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test 2 imaging applications (georgias) Flashcards

1
Q

In fibre optics, the principle of total internal reflection means incident light will ricochet from wall to wall along the insider of the conductor when what angle has been achieved?

A)A right angle
B)The critical angle
C)The incident angle
D)The refractive angle

A

B)The critical angle

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2
Q

Fibre optics have a core surrounded by an optical glass cladding. The core has what refractive index in relation to the cladding?

A)The same
B)Half of
C)Lower
D)Higher

A

D)Higher

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3
Q

A major advantage for the use of fibre optics over copper cables, is that:

A)Fibre optics have a higher capacity or bandwidth for information
B)Fibre optics are cheaper to produce and install
C)Fibre optics are water proof
D)Fibre optics cabling is more aesthetically pleasing

A

A)Fibre optics have a higher capacity or bandwidth for information

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4
Q

One of the main disadvantage for the use of fibre optics over copper cables, is that:

A)Fibre optics cables are heavier than copper
B)Fibre optic cables are not secure and can be ‘hacked’
C)The optical glass cladding must be cleaned regularly
D)Splicing and joining requires special tools and skills

A

D)Splicing and joining requires special tools and skills

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5
Q

The process used with fibre optics to maximise the bandwidth by using non-overlapping frequencies is called:

A)interlacing
B)refractive index
C)flux gain
D)multiplexing

A

D)multiplexing

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6
Q

In a single strand of fibre optics, the diameter of the core is larger than the thickness of the cladding?

True
False

A

False

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7
Q

Speed is another advantage for the use of fibre optics. At approximately what speed does the signal travel at inside a fibre optic?

A)200 kilometres per second
B)2, 000 kilometres per second
C)20, 000 Kilometres per second
D)200,000 kilometres per second

A

D)200,000 kilometres per second

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8
Q

An advantage of fibre optics is the speed at which the signal travels at inside the fibre. How is the signal sent down the fibre optic?

A)Sound waves
B)Electrical current
C)Light waves
D) Magnetic fields

A

C)Light waves

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9
Q

The Southern Cross network is a 28,900 submarine cable that connects, Australia, NZ, Fiji, Hawaii and the West Coast of the USA. It incorporates repeaters, to boost the signal, every _______________. Please select the correct answer

A)1 – 2 kilometres
B)40 – 70 kilometres
C)150 – 200 kilometres
D) 2,000 – 2,500 kilometres

A

B)40 – 70 kilometres

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10
Q

The number of lead panels that open and close in a single leaf collimator is:

A)1
B)2
C)4
D)8

A

c) 4

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11
Q

So based on your answer to question one, how many lead panels that open and close are there in a three layer, multi leaf collimator?

A)3
B)4
C)12
D)16

A

c) 12

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12
Q

Which from the following list is NOT a purpose / function of a collimator?

A)Define the size and shape of the x-ray beam
B)Increase the energy of the beam so that it is more penetrating
C)Reduce the effect of off-focus radiation
D)Improve image resolution by reducing the production of scatter radiation

A

B)Increase the energy of the beam so that it is more penetrating

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13
Q

Which is NOT a type of collimator?

A)Single leaf
B)Multi leaf
C)Two tiered
D)Diaphragm

A

C)Two tiered

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14
Q

Which of the following would an MRT be likely to alter first in order to prevent the production of scatter?

A)Reduce the kVp range
B)Reduce the amount of additional filtration
C)Reduce the body part thickness
D)Reduce the size of the collimated field

A

D)Reduce the size of the collimated field

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15
Q 
A single leaf collimator has a _ _ _ _ _ _ set of _ _ _ _ leaves that work together as _ _ _ _ _ _ _  / _ _ _ _ _ .
Pick from the following words:
OPPOSED
SINGLE
PAIRS
FOUR
DOUBLE
A

A SINGLE leaf collimator has a SINGLE set of FOUR leaves that work together as OPPOSED/PAIRS

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16
Q

Off-focus radiation is classified as scatter radiation.

TRUE
FALSE

A

False - off focused radiation is still classified as primary radiation

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17
Q

Unjumble the following word the relates to Collimators:

R E C Y D L I N

A

Cylinder

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18
Q

Unjumble the following word the relates to Collimators:

RSITE

A

Tiers

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19
Q

If you increased your collimated field from 20 x 20 cms to 25 x 25 cms, what is the percentage increase between collimated area 1 and collimated area 2?

A)20%
B)25%
C)56%
D) 70%

A

a) 20%

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20
Q

This picture is of a ________ type of collimator.

A)Single leaf
B)Multi leaf
C)Positive beam Limitation
D)Fixed shape or diaphragm

Refer to collimator power point question 11

A

d) Fixed shape or diaphragm

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21
Q

Raising the kVp

A)Increase the size of the electrons
B)Decreases the wavelengths in the beam
C)Increases the quantity of photons reaching the anode
D)Decreases quantum mottle in the image

A

b) Decreases the wavelengths in the beam

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22
Q

What piece of equipment may an MRT choose to use to even out the differences in thickness of the foot when performing a radiographic examination?

A)Filter
B)Grid
C)Sandbag
D)Sponge

A

A)Filter

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23
Q

The greater the potential difference across the cathode to anode

A)The greater the wavelength of the beam of radiation
B)The smaller wavelength of the beam of radiation
C)Greater collimation is required
D)Greater absorption can be expected

A

B)The smaller wavelength of the beam of radiation

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24
Q

If a material is absorbing radiation exponentially at 10% per unit thickness, the radiation intensity would decrease in the sequence

A)100%, 91%, 82.5%, 76%, 63.3%
B)100%, 90%, 80%, 70%, 60%
C)100%, 90%, 81%, 73%, 65%
D)100%, 81%, 64%, 49.5%, 36.76%

A

C)100%, 90%, 81%, 73%, 65%

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25
Q

Half Value Layer (HVL) is defined as a thickness of attenuator that will

A)Double x-ray quantity
B)Double x-ray quality
C)Half x-ray quality
D)Half x-ray quantity

A

D)Half x-ray quantity

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26
Q

The effectiveness of a filter is related to its

A)Lead equivalence
B)Aluminium equivalence
C)Tissue equivalence
D)Absorption equivalence

A

B)Aluminium equivalence

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27
Q

Which of the following statements is correct?

A)Using a filter cuts out the short wavelength x-rays completely
B)Increasing the mA also increases the shortest wavelength x-rays
C)Increasing the kVp increases the wavelength of the most intense x-rays
D)Using a filter reduces the number of longer wavelengths in the x-ray beam

A

d) Using a filter reduces the number of longer wavelengths in the x-ray beam

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28
Q

Which of the following is NOT a type of filtration used in x-ray production?

A)Additional
B)Compensatory
C)Inherent
D)Linear

A

D)Linear

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29
Q

What is inherent filtration?

A)A filter applied by an MRT to even out difference thickness of body tissue
B)An additional filter fitted to the x-ray machine to remove low energy x-rays
C)Photons from the useful beam
D)The filtration of the useful beam that takes place due to the permanent components of the x-ray tube

A

d) The filtration of the useful beam that takes place due to the permanent components of the x-ray tube

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30
Q

What is NOT a reason for the use of aluminium as a filter? It:

A)hardens the beam
B)is cheap and readily available
C)is efficient in removing low energy x-rays through photoelectric effect
D)removes all the high energy x-rays leaving only the low energy x-rays

A

d) Removes all the high energy x-rays leaving only the low energy x-rays

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31
Q

With age, inherent filtration tends to increase. Why?

A)Tungsten vaporises and is deposited inside the glass insert
B)As aluminium ages, it gets denser stopping more x-rays
C)There are only so many electrons that can be generated in the lifetime of the filament
D)The repeated heating and cooling of the oil makes it thicker, stopping more x-rays

A

a) Tungsten vaporises and is deposited inside the glass insert

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32
Q

The removable type of filters designed to selectively change the intensity of the x-ray beam and change the appearance on the image are called?

A)Inherent
B)Additional
C)Compensatory
D)Aluminium equivalence

A

C)Compensatory

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33
Q

Complete the sentence by deleting the incorrect words

Increasing filtration DECREASES / INCREASES the QUALITY / QUANTITY of the x-ray beam.

A

Increasing filtration INCREASES the QUALITY of the x-ray beam

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34
Q

What is the benefit to the patient of ‘hardening the beam’?

A

Hardening the beam reduces scatter and reduces the patient dose

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35
Q 
Name at least four (4) materials that COMPENSATORY filters may be composed from?
1
2
3
4
A

1) Aluminium
2) Copper
3) Acrylics
4) Tin

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36
Q

When using a focus grid:

A)The stripe should be face down against the IR
B)The grid must be used at a set distance
C)An extremity IR should be used
D)The grid can be angled in any direction

A

a) The stripe should be face down

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37
Q

Larger body parts create more interactions between x-rays and tissue, so more secondary radiation is created. What piece of equipment do MRTs use to reduce this reaching the IR?

A)A grid
B)A compensatory filter
C)An extremity IR
D)Lead to cover the patient’s gonads

A

A)A grid

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38
Q

The term grid ratio relates to:

A)The ratio of the number of grid lines per centimetre to the width of the grid.
B)The relationship between the thickness of the lead strips to the height of the interspace.
C)The relationship between the width of the interspace to it’s height.
D)The focal range of a focused grid to the SID use.

A

c) The relationship between the width of the interspace to its height

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39
Q

A secondary radiation grid is made up of hundreds of strips of ________ layered together with hundreds of strips of a radiolucent interspace material.

A)Plastic
B)Lead
C)Copper
D)Tungsten

A

B)Lead

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40
Q

What is the primary function of a grid?

A)To enable the MRT to use high exposures without harming the patient.
B)To reduce scatter reaching the IR and degrading the image.
C)To even out tissue densities on the resulting image
D)To ensure that the lead protection on the patient is effective.

A

b) To reduce the scatter reaching the IR and degrading the image

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41
Q

Lucy has taken an x-ray on a paediatric patient is the emergency department for a possible SUFE. While her exposure factors were correct, her image needed repeating due to an error with the grid.

What type of grid has Lucy used?

A

refer to grids powerpoint question 6

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42
Q

Lucy has taken an x-ray on a paediatric patient is the emergency department for a possible SUFE. While her exposure factors were correct, her image needed repeating due to an error with the grid.

What mistake has Lucy made with the grid?

A

refer to grids powerpoint question 7

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43
Q

You are about to go to the ward to x-ray a patient’s chest. Their previous image was taken at 85 kVp, 6 mAs, 180cm with no grid.
It looks to have a lot of scatter on it and the MRT informs you that the patient is in fact quiet large.

Using this information, you decide to use a grid for your x-ray. The grid you choose has a grid ratio of 8:1, a grid frequency of 50 lines per cm and a grid factor of 4.

Calculate the new exposure and show your workings…….

A

refer to grid power point question 8

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44
Q

Which of the following exposure factor manipulations DO NOT need to be considered when changing from a non-grid to a focus grid exposure?

A)SID
B)mAs
C)Focal spot size
D)kVp

A

C)Focal spot size

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45
Q

The type of grid which has tapered edges to lessen the impact of grid cut off is a:

A)Parallel grid
B)Prismatic grid
C)Crosscut grid
D)Focussed grid

A

B)Prismatic grid

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46
Q

Which was the most successful type of movement used in Bucky mechanisms in older x-ray machines to remove the appearance of grid lines from the radiograph?

A)Oscillating
B)Reciprocating
C)Variable motion
D)Single stroke

A

B)Reciprocating

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47
Q

The ideal material to construct the interspaces in a grid for use in digital radiography (DR) would be ___________________ .

However this would make the grid impossible to manufacture. Therefore the next best substitute to construct the interspaces in a grid for use in DR is __________________ .

A

Air

Alluminium

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48
Q

What is the equation to work out grid ratio?

A

Grid ratio = H/D

Height of the strips/ Width of the interspace

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49
Q

The term Grid Factor indicates

A)The distance a grid must be used at
B)The amount the kVp must be increased by
C)The percentage efficiency of the grid in absorbing scattered radiation
D)The amount the mAs must be increased by

A

d) The amount the mAs must be increase by

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50
Q

Would can help reduce the secondary radiation reaching the IR?

A)Increasing the SID
B)Reducing the SID
C)Increasing the SOD
D)Increasing the OID

A

D)Increasing the OID

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51
Q

Which of the following may still occur when correctly using a parallel grid?

A)Grid cut off may occur in the centre of the image
B)Grid cut off may occur at the very edges of the image
C)Quantum mottle may be caused in the region of interest
D)Grid cut off may occur throughout the entire image.

A

B)Grid cut off may occur at the very edges of the image

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52
Q

Complete the following statements by using the words below:

Grid _______ is the number of grid ______ per ________. High _______ of grid lines will show ________ distinct grid _______ on the image. The grid is said to be a ______ frequency grid. Low number of grid lines made by ________widths of _______ strips is more likely to cause ______ grid artefact on the image. This type of grid is said to be a ______ frequency grid. Low frequency grids will require less _____ as there are less grid strips to _____ the x-rays. Therefore using less _______ _____ than a high frequency grid.

A

refer to grids slide question 17

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53
Q

You have been asked to preform an AP x-ray on a patient the day after they have had a DHS. Yesterday when x-rayed in the same room using the 16:1 table bucky, the exposure was 70 kVp, 40 mAs, 1200mm SID. Today you have to x-ray the patient on a trolley so you will need to use the clip on grid 8:1. Your goal is to produce an AP image which near identical EI to yesterday using the same kVp and SID. Using the table above, what mAs will you use for the exposure?
Show your workings

A

refer to grids slide 18

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54
Q

According to this table at 90 kVp a 5:1 grid ratio needs a grid factor of 2.5 and a 12:1 grid ratio needs a grid factor of 4.Explain why does the grid factor increase as the grid ratio increases.

A

refer to grids slide 19

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55
Q

What part of the image intensifier converts the incident x-ray beam into visible light?

A)Output phosphor
B)Input phosphor
C)Anode
D)Photocathode

A

A) Output phosphor

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56
Q

The ratio of the number of light photons created at the output phosphor to the number of x-rays at the input phosphor is the definition of?
Number of output light photons Number of input light photons

A)Minification gain
B)Flux gain
C)Brightness gain
D)Focal Point

A

B)Flux gain

57
Q

The input phosphor used in an image intensifier uses:

A)Cesium and Antimony
B)Zinc cadmium
C)Cesium iodide
D)Amorphous silicon

A

C) Cesium iodide

58
Q

When magnification of an II image is performed, does the minification gains:

A)Remain the same
B)Increase
C)Decrease
D)Multiple by the magnification factor

A

C) Decrease

59
Q

What part of the image intensifier converts electrons into visible green light?

A)Output phosphor
B)Input phosphor
C)Anode
D)Photocathode

A

A)Output phosphor

60
Q

In order to produce an image with sufficient spatial resolution, which part of the image intensifier must have the smallest, very fine, crystal size?

A)Output phosphor
B)Input phosphor
C)Anode
D)Photocathode

A

A) Output phosphor

61
Q

What part of the image intensifier converts light into electrons?

A)Output phosphor
B)Input phosphor
C)Anode
D)Photocathode

A

D)Photocathode

62
Q

What are two disadvantages of the original fluoroscope that was designed by Thomas Edison?

A

Dim pictures
User was looking straight into the x-ray beams
High exposures to both user and patient

63
Q

The correct full name for the Image Intensifier is a

_ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ image intensifier
A

Electrostatic

64
Q

What are two advantages of the image intensifier over the fluoroscope?

A

Less dose

Brighter pictures so radiologists do not need to go into a dark room to adapt their eyes

65
Q

Write a short definition of the term PHOTOEMISSION

A

Release of electrons when stimulated by light

66
Q

The electrostatic lenses used in image intensifiers to narrow and focus the beam of electrons, are positively charge?

TRUE
or
FALSE

A

FALSE

67
Q

The diameter size of the output phosphor region in an image intensifier is:

A)0.25 mm
B)2.5 mm
C)25 mm
D)250 mm

A

C) 25mm

68
Q

If you were to change from a 400mm field of view to a 230mm field of view when using an image intensifier, the focal point would move:

A)Towards the input phosphor
B)Towards the output phosphor
C)Move upwards
D)Move downwards

A

B) Towards the output phosphor

69
Q

Magnification using an electrostatic image intensifier, is controlled by?

A)Changing the potential difference on the accelerating electrodes
B)Adjusting the amount of the output phosphor size that is used
C)Altering the mA component of the exposure
D)Adjusting the focal point of the electron beam

A

D)Adjusting the focal point of the electron beam

70
Q

Magnification using an electrostatic image intensifier, is controlled by?

A)Changing the potential difference on the accelerating electrodes
B)Adjusting the amount of the output phosphor size that is used
C)Altering the mA component of the exposure
D)Adjusting the focal point of the electron beam

A

D)Adjusting the focal point of the electron beam

71
Q

Which is not a requirement under CSP5 for monitoring Non Radiation Personnel & Members of the Public?
A)An effective dose of 1 mSv in any one year
B)An equivalent dose to the skin of 50 mSv over an 1cm2, regardless of the total area exposed, in any one year.
C)An equivalent dose of 15 mSv to the lens of either eye in any one year.
D)For women who declare themselves pregnant, a dose of 2 mSv at the surface of the abdomen over the remainder of the pregnancy.

A

d) For women who declare themselves pregnant, a dose of 2mSv at the surface of the abdomen over the remainder of the pregnancy.

72
Q 
As per NZ Radiation Protect Regulations 1982, it is compulsory to monitor staff if they should receive in any period of one year a dose equivalent to, or exceeding \_\_\_\_\_\_ of the reference dose
A) 0.03
 B)0.1
 C)0.3
 D)0.5
A

C)0.3

73
Q

Match the following: Non Radiation Personnel Dose Limits

  • An equivalent dose to the skin of ___ mSv over any 1 cm2, regardless of the total area exposed, in any one year.
  • An effective dose of ___ mSv in any one year
  • An equivalent dose of ___ mSv to the lens of either eye in any one year
A

An effective dose of 1 mSv in any one year

An equivalent dose to the skin of 50 mSv over any 1cm2, regardless of the total area exposed, in any one year.

An equivalent dose of 15 mSv to the lens of either eye in any one year

74
Q

A general MRT rostered to fluoroscopy for the day should generally wear?
A) One TLD badge at collar on their thyroid guard
B) One TLD badge at waist height, under their lead apron
C) One TLD badge at waist height under their lead apron And one at collar on their thyroid guard
D) One TLD badge at waist height under their lead apron AND one on the outside of their lead apron also worn at waist height.

A

b) One TLD badge at waist height, under their lead apron

75
Q

TLD personnel monitors use lithium fluoride (LiF) crystals. Why?
A)LiF can be disposed of in landfills
B)LiF has a Z number close to that of bone
C)LiF has Z number close to that of tissue
D)Because it will release light when it is exposed to a laser

A

c) LiF has a Z number close to that of tissue

76
Q 
Lithium Fluroide (LiF) chips used in TLD badges can be read by exposing them to:
A) Light
B)Cold
C)Heat
 D)Sound
A

A) Light

77
Q

Give three advantages and three disadvantages for the use of TLD badges for personnel monitoring?

A

Advantages
Cheap, Lightweight, Robust, Re-usable

Disadvantages
Long delays between being sent away and results, Requires specialist equipment to process, evidence is destroyed when the disc is progressed

78
Q

The filters on the TLD badge assist in determining the type of radiation that caused the exposure. What does a recording under the aluminium filter indicate?
A)Exposure to alpha particles
B) Exposure to beta particles
C)Indicates shorter / higher energy x-rays
D) Indicates longer / lower energy x-rays

A

c) Indicates shorter / higher energy x-rays

79
Q 
The Radiation Protection Regulations 1982 state that in most cases the longest a badge can be issued for it?
 A) 1 month
 B)2 months
 C)3 months
 D)6 months
A

C)3 months

80
Q 
The dosimetry reporting produced by ESR’s Personnel Dosimetry Service is quoted in?
A) mGy
 B)mR
 C)mAs
 D)mSv
A

D)mSv

81
Q

ESR’s Personnel Dosimetry Services term Hp(10) can not be used to measure:
A)An effective dose of 20 mSv per year averaged over any five year period and 50 mSv in any one year
B)An equivalent dose of 500 mSv to the skin (at the nominal depth of 7 mg/cm2) averaged over 1 cm2, regardless of the total area exposed
C)An equivalent dose of 150 mSv to the lens of the either eye
D)An equivalent dose of 500 mSv to the hands and feet

A

b) An equivalent dose of 500 mSv to the skin (at the nominal depth of 7 mg/cm2) averaged over 1cm2, regardless of the total area exposed

82
Q 
Optically Stimulated Luminescence uses \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ to obtain the measurement of radiation exposure:
A)Electricity
B)Cold
C)Heat
D)Laser
A

D)Laser

83
Q 
“Given that CSP5 dose limits are not measurable, an alternative quantity has been defined that can be used to provide a reasonable estimate of the dose limit quantities, under normal exposure conditions”.  This quantity is known as the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A)Personal dose equivalent
B)Personal dose effective
C)Professional dosimetry measurement
D)Productive dosimetry measurement
A

Review power point personnel monitoring

question 13

84
Q

Give two advantages and two disadvantages of Direct Ion Storage dosimeters?

A

Advantages
Uses ionisatioin chamber to produce instant results
USB version has a memory and uploads automatically when connected to a computer
Disadvantages
expensive
Strong but not indestructible

85
Q 
What is the maximum dose limit allowable to the lens of the eye for Radiation Personnel?
A)15 mSv
B)50 mSv
C)150 mSv
D)500 mSv
A

c) 150mSv

86
Q 
What is the not a type of personnel monitoring devise?
A)Thermoluminescent dosimeter
B)Optically Stimulated Luminescence
C)Geiger-Muller counter
D)Pocket dosimeter
A

C)Geiger- Muller counter

87
Q 
Name four types of radiation personnel monitoring badges/devises that may be used to monitor workers radiation exposure?
1.
2.
3.
4.
A
  1. TLD badges
  2. Direct ion storage dosimeters
  3. OSL
  4. Pocket dosimetry
88
Q 
What is the equivalent dose that the hands and feet are allowed to receive in one year for Radiation Personnel?
 A)450 mSv
 B)500 mSv
 C)550 mSv
 D)550 Sv
A

b) 500 mSv

89
Q 
What are the two filters in a TLD badge made out of?
A) Aluminium and Plastic
 B)Aluminium and Copper
 C)Copper and Plastic
 D)Aluminium and Plastic
A

a) Aluminium and Plastic

90
Q

Stochastic effects are usually associated with high dose radiation levels of exposure resulting in cell mutation of death and/or degenerative changes in the tissues exposed.
True
False. (This describes deterministic effect)

A

False. (This describes deterministic effect)

91
Q

Stochastic effects are usually associated with high dose radiation levels of exposure resulting in cell mutation of death and/or degenerative changes in the tissues exposed.
True
False. (This describes deterministic effect)

A

False. (This describes deterministic effect)

92
Q

The effects of ionising radiation on humans and other living tissue is the result of interactions at the _________ level.

A

atomic

93
Q

How would you express what is the lethal dose that would kill fifty percent of the exposed population in thirty days?

A

LD 50/30

94
Q

A deterministic effect of radiation is:

A

Related directly to a high dose of radiation

95
Q

A stochastic effect of radiation is:

A

A random effect caused by low dose radiation exposure.

96
Q

An example of stochastic effect is:

A

Radiation induced leukaemia

97
Q

The principle effect behind the ALARA principle is:

A

stochastic

98
Q

QUESTION 8

A

refer to slide radicarcinogenics questions 8

99
Q

According to target theory, cell death will only occur if the target molecule is inactivated. What is the target molecule?

A

DNA

100
Q

The response of tissue to radiation is principally a function of which of the following?

A

dose

101
Q

Which of the following is NOT an example of a deterministic effect?

A

Radiation induced leukaemia

102
Q

The ionisation of DNA is a result of what type of interaction?

A

Direct

103
Q

The ionisation of water molecules can lead to the creation of?

A

Free radicals

104
Q

question 14

A

refer to pp radio carcinogenics qstion 14

105
Q

The most sensitive stage of a cell for radiation damage is:

A

M

106
Q

QUESTION 17

A

REFER TO PP RADIOCARCINOGENICS QUESTION 17

107
Q

Which is not a type of DNA mutation?

A

Side-chain lesion

108
Q

Radiation-induced damage in tissue:

A

is greater in the presence of oxygen

109
Q

The replacement of damaged cells in an organ with fibrotic scar tissue which compromises the function of the organ is an example of:

A

repair

110
Q

question 21

A

refer to pp radio carcinogenics question 21

111
Q

Which of the following is not one of the five (5) “R”s principles of fractionation that is used in radiation therapy.

A

resonance

112
Q

The exposure of high doses of radiation over brief intervals of time produces __________ effects.

A

acute

113
Q

A person exposed to a lethal dose of radiation in excess of 50 Gy will invariably die within 48 hours from complications from: .

A

Neurovascular syndrome

114
Q

If a 20 Sv radiation dose was delivered to a person rapidly, the likely outcome would be?

A

Death within hours

115
Q

The LD50/60 for humans is approximately?

A

3 – 5 Sv

116
Q

The LD50/60 for humans with intensive medical care may be as high as?

A

6 – 8 Sv

117
Q

The average annual NZ MRT occupational exposure is:

A

0.5 mSv

118
Q

The annual background radiation in NZ averages:

A

2 mSv

119
Q

QUESTION 30

A

refer to pp radio carcinogenics question 30

120
Q

What is fractionation?

A

Technique of giving small doses regularly for radiotherapy

121
Q

Which statement best described hemopoietic syndrome?

A

Radiation effects related to blood forming tissues, normally indicated by changed in blood cell counts.

122
Q

Which describes what a point lesion DNA mutation is?

A

A disruption of a single chemical bond which is not detectable but can cause malfunction within the cell.

123
Q

The most radiation sensitive cells in the body are those that are:

A

Have a high division rate.

124
Q

What does the term LET – Linear Energy Transfer mean?

A

Measure of the rate at which energy is transformed from ionising radiation to tissue

125
Q

Which statement does not describe the term stochastic effect?

A

The severity rather than the probability of the effect occurring, increases with radiation dose

126
Q

Which of the following cells is least sensitive to the effects of ionising radiation

A

Nerve

127
Q

Which of the following cells is least sensitive to the effects of ionising radiation

A

Nerve

128
Q

CSP 5 calls for signs to be displayed in the public areas of an imaging department, including in the changing rooms, saying what?

A)That this is a teaching department and that a student may be performing your radiography exam.
B)To inform reception if you have changed your address since your last visit.
C)To inform the MRT, nurse or doctor if you might be pregnant.
D) A list of all the MRTs and their qualifications.

A

c) To inform the MRT, nurse or doctor if you might be pregnant

129
Q

A pregnant patient is brought in to the emergency department with a compound fracture of her left femur after being involved in a car accident. She is to be sent to CT and then straight in to theatre to control the bleeding and operate on the fracture. Who would approve the CT?

A)ED Consultant
B)Orthopaedic Consultant
C)Radiologist
D)Ob/Gyn Consultant

A

C)Radiologist

130
Q

What is the most correct process to follow when performing a radiological team on a heavily pregnant patient (37/40) to investigate if the patient her right wrist after a fall?

A)Put a lead apron in the patient’s lap.
B)Use an apron of 0.25mm lead equivalence to cover the patient’s abdomen.
C)Use an apron of 0.5mm lead equivalence to cover the patient’s abdomen.
D)Use an apron of 0.5mm lead equivalence to cover the patient’s chest.

A

c) Use an apron of 0.5mm lead equivalence to cover the patient’s abdomen

131
Q

Give two (2) examples of practical steps that a pregnant MRT can take to minimise radiation dose to themself and the foetus?

1.
2.

A

Stay out of theatre

Not hold patients

132
Q

List three (3) steps or special attentions that an MRT can take when performing an x-ray on a pregnant patient?

1.
2.
3.

A

Lead gown
Colllimation
Minimum exposure

133
Q

CSP 3 states that the holding of patients or IR’s shall NOT be performed by?

A)The same person each time
B)Pregnant personnel
C)Personnel under 18 years of age
D)All of the above

A

d) All of the above

134
Q

Match the following: Persons holding a patient or IR

REFER to pp pregnancy question 7

A

refer to q7

135
Q

CSP 5 states that “it should be assumed that a woman is __________ if she has clearly missed her most recent expected menstruations”?

A)Late
B)Not pregnant
C)Pregnant
D)Menopausal

A

C)Pregnant

136
Q

CSP 5 states that “where the foetus has been irradiated in the course of an x-ray examination of the mother, and dose to the foetus may exceed 5 mSv, a ________ shall estimate the dose involved and shall advise on the ensuing radiation risk”?

A)Radiologist
B)Obstetrics Consultant
C)Midwife
D)Qualified Health Physicist

A

d) Qualified Health Physicist

137
Q

At 75 kVp, a lead apron of 0.5mm lead equivalence provides ______ attenuation of the x-ray beam?

A)75%
B)90%
C)95%
D)99%

A

c) 95%

138
Q

The waiting area in a department for pregnant patients waiting to receive an ultrasound should not also be shared with patients awaiting for what other type of imaging?

A)Diagnostic radiation
B)CT
C)MRI
D)Nuclear Medicine

A

B)CT

139
Q

What is the lead equivalence minimum thickness of a gown used to cover a pregnant patient

A)0.05mm
B)0.25mm
C)0.50mm
D)1.00mm

A

C)0.50mm

Imaging applications (4 decks)

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