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Imaging applications > test 2 radiation and units, radiobiology, radiocarcinogenics, pregnancy, personnel monitoring, QA and CSP > Flashcards

test 2 radiation and units, radiobiology, radiocarcinogenics, pregnancy, personnel monitoring, QA and CSP Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the term Radiation.

A

the emission or transmission of energy in the form of waves or particles.

May also refer to the energy, waves or particles being irradiated.

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2
Q

From the following list, which four (4) are examples of Electromagnetic Radiation?

a. radio waves b. alpha radiation
c. visible light d. nuclear fission
d. xrays f. sound waves
g. gamma waves- h. seismic waves

A

a. radio waves
c. visible light
d. xrays
g. gamma waves-

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3
Q

The electromagnetic spectrum is divided into two categories. What are they?

A

Non ionising radiation

Ionising radiation

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4
Q

From the following list, which four (4) effects would be seen in exposure of living tissue to ionising radiation?

a. cancer b. hypothermia
c. mutation d. epistaxis
e. death f. radiation sickness

A

a. cancer
c. mutation
e. death
f. radiation sickness

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5
Q 
Categorise to the following sources of ionising radiation by completing the table:  artificial or background 
Computer Tomography
Terrestrial
Cosmic Radiation
Consumer Products
Radon
Conventional radiography
A 
Computer Tomography= A
Terrestrial=B
Cosmic Radiation=B
Consumer Products=A
Radon=B
Conventional radiography=A
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6
Q 
Exposure due to the ingestion of foods containing 40K is an example of:
A)cosmic radiation
B)nuclear medicine
C)terrestrial radiation
D)internal radiation
A

internal radiation

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7
Q 
In the USA in 2006, the amount of medical exposure accounted for how much of the total exposure:
A)12%
B)25%
C)48%
D)80%
A

48%

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8
Q 
Where would you expect the highest levels of cosmic radiation?
A)Equator
B)Tropic of cancer
C)Tropic of Capricorn
D)North or South Poles
A

D)North or South Poles

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9
Q

What is absorbed dose?
A)Measure of the quantity of radiation produced in air.
B)Energy transferred from ionising radiation per unit mass of irradiated material.
C)Method of taking in to account the ability of different radiations to produce different amounts of damage to living tissue.
D)Method of converting a non-uniform radiation dose to a dose as though the whole body was exposed.

A

B)Energy transferred from ionising radiation per unit mass of irradiated material.

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10
Q

What is effective dose?
A)Measure of the quantity of radiation produced in air.
B)Energy transferred from ionising radiation per unit mass of irradiated material.
C)Method of taking in to account the ability of different radiations to produce different amounts of damage to living tissue.
D)Method of converting a non-uniform radiation dose to a dose as though the whole body was exposed.

A

D)Method of converting a non-uniform radiation dose to a dose as though the whole body was exposed.

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11
Q

What is equivalent dose?
A)Measure of the quantity of radiation produced in air.
B)Energy transferred from ionising radiation per unit mass of irradiated material.
C)Method of taking in to account the ability of different radiations to produce different amounts of damage to living tissue.
D)Method of converting a non-uniform radiation dose to a dose as though the whole body was exposed.

A

C)Method of taking in to account the ability of different radiations to produce different amounts of damage to living tissue.

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12
Q 
The SI unit for absorbed dose is:
A)gray
B)half value thickness
C)sievert
D)bequerel
A

gray

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13
Q

Please match the appropriate radiation weighting factor to the radiation type:
Neutrons 1
X-rays 2
Alpha particles 5
Protons 20

A

Neutrons 5
X-rays 1
Alpha particles 20
Protons 2

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14
Q 
The SI unit for Equivalent dose is:
A)sievert
B)roentgens
C)gray
D)coulombs per kilogram
A

A)sievert

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15
Q 
Please match the appropriate radiation quantity to its abbreviation:
Absorbed dose       E
Exposure                 X
Effective dose         D 
Equivalent dose      H
A

Absorbed dose D
Exposure X
Effective dose A
Equivalent dose H

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16
Q 
Which of the following takes into account the potential harm or risk to an individual or offspring, e.g. induction of cancer and hereditary effects?
A)Exposure
B)Absorbed dose
C)Equivalent dose
D)Effective dose
A

D)Effective dose

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17
Q 
Which of the following tissues is considered to have the highest risk factor?
A)Colon
B)Bone surface
C)Thyroid
D)Gonads
A

A)Colon

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18
Q 
Which of the following tissues is considered to have the lowest risk factor?
A)Colon
B)Bone surface
C)Thyroid
D)Gonads
A

B)Bone surface

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19
Q 
The ICRP tissue weighting factors are based on the \_\_\_\_\_\_ of ionising radiation?
A)somatic effects
B)teratogenic effects
C)deterministic 
D)stochastic effects
A

D)stochastic effects

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20
Q 
What is the SI unit for dose area product?
A)mGy.cm2
B)Gy.cm2
C)mGy.m2
D)mSv.m2
A

A)mGy.cm2

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21
Q 
What does KERMA mean?
A)The absorbed dose in a total vacuum
B)Kinetic energy released in matter
C)Kinetic energy absorbed by direct ionisation
D)Linear energy transfer in air
A

B)Kinetic energy released in matter

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22
Q 
What is not a source of background radiation?
A)Cosmic rays
B)Radon and Thoron
C)Consumer products
D)Terrestrial
A

C)Consumer products

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23
Q 
What is not a radioactive by-product produced through the process of uranium decaying into lead?
A)Radon
B)Bismuth
C)Thoron
D)Tungsten
A

D)Tungsten

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24
Q 
An example of an artificial radiation source is?
A)Terrestrial radiation
B)Cosmic radiation
C)Radon and Thoron
D)None of the above
A

D)None of the above

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25
Q 
An example of an artificial radiation source is?
A)Medical imaging
B)Building materials
C)Smoking
D)All of the above
A

D)All of the above

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26
Q 
In the USA 2006 radiation survey, the largest contributor to background radiation was:
A)Radon & Thoron
B)Terrestrial radiation
C)Cosmic radiation
D)Internal exposure
A

A)Radon & Thoron

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27
Q 
Which of the following is not a radiation quantity/unit?
A)Equivalent dose
B)Efficient dose
C)Exposure
D)Effective dose
A

B)Efficient dose

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28
Q

Stochastic effects are usually associated with high dose radiation levels of exposure resulting in cell mutation of death and/or degenerative changes in the tissues exposed.

True
False

A

False. (This describes deterministic effect)

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29
Q 
The effects of ionising radiation on humans and other living tissue is the result of interactions at the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ level.
A)quantum
B)atomic
C)microscopic
D)macroscopic
A

B)atomic

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30
Q

How would you express what is the lethal dose that would kill fifty percent of the exposed population in thirty days?

A)50 mSv
B)LD 30/50
C)LD 50/30
D)50 LD 30

A

C)LD 50/30

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31
Q

A deterministic effect of radiation is:
A)Non-reversible.
B)A potential effect of long term exposure to radiation.
C)Related directly to a high dose of radiation.
D)Determined by the kVp selected at the time of exposure.

A

C) Related directly to a high dose of radiation

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32
Q

A stochastic effect of radiation is:
A)A random effect caused by low dose radiation exposure.
B)There is usually a threshold below which the effect will not occur.
C)Dependant on the amount of fluids in the body.
D)Determined by the type of radiation.

A

A) A random effect caused by low dose radiation exposure.

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33
Q 
An example of stochastic effect is:
A)Neurovascular syndrome
B)Cataracts
C)Acute radiation sickness
D)Radiation induced leukaemia
A

D)Radiation induced leukaemia

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34
Q 
The principle effect behind the ALARA principle is:
A)somatic
B)deterministic
C)stochastic
D)prodromal
A

C)stochastic

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35
Q

Match the following classifications with their descriptions

look at review powerpoint radiobiology question 8

A

Match the following classifications with their descriptions

look at review powerpoint radiobiology question 8

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36
Q 
According to target theory, cell death will only occur if the target molecule is inactivated.  What is the target molecule?
A)DNA
B)glucose
C)collagen
d)melatonin
A

A)DNA

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37
Q 
The response of tissue to radiation is principally a function of which of the following?
A)fractionation
B)LET
C)dose
D)RBE
A

C)dose

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38
Q 
Which of the following is NOT an example of a deterministic effect?
A)Neurovascular syndrome
B)Cataracts
C)Acute radiation sickness
D)Radiation induced leukaemia
A

D)Radiation induced leukaemia

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39
Q 
The ionisation of DNA is a result of what type of interaction?
A)Direct
B)Indirect
C)Free Radicals
D)LET radiation
A

A)Direct

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40
Q 
The ionisation of water molecules can lead to the creation of?
A)LET Radiation
B)Carcinogens
C)Free radicals
D)Free energy
A

C)Free radicals

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41
Q 
The ionisation of water molecules can lead to the creation of?
A)LET Radiation
B)Carcinogens
C)Free radicals
D)Free energy
A

C)Free radicals

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42
Q

question 14 on radiobiology slide

A

question 14 on radiobiology slide

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43
Q 
The most sensitive stage of a cell for radiation damage is:
A)G1
B)S
C)G2
D)M
A

D)M

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44
Q 
The least sensitive stage of a cell for radiation damage is:
A)G1
B)S
C)G2
D)M
A

B)S

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45
Q

Match the cell type with their relative radiation sensitivity
Lymphocytes Low
Nerve Medium
Reproductive High

A

Lymphocytes High
Nerve Low
Reproductive Medium

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46
Q 
Which is not a type of DNA mutation?
A)Main-chain scission
B)Cross linking
C)Point lesion
D)Side-chain lesion
A

D)Side-chain lesion

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47
Q 
Radiation-induced damage in tissue:
A)is lesser in the presence of oxygen
B)is greater in the presence of oxygen 
C)results only in latent effects
Dis irreversible
A

B)is greater in the presence of oxygen

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48
Q 
The replacement of damaged cells in an organ with fibrotic scar tissue which compromises the function of the organ is an example of:
A)regeneration
B)repair
C)redistribution
D)tissue necrosis
A

B)repair

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49
Q

question 21 refer to radiobiology

A

question 21 refer to radiobiology

50
Q 
Which of the following is not one of the five (5) “R”s principles of fractionation that is used in radiation therapy.
A)redistribution
B)repair
C)repopulation
D)resonance
A

D)resonance

51
Q 
The exposure of high doses of radiation over brief intervals of time produces \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ effects.
A)acute
B)chronic
C)stochastic
D)fractionation
A

A)acute

52
Q 
A person exposed to a lethal dose of radiation in excess of 50 Gy will invariably die within 48 hours from complications from: 
A)Gastrointestinal syndrome
B) Hematopoietic syndrome
C) Neurovascular syndrome
D) Restless leg syndrome
A

C) Neurovascular syndrome

53
Q 
If a 20 Sv radiation dose was delivered to a person rapidly, the likely outcome would be?
A)No detectable damage to tissue
B)Some damage to sensitive tissue
C)Significant damage to tissue
D)Death within hours
A

D)Death within hours

54
Q 
The LD50/60 for humans is approximately?
A)1 – 2 Sv
B)3 – 5 Sv
C)6 – 8 Sv
D)9 – 11 Sv
A

B)3 – 5 Sv

55
Q 
The LD50/60 for humans with intensive medical care may be as high as?
A)1 – 2 Sv
B)3 – 5 Sv
C)6 – 8 Sv
D)9 – 11 Sv
A

C)6 – 8 Sv

56
Q 
The average annual NZ MRT occupational exposure is:
A)0.5 mSv
B)1 mSv
C)20 mSv
D)50 mSv
A

A)0.5 mSv

57
Q 
The annual background radiation in NZ averages:
A)8 mSv
B)4 mSv
C)2 mSv
D)1 mSv
A

C)2 mSv

58
Q

Match the ARS terms with their definition/descriptions
-Initial symptoms that can begin Latent
minutes to hours are exposure.
-Stage that may take weeks to Manifest illness
months.
-Like an incubation period where Prodromal
initial symptoms subside.
-Abrupt onset of moderate to severe Recovery
symptoms relevant to the underlying
organ system damage.

A

-Initial symptoms that can begin Prodromal
minutes to hours are exposure.
-Stage that may take weeks to Recovery
months.
-Like an incubation period where Latent
initial symptoms subside.
-Abrupt onset of moderate to severe Manifest illness
symptoms relevant to the underlying
organ system damage.

59
Q

What is fractionation?
A)Technique of giving large doses monthly for radiotherapy
B)Technique of giving one large dose for radiotherapy
C)Technique of giving small doses regularly for radiotherapy
D)None of the above

A

C)Technique of giving small doses regularly for radiotherapy

60
Q

Which statement best described hemopoietic syndrome?
A)Rapid onset of neurological and cardiac conditions leading to the loss of consciousness and death.
B)Direct damage to the GI tract making the body unable to absorb nutrients and leading to perforation
C)Another name for leukaemia
D)Radiation effects related to blood forming tissues, normally indicated by changed in blood cell counts.

A

D)Radiation effects related to blood forming tissues, normally indicated by changed in blood cell counts.

61
Q

Which describes what a point lesion DNA mutation is?
A)Lesion is another name for a benign growth.
B)Breakage of the backbone of a molecule or DNA stand.
C)A disruption of a single chemical bond which is not detectable but can cause malfunction within the cell.
D)When the side rail on a DNA strand is broken, it may slip and crosslink.

A

C)A disruption of a single chemical bond which is not detectable but can cause malfunction within the cell.

62
Q 
The most radiation sensitive cells in the body are those that are:
A) Have a low metabolic rate.
 B)Have a high division rate.
 C)Have no oxygen supply
 D)Poorly nourished.
A

B)Have a high division rate.

63
Q

What does the term LET – Linear Energy Transfer mean?
A) Intensity of radiation at a location is inversely proportional to the square of its distance from the source of radiation
B)thickness of absorber necessary to reduce an x-ray beam to half it’s original intensity
C)Effect of radiation that results from the production of free radicals
D)Measure of the rate at which energy is transformed from ionising radiation to tissue

A

D)Measure of the rate at which energy is transformed from ionising radiation to tissue

64
Q

Which statement does not describe the term stochastic effect?
A)At random
B)No safe threshold
C)The severity rather than the probability of the effect occurring, increases with radiation dose
D)Often takes a relatively long time to appear

A

C)The severity rather than the probability of the effect occurring, increases with radiation dose

65
Q 
Which of the following cells is least sensitive to the effects of ionising radiation
A)GI cells
B)Reproductive 
C)Lymphocytes
D)Nerve
A

D)Nerve

66
Q

Which of the following are carcinogenic agents?

A)radiation
B)pesticides
C)viruses
D)all of the above

A

D) all of the above

67
Q

Radiation expressed as 50 / 106 / 10mSv means?

A)50 deaths per 10 million per 10 millisieverts
B)50 deaths per 10 million per 10 microsieverts
C)50 deaths per million per 10 millisieverts
D)50 deaths per million per 10 microsieverts

A

A)50 deaths per 10 million per 10 millisieverts

68
Q

The main type of cancer observed in the radium clock/watch painters was?

A)thyroid
B)breast
C)leukaemia
D)bone

A

D)bone

69
Q

During pregnancy, the most sensitive time to radiation exposure for the unborn child is?

A)Conception to 7 weeks
B)8 – 13 weeks
C)14 – 25 weeks
D)26 weeks till birth

A

A)Conception to 7 weeks

70
Q

During the pre-implantation stage of the developing embryo the most significant risk is?

A)Childhood cancers
B)Mental retardation
C)Growth retardation
D)Prenatal death

A

D)Prenatal death

71
Q

Mental retardation of the developing embryo is an example of?

A)Stochastic effect
B)Somatic effect
C)Deterministic effect
D)Genetic effect

A

C)Deterministic effect

72
Q

Fatal childhood cancer is a risk of radiation exposure of the developing embryo. Which type of cancer accounts for about half of all childhood cancers?

A)skin
B)bone
C)thyroid
D)leukaemia

A

D)leukaemia

73
Q

The average New Zealand MRT occupational dose annually is 0.5mSv. This is equivalent to how many months of background radiation?

A)1 month
B)3 months
C)6 months
D)9 months

A

B)3 months

74
Q

At 2.5mSv, an AP lumbar radiograph is equivalent to how many months of background radiation?

A)9 months
B)12 months
C)15 months
D)18 months

A

C)15 months

75
Q

If radiation exposure of the developing embryo occurs during the foetal stage, growth retardation if likely to only be temporary?

TRUE
FALSE

A

False growth retardation is most likely to be permanent

76
Q 
List four studies that our knowledge about the effects of radiation come from?
1. 
2.
3.
4.
A

radium girls
harishima
chernobyl
Japanese Abomb

77
Q 
If a chest / Abdomen / Pelvis CT delivers 5.5 mSv of ionising radiation, this is equivalent to how many months of background radiation?
A)24 months
B)33 months
C)36 months
D)48 months
A

B)33 months

78
Q

In Sieverts, what is the threshold for radiation induced cancers?
____________________________ mSv

A

0.5mSv

79
Q

Match the stage of embryonic development with the lethal dose limits
Pre-implantation 2 – 3 Gy
Organogenesis 1.5 Gy
Foetal 1.0 Gy

A

Pre-implantation 1.0 Gy
Organogenesis 1.5 Gy
Foetal 2-3GY

80
Q 
What stage of embryonic development is there the highest risk from radiation exposure?
A)Neo-natal
B)Organogenesis
C)Foetal
D)Pre-implantation
A

D)Pre-implantation

81
Q 
What stage of embryonic development is there the highest risk from radiation exposure?
A)Neo-natal
B)Organogenesis
C)Foetal
D)Pre-implantation
A

B)Organogenesis

82
Q 
At what stage of embryonic development does radiation have an “all or nothing” effect?
A)Foetal stage
B)Pre-implantation stage
C)organogenesis
D)Weeks 15 - 25
A

B)Pre-implantation stage

83
Q

CSP 5 calls for signs to be displayed in the public areas of an imaging department, including in the changing rooms, saying what?

A)That this is a teaching department and that a student may be performing your radiography exam.
B)To inform reception if you have changed your address since your last visit.
C)To inform the MRT, nurse or doctor if you might be pregnant.
D)A list of all the MRTs and their qualifications.

A

C)To inform the MRT, nurse or doctor if you might be pregnant.

84
Q

A pregnant patient is brought in to the emergency department with a compound fracture of her left femur after being involved in a car accident. She is to be sent to CT and then straight in to theatre to control the bleeding and operate on the fracture. Who would approve the CT?

A)ED Consultant
B)Orthopaedic Consultant
C)Radiologist
D)Ob/Gyn Consultant

A

C)Radiologist

85
Q

What is the most correct process to follow when performing a radiological team on a heavily pregnant patient (37/40) to investigate if the patient her right wrist after a fall?

A)Put a lead apron in the patient’s lap.
B)Use an apron of 0.25mm lead equivalence to cover the patient’s abdomen.
C)Use an apron of 0.5mm lead equivalence to cover the patient’s abdomen.
D)Use an apron of 0.5mm lead equivalence to cover the patient’s chest.

A

C)Use an apron of 0.5mm lead equivalence to cover the patient’s abdomen.

86
Q

List three (3) steps or special attentions that an MRT can take when performing an x-ray on a pregnant patient?

1.
2.
3.

A

low radiation dose
minimum repeats
collimate to ROI only

87
Q

CSP 3 states that the holding of patients or IR’s shall NOT be performed by?

A)The same person each time
B)Pregnant personnel
C)Personnel under 18 years of age
D)All of the above

A

D)All of the above

88
Q

Match the following: Persons holding a patient or IR
- Anyone pregnant or under Most preferred
18 yrs of age
-Members of the public Less preferred
-Non Radiation Personnel Least preferred
-Radiation Personnel Never

A
  • Anyone pregnant or under Never
    18 yrs of age
    -Members of the public Most preferred
    -Non Radiation Personnel Least preferred
    -Radiation Personnel Less preferred
89
Q

CSP 5 states that “it should be assumed that a woman is __________ if she has clearly missed her most recent expected menstruations”?

A)Late
B)Not pregnant
C)Pregnant
D)Menopausal

A

C)Pregnant

90
Q

CSP 5 states that “where the foetus has been irradiated in the course of an x-ray examination of the mother, and dose to the foetus may exceed 5 mSv, a ________ shall estimate the dose involved and shall advise on the ensuing radiation risk”?

A)Radiologist
B)Obstetrics Consultant
C)Midwife
D)Qualified Health Physicist

A

D)Qualified Health Physicist

91
Q

At 75 kVp, a lead apron of 0.5mm lead equivalence provides ______ attenuation of the x-ray beam?

A)75%
B)90%
C)95%
D)99%

A

B)90%

92
Q

The waiting area in a department for pregnant patients waiting to receive an ultrasound should not also be shared with patients awaiting for what other type of imaging?

A)Diagnostic radiation
B)CT
C)MRI
D)Nuclear Medicine

A

D)Nuclear Medicine

93
Q

What is the lead equivalence minimum thickness of a gown used to cover a pregnant patient

A)0.05mm
B)0.25mm
C)0.50mm
D)1.00mm

A

C)0.50mm

94
Q

What is the lead equivalence minimum thickness of a gown used to cover a pregnant patient

A)0.05mm
B)0.25mm
C)0.50mm
D)1.00mm

A

C)0.50mm

95
Q

Which is not a requirement under CSP5 for monitoring Non Radiation Personnel & Members of the Public?

A)An effective dose of 1 mSv in any one year
B)An equivalent dose to the skin of 50 mSv over an 1cm2, regardless of the total area exposed, in any one year.
C)An equivalent dose of 15 mSv to the lens of either eye in any one year.
D)For women who declare themselves pregnant, a dose of 2 mSv at the surface of the abdomen over the remainder of the pregnancy.

A

A)An effective dose of 1 mSv in any one year

96
Q 
As per NZ Radiation Protect Regulations 1982, it is compulsory to monitor staff if they should receive in any period of one year a dose equivalent to, or exceeding \_\_\_\_\_\_ of the reference dose
A) 0.03
B) 0.1
C) 0.3
 D)0.5
A

C) 0.3

97
Q

A general MRT rostered to fluoroscopy for the day should generally wear?
A) One TLD badge at collar on their thyroid guard
B)One TLD badge at waist height, under their lead apron
C) One TLD badge at waist height under their lead apron And one at collar on their thyroid guard
D)One TLD badge at waist height under their lead apron AND one on the outside of their lead apron also worn at waist height.

A

C) One TLD badge at waist height under their lead apron And one at collar on their thyroid guard

98
Q

TLD personnel monitors use lithium fluoride (LiF) crystals. Why?
A) LiF can be disposed of in landfills
B) LiF has a Z number close to that of bone
C)LiF has Z number close to that of tissue
D) Because it will release light when it is exposed to a laser

A

C)LiF has Z number close to that of tissue

99
Q 
Lithium Fluroide (LiF) chips used in TLD badges can be read by exposing them to:
 A) Light
 B)Cold
 C)Heat
 D)Sound
A

C)Heat

100
Q

Give three advantages and three disadvantages for the use of TLD badges for personnel monitoring?

A

advantages
Cheap
Lightweight
Robust
Can just be mailed to centres
Re-useable
Disadvantages:
-Long delays between incident and results
-Requires specialist equipment to process the disc or ‘chip’
-The evidence is destroyed when the disc or ‘chip’ is progessed

101
Q

The filters on the TLD badge assist in determining the type of radiation that caused the exposure. What does a recording under the aluminium filter indicate?
A) Exposure to alpha particles
B)Exposure to beta particles
C)Indicates shorter / higher energy x-rays
D)Indicates longer / lower energy x-rays

A

D)Indicates longer / lower energy x-rays

102
Q 
The Radiation Protection Regulations 1982 state that in most cases the longest a badge can be issued for it?
A) 1 month
B)2 months
C)3 months
 D)6 months
A

C)3 months

103
Q 
The dosimetry reporting produced by ESR’s Personnel Dosimetry Service is quoted in?
 A) mGy
 B)mR
 C)mAs
 D)mSv
A

D)mSv

104
Q

ESR’s Personnel Dosimetry Services term Hp(10) can not be used to measure:
A)An effective dose of 20 mSv per year averaged over any five year period and 50 mSv in any one year
B)An equivalent dose of 500 mSv to the skin (at the nominal depth of 7 mg/cm2) averaged over 1 cm2, regardless of the total area exposed
C)An equivalent dose of 150 mSv to the lens of the either eye
D)An equivalent dose of 500 mSv to the hands and feet

A

B)An equivalent dose of 500 mSv to the skin (at the nominal depth of 7 mg/cm2) averaged over 1 cm2, regardless of the total area exposed

105
Q 
Optically Stimulated Luminescence uses \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ to obtain the measurement of radiation exposure:
A)Electricity
B)Cold
C)Heat
D)Laser
A

D)Laser

106
Q 
“Given that CSP5 dose limits are not measurable, an alternative quantity has been defined that can be used to provide a reasonable estimate of the dose limit quantities, under normal exposure conditions”.  This quantity is known as the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A)Personal dose equivalent
B)Personal dose effective
C)Professional dosimetry measurement
D)Productive dosimetry measurement
A

C)Professional dosimetry measurement

107
Q

Give two advantages and two disadvantages of Direct Ion Storage dosimeters?

A

Advantages
- Uses an ionisation chamber to produce instant results
-Electronic warnings can be implemented:
1. can have an audible alarm on the devise if dose exceeds limit.2. warning levels can also be incorporated into the computer application
-The USB version has a memory and uploads automatically upon connection to computer
Disadvantages:
-Cost
-Instrument strong but not indestructible
- If older LCD model, manual recording of dose is required

108
Q 
What is the maximum dose limit allowable to the lens of the eye for Radiation Personnel?
A)15 mSv
B)50 mSv
C)150 mSv
D)500 mSv
A

C)150 mSv

109
Q 
What is the not a type of personnel monitoring devise?
A)Thermoluminescent dosimeter
B)Optically Stimulated Luminescence
C)Geiger-Muller counter
D)Pocket dosimeter
A

C)Geiger-Muller counter

110
Q

Name four types of radiation personnel monitoring badges/devises that may be used to monitor workers radiation exposure?

A

TLD
Pocket dosimetry
Direct ion storage dosimeters
OSL

111
Q 
What is the equivalent dose that the hands and feet are allowed to receive in one year for Radiation Personnel?
 A)450 mSv
 B)500 mSv
 C)550 mSv
 D)550 Sv
A

B)500 mSv

112
Q 
What are the two filters in a TLD badge made out of?
 A)Aluminium and Plastic
 B)Aluminium and Copper
 C)Copper and Plastic
 D)Aluminium and Plastic
A

A)Aluminium and Plastic

113
Q 
What are the two filters in a TLD badge made out of?
 A)Aluminium and Plastic
 B)Aluminium and Copper
 C)Copper and Plastic
 D)Aluminium and Plastic
A

A)Aluminium and Plastic

114
Q 
CSP 5 requires that each x-ray facility has an appropriate QA programme in radiation protection.  List four (4) important concepts of a quality assurance programme.
1.
2.
3.
4
A

Acceptance testing
Control limits
Equipment logs
Reject/retake analysis

115
Q 
Which of the following is not part of a Quality Management programme
A)Quality Assurance
B)Quality Control
C)Quality Improvement
D)Quality Production
A

D)Quality Production

116
Q

Which of the following is not a definition of quality assurance
A)An all encompassing management programme that ensures excellence.
B)Planned actions necessary to provide adequate confidence that the service will satisfy requirements of quality.
C)The individual tests used to check that the performance of the technology and equipment meets expectations.
D)Continuing evaluation with a view to timely corrective measures and feedback.

A

C)The individual tests used to check that the performance of the technology and equipment meets expectations.

117
Q 
In complying with CSP5, what is the maximum percentage that a LBD can be out by?
A)1%
B)1.5%
C)5%
D)15%
A

B)1.5%

118
Q 
How is the CSP5 LBD compliance calculated?
A)SID/Outage, expressed as a percentage	
B)Outage/SID. Expressed as a percentage
C)Dose recorded at a distance of 1 metre
D)None of the above
A

A)SID/Outage, expressed as a percentage

119
Q

Which describes the term Quality Control?
A)The planned and systematic activities implemented in a quality system so that the requirements for a service will be fulfilled.
B)The observation techniques and activities used to fulfil requirements for quality.
C)The degree of excellence of something
D)Continuing evaluation with a view to timely corrective measures and feedback

A

B)The observation techniques and activities used to fulfil requirements for quality.

120
Q

From the following list indicate which are functions of the Office of Radiation Safety and which are functions of the National Centre for Radiation Science?
Measurement and Testing
Radiation Safety Training
Register of Licence Holders
Maintenance of the Codes of Safe Practice
Callibration of radiation measuring instruments
Policy and Regulations
Personnel Dosimetry Services
Register, importation, exportation, purchasing, selling, transportation and disposal of radioactive apparatus

A
  • Measurement and Testing =ORS
  • Radiation Safety Training=NCRS
  • Register of Licence Holders=ORS
  • Maintenance of the Codes of Safe Practice=ORS
  • Callibration of radiation measuring instruments=
  • Policy and Regulations=ORS
  • Personnel Dosimetry Services=NCRS
  • Register, importation, exportation, purchasing, selling, transportation and disposal of radioactive apparatus=NCRS
121
Q 
In addition to a QA programme each large imaging facility must undergo a radiation protection survey:
A)Every 6 months
B)Annually
C)Every 2 years
D)Every 10 years
A

C)Every 2 years

Imaging applications (4 decks)

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