration of the fire department is the:

A

Fire Cheif

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44
Q

In all fire departments, training must:

A

Be a continuing function.

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45
Q

The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) may establish regulations governing fire department activities such as:

A

Health and Safety.

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46
Q

On the fireground, the safety officer reports to:

A

The Incident Commander.

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47
Q

Each fire fighter accident or injury must be thoroughly investigated for two reasons, One is to determine why it happened and the other is to:

A

determine how it can be avoided in the future.

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48
Q

Which is one of the major staff functions/components of the Incident Management System?

A

Planning.

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49
Q

Firefighters perform duties and responsibilities in accordance with the ____ who establishes the minimum standard for firefighters.

A

National Fire Protection Association (NFPA).

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50
Q

Firefighter duties and responsibilities are influenced by many organizations. The organization that establishes and ensures workplace safety is the:

A

Occupational Safety and Health Administration.

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51
Q

National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) 1001 addresses firefighter.

A

Minimum knowledge, skills and abilities.

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52
Q

Division of Labor:

A

Assigns a task to an individual to make that person responsible for completing the task.

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53
Q

Which is a characteristic of the Incident Command System?

A

Common terminology.

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54
Q

Which is one of the characteristics of an Incident Management System?

A

Unity of Command.

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55
Q

Which is a major functional component of the Incident Management System?

A

Logistics.

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56
Q

National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) ____ is the standard that contains minimum requirements and procedures for a safety and health program.

A

1500.

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57
Q

Group, when used as an Incident Management System term, is best described as:

A

Working on the same task or objective.

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58
Q

Division, when used as an Incident Management System term, is best described as:

A

Responsible for operations with an assigned geographical area.

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59
Q

As it relates to the Incident Management System, a division refers to:

A

A geographic location or designation.

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60
Q

Which is a characteristic of the Incident Management System?

A

Designated Facilities.

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61
Q

Within the Incident Management System. Unity of Command is best described as:

A

Each person only having one direct supervisor.

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62
Q

The term Unified Command in the Incident Command System is:

A

Used when multiple agencies or multiple Jurisdictions have responsibility for control of an incident.

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63
Q

The Incident Management System defines span of control as:

A

The number of subordinates who report to one supervisor.

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64
Q

In the Incident Management System, ____ are functional crews assigned to perform a specific task such as ventilation or rescue.

A

Groups.

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65
Q

Within the Incident Management System, the positions of Safety, Liaison, and Information are:

A

Command Staff Positions.

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66
Q

The Incident Command System is best defined as:

A

An organized, systematic method for the command, control and management of an emergency incident.

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67
Q

What is the optimal number of individuals that one person should be supervising at an emergency incident?

A

Three to Seven.

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68
Q

A branch level supervisor is known as a branch:

A

Director.

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69
Q

Under the Incident Command System, the ____ is responsible for determining the strategic goals for control of an incident.

A

Incident Commander.

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70
Q

Under the Incident Command System, the ____ is responsible for implementing the tactical assignments to meet the strategic goal.

A

Operations Chief.

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71
Q

Under the Incident Management System, the ____ Officer is responsible for providing factual and accurate information to the media.

A

Public Information.

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72
Q

In the Incident Management System, the term modular organization is best described as:

A

The ability to start small and expand if an Incident becomes more complex.

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73
Q

Read the following statements regarding the Incident Management System (IMS) and select your answer from choices A through C.

A) The Incident Management System assumes that the first arriving unit at an Incident establishes command.

B) The individual who is in charge of the first arriving unit is the Incident Commander.

C) If a chief officer arrives after command has been established, he may assume command.

A

All three statements are true.

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74
Q

What type of fire service personnel would normally be assigned the role of Operations Sections Chief?

A

A chief officer with an extensive experience in operations.

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75
Q

Branch, used as in Incident Management System term, is best described as:

A

Maintaining span of control over subordinate organization units.

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76
Q

If an Incident Commander requested three emergency medical services (EMS) strike teams, what would be dispatched?

A

Fifteen Ambulances and three strike team leaders.

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77
Q

What would be the Incident command designation for the 7th floor on a high-rise?

A

Division 7.

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78
Q

What Incident Management System term can refer to companies or crews that have been assigned on the basis of either geography or function?

A

Division.

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79
Q

For what types and sizes of incident is the Incident Management System (IMS) designed?

A

All types and sizes.

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80
Q

In the Incident Management System, who is the one person ultimately responsible for managing the incident?

A

The Incident Commander.

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81
Q

The purpose of the command post is to:

A

Direct the Incident Operation.

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82
Q

The Incident Commander’s point of contact for representatives from outside agencies is the:

A

Liaison Officer.

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83
Q

By what title or rank are the heads of the four major functional components of the Incident Management System known?

A

Chief.

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84
Q

Which Incident Management System section is responsible for the management of all actions that are directly related to controlling the incident?

A

Operations

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85
Q

Which Incident Management System section is responsible for keeping vehicles fueled and providing food for firefighters?

A

Logistics

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86
Q

Which Incident Management System section is responsible for the cost accounting of an incident?

A

Finance/Administration

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87
Q

What term usually refers to companies or crews working on the same task or objective, although not necessarily in the same location.

A

Group

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88
Q

When parking the apparatus at the emergency scene, the firefighters should:

A

Turn off lights that face opposing traffic to avoid blinding drivers.

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89
Q

To maintain scene security, the firefighter may use control zones using which of the following guidelines?

A

The firefighter will need to determine the appropriate distance from the scene or area.

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90
Q

When encountering a downed power line, you should establish a danger zone ____ power pole span in either direction.

A

One.

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91
Q

Which of these procedures can cause serious injury or death when controlling electricity at an emergency incident?

A

Pulling the meter from the socket on the structure.

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92
Q

The most acceptable method of controlling electricity at an emergency incident is to:

A

Shut the power down at the main panel.

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93
Q

Who makes the decision about which type of strategy to use on a given fire?

A

Incident Commander.

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94
Q

Which statement is correct?

A

Personnel accountability should be used at all emergency scenes.

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95
Q

Which statement is correct?

A

Personnel accountability systems should be used at all incidents.

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96
Q

At emergency scenes, traffic hazards can be minimized by positioning apparatus to:

A

Provide a shield or barrier to the scene and rescuers.

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97
Q

What is a scene safety practice?

A

Position fire apparatus to block oncoming traffic.

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98
Q

Which is correct concerning downed power lines?

A

Secure the area around the power line.

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99
Q

Before opening doors or exiting apparatus, fire fighters should always check for:

A

Traffic.

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100
Q

One type of device that should be placed to warn traffic at emergency highway or roadway scenes is/are:

A

Traffic cones.

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101
Q

What should fire fighters wear for safety while working a highway incident scene?

A

High-visibility reflective safety vests.

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102
Q

What is always the first step in making plans to bring an emergency situation under control?

A

Size-up.

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103
Q

An on-going size-up must consider the impact firefighters are having on the problem, any changing circumstances at the incident, and:

A

The effectiveness of the initial plan.

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104
Q

The type of approach that is required to manage information in the size-up process is:

A

Systematic.

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105
Q

The concept of rehabilitation:

A

Needs to be addressed at all incidents.

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106
Q

What is one source of facts about a structure?

A

A pre-incident plan.

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107
Q

Unified command is necessary when:

A

All agencies must work together for mitigation of the incident.

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108
Q

The document that provides details about a buildings construction, layout, contents, special hazards, and fire protection systems for use during size-up is called a:

A

Pre-incident plan/survey.

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109
Q

Where on the emergency scene should traffic cones, flares, and other warning devices be placed?

A

Far enough away from the incident to slow approaching traffic and direct it away from the work area.

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110
Q

The chain of command:

A

Is the order and rank of authority of a department.

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111
Q

Who should know how to shut off a buildings electrical, gas, or water service?

A

All firefighters.

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112
Q

____ relates to the number of personnel an individual can effectively supervise.

A

Span of Control.

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113
Q

There is no greater priority in the fire service than that of:

A

Firefighter safety and survival.

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114
Q

Upon arrival at a fire, on-cal volunteer fire fighters should report to:

A

The Incident Commander.

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115
Q

When dismounting the apparatus on the roadside, firefighters should:

A

Never walk with their backs to the traffic.

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116
Q

One of the first things the first responder should do at a hazardous materials incident is to:

A

Isolate the scene.

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117
Q

What is the principle called that says each fire fighter answers to only one supervisor?

A

Unity of command.

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118
Q

When establishing a collapse zone around a building, the minimum distance from the building must extend:

A

1-1/2 times the height of the building.

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119
Q

If here are no lives to be saved, but there is value to the property, can fire fighters be committed to an interior attack?

A

Yes.

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120
Q

The process of comparing the positive results that can be achieved in an action with the probability and severity of potential negative consequences is called:

A

Risk-Benefit Analysis.

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121
Q

What is the key part of the rehabilitation process?

A

Revitalization.

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122
Q

Proper lifting requires.

A

Lifting with your legs, not your back.

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123
Q

The ____ has the emergency authority to alter, suspend, or terminate any operation they deem hazardous to the operating personnel.

A

Safety Officer.

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124
Q

There is no greater priority in the fire service than that of:

A

Firefighter safety and survival.

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125
Q

Upon arrival at a fire, on call volunteer fire fighters should report to:

A

The Incident Commander

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126
Q

When dismounting the apparatus on the roadside , firefighter should:

A

Never walk with their backs to the traffic.

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127
Q

One of the first things the first responders should do at a hazardous materials incident is to:

A

Isolate the scene.

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128
Q

What is the principle called that says each fire fighter answers to only one supervisor:

A

Unity of command.

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129
Q

When establishing a collapse zone around a building, the minimum distance from the building must extend:

A

1-1/2 times the height of the building.

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130
Q

If there are no lives to be saved, but there is value to the property, can fire fighters be committed to an interior attack?

A

Yes.

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131
Q

The process of comparing the positive results that can be achieved in an action with the probability and severity of potential negative consequences is called:

A

Risk-Benefit Analysis

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132
Q

What is the key part of the rehabilitation process?

A

Revitalization.

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133
Q

Proper lifting requires?

A

Lifting with your legs, not your back.

134
Q

The ____ has the emergency authority to alter, suspend, or terminate any operation they deem hazardous to the operating personnel.

A

Safety Officer.

135
Q

The ____ serves to coordinate the flow of personnel into and out of the Fire area with the Incident Commander?

A

Accountability Officer.

136
Q

The three crucial Fire ground operations that must go hand in hand to keep the operation as safe as possible are.

A

Fire attack, search and rescue, and ventilation.

137
Q

___ is the priority at vehicle fires, the same as all fires.

A

Scene safety.

138
Q

All safety hazards must be addressed before:

A

Extinguishment.

139
Q

Traffic control and ____ are essential to protect fire fighters operating on highways.

A

Apparatus placement.

140
Q

The minimum distance to park apparatus from a vehicle fire is:

A

100 feet.

141
Q

Hydrogen flames from a heated lead acid battery burns.

A

Clear.

142
Q

A vehicle on fire can usually be prevented from moving by:

A

Chocking the tire.

143
Q

What is the first step in developing any fire attack plan?

A

Conducting an accurate size - up.

144
Q

The most important considerations at every fire or emergency is:

A

Conducting an accurate size up.

145
Q

The most important consideration at every Fire or emergency is:

A

Life safety.

146
Q

In the risk-benefit analysis, we will:

A

Risk our lives a little to protect savable property.

147
Q

Which is a scene safety practice ?

A

Checking for downed power lines.

148
Q

Which statement concerning electrical safety is true?

A

Secure the area around the power line and keep the public at a safe distance.

149
Q

Over the last two decades, an average of more than ____ U.S. fire fighters die each year in the line of duty.

A

100.

150
Q

To maximize safety on roadways, fire fighters should:

A

Wear approved reflective vests when working on roadways.

151
Q

The reply made to the Incident Commander signifying that companies working in the hazard zone are all safe and accounted for is:

A

Personnel Accountability Report.

152
Q

Which type of vehicle contains the same hazards of conventional vehicles, but has an additional hazard.

A

Hybrid.

153
Q

Which is considered a function of the rescue company?

A

Confined space operations.

154
Q

According to statistics compiled by the United States Fire Administration, approximately ____ firefighter injuries are reported each year.

A

70,000 - 100,000

155
Q

The street, or address of the structure is termed:

A

Division A.

156
Q

The person that stabilizes the victim of accidents or illness until more highly trained medical personnel arrive is the:

A

First Responder.

157
Q

What is the lowest rank on the chain of command that shred the responsibility for safety ?

A

The individual department members

158
Q

What is generally considered the upper limit of the span of control ?

A

7.

159
Q

Where is the rehabilitation/staging center, usually, at a high-rise Fire ?

A

Two or three floors below the fire.

160
Q

Property designated as a target hazard poses what risk to fire fighters ?

A

Increased.

161
Q

The proper sequence of information and command flow describes:

A

Chain of command.

162
Q

The order of rank and authority in the fire services describes:

A

Chain of command.

163
Q

The process of dividing large jobs into smaller jobs to make them more manageable is described as:

A

Division of labor.

164
Q

Division of labor is necessary in the fire service in order to:

A

Make specific and clear cut assignments.

165
Q

The highest and most positive form of discipline is:

A

Self discipline.

166
Q

When statement best describes the duties of a Firefighter I ?

A

Performs specifically assigned tasks under the supervision of the Firefighter II or Company Officer.

167
Q

When should a critical incident stress debriefing (CISD) occur ?

A

As soon as possible after the incident.

168
Q

Which has the highest priority for a radio transmission?

A

Emergency traffic from a unit working at a fire or rescue.

169
Q

All fire department radio operations must follow rules of the.

A

Federal Communications Commission (FCC).

170
Q

What is an alerting system for a staffed fire station?

A

Radio with alert tone.

171
Q

Pre-arrival instructions can be defined as:

A

Instructions to citizens until first responders arrive on the scene.

172
Q

The term used for the facility where the emergency call is routed is called the:

A

Public Safety Answering Point (PSAP).

173
Q

The dispatcher using a computer-aided dispatch (CAD) system can:

A

Identify the type of calls and recommend the most appropriate equipment for response.

174
Q

Determining exactly which units to send to a call depends on the location of the incident and the:

A

Classification of the incident.

175
Q

Computer aided dispatch (CAD) can be defined as an:

A

Computer - based automated system that assists the telecommunications in assessing dispatch information and recommends responses.

176
Q

When receiving reports of emergencies by telephone, the individual should always speak.

A

Clearly, Slowly, and with Good volume.

177
Q

When speaking to the public, the individual receiving the call should.

A

Be professional.

178
Q

What is the terminology for the method used by a telecommunicator to obtain the required information regarding a reporter emergency ?

A

Telephone interrogation.

179
Q

In fire departments that have access to multiple radio channels, fire ground operations should be:

A

Assigned a separate dedicated channel.

180
Q

What is the difference between basic 912 and enhanced 911?

A

Enhanced systems have the capability to provide the callers telephone number and address.

181
Q

What is one of the disadvantages of cellular phones in reporting emergencies?

A

Callers may not know the exact location.

182
Q

There are five major steps in processing an emergency incident call. After receipt of the call, which occurs next?

A

Location validation.

183
Q

Preincident plans should be available to:

A

Units that respond to that location.

184
Q

Complete and accurate records should be maintained for:

A

All responses.

185
Q

The location where emergency 911 calls are routed is referred to as a:

A

Public Safety Answering Point.

186
Q

Information needed to determine the scope of an emergency includes:

A

Incident / Situation.

187
Q

When accepting a walk-in report, it is important for the firefighter to:

A

Obtain the same information a dispatcher would request.

188
Q

What is another term for communications center dispatchers?

A

Telecommunicators.

189
Q

A person entering a fire station and reporting a fire is an example of a:

A

Walk in.

190
Q

What does the Automatic Number Identification (ANI) feature of enhanced 911 do?

A

Show the callers phone number.

191
Q

The primary purpose of a public fire service communication system is to:

A

Accept reports of emergencies and dispatch emergency.

192
Q

Radio operations for the fire service are regulated by the:

A

Federal Communications Commission (FCC).

193
Q

Hearing impaired citizens may report an emergency via a:

A

Teletype.

194
Q

The telecommunicator’s first responsibility is to:

A

Obtain the information that is required to dispatch the appropriate units to the correct location.

195
Q

The E in E911 stands for:

A

Enhanced.

196
Q

Communications centers must have ____ telecommunicator(s) on duty at all times.

A

Two.

197
Q

A predetermined plan for emergency and non emergency functions is known as a department’s:

A

Standard Operating Procedures / Standard Operating Guidelines (SOPs/SOGs).

198
Q

What is the difference in the departments standard operating procedures (SOPs) as opposed to standard operating guidelines (SOGs)?

A

SOPs are specific; SOGs are not.

199
Q

A fireground management system that addresses procedures for controlling personnel, facilities, equipment, and communications and is designed to be expanded as needed is the:

A

Incident Command System.

200
Q

What are guides to decision making within the organization?

A

Policies.

201
Q

One of the major advantages of an Incident Management System (IMS) is that it allows agencies to communicate using common:

A

Terminology.

202
Q

During the response phase of an emergency incident, two aspects of a property are particularly important. One of those is building layout and the other is:

A

Access information.

203
Q

____ can be used to determine the location of a call placed on a cell phone:

A

Global Positioning System.

204
Q

Once separated from your crew, to find a safe haven, you should:

A

Breach an interior/exterior wall to escape.`

205
Q

A safe haven is:

A

A temporary location that provides refuge while awaiting rescue.

206
Q

If you became trapped by a floor collapse inside a burning structure, where would be the best safe haven?

A

A void adjacent to an exterior wall.

207
Q

A personnel accountability system tracks all firefighters:

A

Working in the hazard zone.

208
Q

What is one basic method for staying oriented inside a low visibility environment?

A

Staying in contact with the hose line.

209
Q

When descending stairs in a smoke charged structure, a firefighter should:

A

Move downward on hands and knees, feet first.

210
Q

If you became trapped inside a burning building, which would be the best safe haven?

A

A room with a door and a window.

211
Q

A ____ helps the Incident commander know who is on the fireground and where firefighters are located.

A

Personnel Accountability.

212
Q

One purpose of a Personnel Accountability Report (PAR) is to:

A

Identify trapped or injured firefighters.

213
Q

An important benefit of using a Personnel Accountability System is:

A

Knowing who is on the fireground.

214
Q

Which statement regarding operations in a fire building with limited visibility is true?

A

Crawling allows firefighters to stay below layers of hot gasses.

215
Q

To ensure safety at the emergency scene:

A

Team members should enter together, work together, and leave together.

216
Q

Which is true regarding smoke?

A

The denser the smoke, the more fuel it contains.

217
Q

Personnel ____ systems provide for the tracking of members at an emergency scene:

A

Accountability.

218
Q

Team members working in a hazardous area should maintain contact with each other at all times through voice, vision or ____ contact.

A

Physical.

219
Q

A firefighters who is lost in a structure and finds a firehose should remember.

A

The male coupling indicates the direction to the exit.

220
Q

The most important reason for team integrity in firefighting operations is:

A

Safety of Personnel.

221
Q

Which action is acceptable if a fire is coming at you and you need to retreat to a safe haven:

A

Retreat to a room and shut the door behind you.

222
Q

Which is true regarding crawling in limited vision?

A

It allows firefighters to feel the floor in front of them with a tool.

223
Q

In the term LUNAR, the L stands for:

A

Location.

224
Q

The term for a roll call taken by a supervisor at an emergency incident is a:

A

Personnel Accountability Report (PAR).

225
Q

What do company officers do when the Incident Commander requests a personnel accountability report?

A

Confirms companies working in the hazard zones are safe and accounted for.

226
Q

The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) regulations require that when firefighters are inside a structure fire, at least ____ trained and equipped firefighters must be standing by outside:

A

2.

227
Q

In the term LUNAR, the R stands for:

A

Resources needed.

228
Q

One of the most important ways to pay attention to the surroundings in a hazardous environment is for the firefighter to maintain:

A

Situational awareness.

229
Q

Electrical tools without double insulated marking should have a three prong plug that requires:

A

The third prong connected to a ground while the tool is in use.

230
Q

Which is one of the normal observations that firefighters make to assist in determining fire cause?

A

How the fire reacted to water application.

231
Q

Firefighters should always remember how they gained entry into a building because:

A

The fire investigator may want to know.

232
Q

Prior to the fire investigators arrival, firefighters should ____ any evidence found.

A

Protect and Preserve.

233
Q

Fire officials investigating a building fire may prevent owners and occupants from reentering until:

A

They can be accompanied by fire department personnel.

234
Q

What should you do if you encounter an incendiary device that has not ignited during overhaul?

A

Notify the company officer and others in the area immediately.

235
Q

Following a fire of suspicious origin, the firefighter should:

A

Leave suspected evidence where it is found.

236
Q

The first link in the chain of custody of physical evidence of a fire is frequently the:

A

Firefighter who discovered the evidence.

237
Q

Initial recognition and preservation of evidence is the responsibility of the:

A

Firefighter.

238
Q

Once a fire investigator has completed the work required in gathering evidence and information from a fire scene, a thorough ___ can be done.

A

Overhaul.

239
Q

Clues that help determine where a fire started include:

A

a V pattern.

240
Q

A V pattern is best described as:

A

A design that smoke and fire makes on the interior and exterior walls of a fire building.

241
Q

Depth of Char is:

A

Related to the intensity of the fire at a particular location.

242
Q

When removing evidence from a scene, the evidence should be:

A

Properly sealed, labeled and preserved.

243
Q

Which statement regarding fire cause determination is correct?

A

A firefighter is an important link in the chain of fire cause determination.

244
Q

Read the following statements regarding fire department actions to preserve evidence during overhaul and select the correct answers from choices A to C.

A) If possible, the investigator should look at the fire area before overhauling begins.

B) Evidence located during overhaul should be left where found, untouched and undisturbed until the investigator examines it.

C) It is the responsibility of the firefighter to make sure evidence to be removed from the scene should be properly identified, documented, photographed, packed, and placed in a secure location.

A

Statements A and B are true, Statement C is false.

245
Q

When investigation a fire, there are three types of evidence, including:

A

Circumstantial evidence.

246
Q

Read the following statements regarding discovery and preservation of evidence and select the correct answer from choices A through C.

A) Firefighters have a responsibility to preserve evidence that could indicate the origin or cause of fire.

B) Evidence discovered should be left in place and protected, and a company officer or the fire investigator should be notified immediately.

C) Evidence is most often found during salvage and overhaul.

A

All three statements are true.

247
Q

Which can produce an inverted V pattern?

A

A flammable liquid poured along the base of a wall to set an intention fire.

248
Q

Which U.S. Supreme Court case held that “once in a building to extinguish a fire, firefighters may seize, without a warrant, evidence or arson that is in plain view?”

A

Michigan vs. Tyler

249
Q

A fire occurred at 2:00am and the fire investigator is not available until 9:00am. The simplest way to maintain legal control of the fire scene is to:

A

Secure the scene and leave a minimum of one firefighter on scene until the investigator arrives.

250
Q

Which is one of the normal observations that firefighters make to assist in determining fire cause?

A

Evidence of prior entry into the burning structure.

251
Q

Which statement regarding evidence preservation during overhaul is true?

A

If possible, the investigator should take a good look at an area before overhaul begins.

252
Q

Which would be a type or form of evidence that could be found at a fire scene?

A

Trailers.

253
Q

Which statement regarding preservation of evidence is correct?

A

Evidence is often found during the salvage and overhaul phases of a fire.

254
Q

Clues that help determine where a fire started include the area:

A

of heaviest fire damage.

255
Q

While mounting or dismounting the fire apparatus, the firefighter should:

A

Use the handrails.

256
Q

While responding, a firefighter should:

A

Always wear their seat belt.

257
Q

If a firefighter must exit an apparatus in contact with electrical wires, the firefighter should:

A

Jump clear of the apparatus, landing with both feet together.

258
Q

When dismounting fire apparatus at the emergency scene:

A

Wait until the vehicle comes to a complete stop.

259
Q

Fire fighters should make sure their personal protective equipment is dry before engaging in structural fire fighting because:

A

Water trapped in the fabric can cause steam burns in fire conditions.

260
Q

If apparatus sirens and noise levels exceed ____ decibels, firefighters should wear hearing protection.

A

90.

261
Q

One requirement of structural firefighting gloves is that they must:

A

meet the applicable NFPA standard.

262
Q

During dismount upon arrival at the emergency scene:

A

Watch for hazards.

263
Q

The most common danger that the firefighter experiences occurs:

A

While riding the apparatus to and from emergency calls.

264
Q

Wearing damp or wet clothing:

A

Can lead to reduced thermal resistance and burns.

265
Q

Personal protective equipment provides a ____ level of protection to firefighters:

A

Minimum.

266
Q

Failure to wear your personal protective equipment can lead to:

A

Injury.

267
Q

Read the following statements and choose the correct answer from alternatives A to C below.

A) Firefighters are prohibited from riding anywhere on the outside of the apparatus.

B) Firefighters should use steps and handrails when mounting and dismounting an apparatus.

C) Firefighters should wear hearing protection when noise is above 50 decibels.

A

Statements A and B are true; statement C is false.

268
Q

Which is a hazard associated with riding fire apparatus?

A

Unsecured equipment in the crew compartment.

269
Q

Which is a hazard associated with riding fire apparatus?

A

Holding onto the side of the moving vehicle.

270
Q

When should you don personal protective equipment not donned prior to mounting the apparatus?

A

After arriving at the incident scene.

271
Q

Read the following statements, then select the correct answer from alternatives A to C below.

A) Firefighters should use handrails when mounting or dismounting the apparatus.

B) Firefighters should use handrails when dismounting an aerial apparatus that is close to electrical wires.

C) Firefighters are allowed to stand inside an enclosed cab while the apparatus is moving.

A

Statement A is true; Statement B and C are false.

272
Q

What is one of the components of the layered protection system in structural personal protective equipment?

A

Thermal barrier.

273
Q

Which is a safety practice to be followed while responding to an emergency?

A

Properly fastening seat belts before the apparatus begins to move.

274
Q

The purpose for the use of a drag rescue decide is to:

A

Rescue a downed firefighter.

275
Q

A disadvantage in wearing gloves that meet National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) standards for structural firefighting is?

A

Reduced Dexterity.

276
Q

Which is prohibited practice while responding to an emergency call?

A

Holding on to the crossbar while standing on the rear step during response.

277
Q

Which statement regarding work uniforms is correct?

A

National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) 1975 standard outlines manufacturers guidelines and requirements.

278
Q

Which is a prohibited practice while responding to an emergency call?

A

Unfastening your seat belt to retrieve equipment.

279
Q

Which is a prohibited practice while responding to an emergency call?

A

Dressing while the apparatus is responding.

280
Q

When mounting fire apparatus, always:

A

Have at least one hand firmly grasping a hand hold, and at least one foot firmly placed on a foot surface.

281
Q

Noise levels above ____ dB can cause permanent hearing damage after a short duration exposure.

A

90 dB or more.

282
Q

Firefighters should don their personal protective equipment (PPE):

A

Before mounting the fire apparatus.

283
Q

An advantage to wearing gloves that meet National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) standards for structural firefighting is:

A

Thermal protection.

284
Q

Following notification of an emergency response, when should firefighters don personal protective equipment?

A

Prior to mounting the apparatus.

285
Q

Which is true regarding personal protective clothing (PPE)?

A

It requires firefighters to wear the most appropriate PPE for the hazard they face.

286
Q

Which is true regarding structural fire helmets?

A

They must have ear flaps or neck covers.

287
Q

With respect to the protective firefighter hood:

A

The self contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) facepiece must be secured before the hood is pulled over it.

288
Q

Which is true regarding the firefighter turnouts?

A

Wearing personal protective equipment (PPE) increases the risk for heat stress.

289
Q

Newer turnout coats are supplied with a loop to permit a rescuer to grab and drag a downed firefighter. This feature is called?

A

Drag rescue device.

290
Q

When operating at an emergency scene, firefighters must wear”

A

Personal Protective Equipment suitable to that incident.

291
Q

Three important factors in ground cover firefighting are fuel, weather, and:

A

Topography.

292
Q

Brush, hanging moss, and upright fuels over six feet describe:

A

Aerial fuels.

293
Q

A fire shelter is:

A

Last resort protective device for firefighters.

294
Q

Which helps when protecting exposures in a wildland fire?

A

Homeowners maintenance of defensible space.

295
Q

A direct attack on a wildland fire is initiated:

A

On its leading/burning edge.

296
Q

What most directly effects the growth of a wildland fire?

A

Weather conditions and topography.

297
Q

Which statement regarding wildland firefighting is true?

A

A fire burns faster uphill than it does downhill.

298
Q

In a wildland fire, which is an effective way to protect exposures?

A

Applying compressed air foam to the vegetation or structure.

299
Q

In wildland firefighting, the term anchor point refers to:

A

A safe location from which to begin line construction on a wildland fire.

300
Q

A suppression action taken by a firefighter around the perimeter of a wildland fire is called:

A

Direct attack.

301
Q

A fire caused by flying embers, that starts outside the perimeter of the main fire, is called a ____ fire.

A

Spot.

302
Q

When attacking wildland fires, the anchor point may be established:

A

At the edge of the fire.

303
Q

Aspect is the:

A

Direction a slope faces.

304
Q

In wildland fires, roots are ____ fuels.

A

Subsurface.

305
Q

The wildland fire term, origin, is best described as:

A

Where a fire started.

306
Q

The three of the most important factors that affect wildland firefighting are:

A

Fuel, weather and topography.

307
Q

Into what groups or types are wildfire fuels generally classified?

A

Subsurface, Surface and Aerial.

308
Q

The wildland fire term, Spot fire, is best described as:

A

The hottest part of a fire that spreads rapidly.

309
Q

The wildland term, heel, is best described as:

A

Opposite from the head.

310
Q

What type of fuel is usually present in ground cover fires?

A

Fine.

311
Q

Surface fuels are involved in what type of fire?

A

Ground cover.

312
Q

How high up do fuels have to be in order to be considered aerial fuels?

A

More than six feet.

313
Q

Why do compact fuels burn more slowly than less compact fuels?

A

Air cannot circulate as freely around the more compact fuels.

314
Q

What is the term for fuels that are close to each other or touch each other?

A

Continuity.

315
Q

How does the oxygen requirement of the fire triangle differ for wildland fires as opposed to structure fires?

A

Unlike most structure fires, wildland fires have unlimited oxygen available.

316
Q

What are the two weather conditions that most influence wildland fires?

A

Moisture and wind.

317
Q

Relative humidity is the ratio of the amount of water vapor present in the air compared to:

A

the maximum amount the air can hold at a given temperature.

318
Q

What relationship is there between the relative humidity and the dryness of the vegetative fuels in an area?

A

When the relative humidity is low the fuels dry out.

319
Q

What happens to the relative humidity as the temperature warms up during the day?

A

It goes down.

320
Q

What effect does a built barrier, such as a highway, have on a wildland fire?

A

It makes it easier to contain the fire.

321
Q

In a wildland fire, long, narrow extensions that projects out from the head of the fire are called a:

A

Finger.

322
Q

The burned area of a wildland fire is called the:

A

Black area.

323
Q

The combination hoe and rake tool is called a:

A

McLeod tool.

324
Q

Which is a major consideration in wildland fire development?

A

Relative humidity.

325
Q

Most ground cover fires are extinguished by:

A

Backpack pumps and small hose lines.

326
Q

What does the C in LCES stand for?

A

Communication.

327
Q

Removing fuel with hand tools in the face of an advancing fire is known as:

A

Constructing a fire line.

328
Q

How are wildland fuels classified?

A

Fine or Heavy.

329
Q

What type of fuel is ground duff?

A

Fine.

330
Q

Controlling and extinguishing wildland and ground cover fires with hand tools:

A

Removes the fuel.

Training Division (3 decks)

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