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Imaging applications > Test 1 (georgias) > Flashcards

Test 1 (georgias) Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Stochastic effects are usually associated with high dose radiation levels of exposure resulting in cell mutation of death and/or degenerative changes in the tissues exposed.
    True
    Flase
A

False

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2
Q
  1. The effects of ionising radiation on humans and other living tissue is the result of interactions at the ________ level
    a. Quantum
    b. Atomic
    c. Microscopic
    d. Macroscopic
A

b. Atomic

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3
Q
  1. How would you express what is the lethal dose that would kill fifty percent of the exposed population in thirty days?
    a. 50mSv
    b. LD 30/50
    c. LD50/30
    d. 50LD30
A

c. LD50/30

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4
Q
  1. A deterministic effect of radiation is
    a. Non-reversible
    b. A potential effect of long term exposure to radiation
    c. Related directly to a high dose of radiation
    d. Determined by the kVp selected at the time of exposure
A

c. Related directly to a high dose of radiation

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5
Q
  1. A stochastic effect of radiation is
    a. A random effect caused by low dose radiation exposure
    b. There is usually a threshold below which the effect will not occur
    c. Dependant on the amount of fluids in the body
    d. Determined by the type of radiation
A

A random effect caused by low dose radiation exposure

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6
Q
  1. An example of stochastic effect is:
    a. Neurovascular syndrome
    b. Cataracts
    c. Acute radiation sickness
    d. Radiation induced leukaemia
A

d. Radiation induced leukaemia

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7
Q
  1. The principle effect behind the ALARA principle is
    a. Somatic
    b. Deterministic
    c. Stochastic
    d. Prodromal
A

c. Stochastic

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8
Q

Match the following classifications with their descriptions

Genetic

A

Effects appear in the offspring of an individual who received the
agent and the agent was encountered preconception

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9
Q

Match the following classifications with their descriptions

Somatic

A

The effects appear in the exposed individual

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10
Q

Match the following classifications with their descriptions

Tetratogenic

A

effects appear in the offspring of an individual who received the agent and the agent was encountered during the gestational period

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11
Q

According to target theory, cell death will only occur if the target molecule is inactivated. What is the target molecule?

a. DNA
b. Glucose
c. Collagen
d. Melatonin

A

a. DNA

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12
Q
  1. The response of tissue to radiation is principally a function of which of the following?
    a. Fractionation
    b. LET
    c. Dose
    d. RBE
A

c. Dose

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13
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT an example of a deterministic effect?
    a. Neurovascular syndrome
    b. Cataracts
    c. Acute radiation sickness
    d. Radiation induced leukaemia
A

d. Radiation induced leukaemia

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14
Q
  1. The ionisation of DNA is a result of what type of interactioin?
    a. Direct
    b. Indirect
    c. Free radicals
    d. LET radiation
A

a. Direct

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15
Q
  1. The ionisation of water molecules can lead to the creation of?
    a. LET radiation
    b. Carcinogens
    c. Free radicals
    d. Free energy
A

c. Free radicals

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16
Q
  1. The most sensitive stage of a cell for radiation damage is:
    a. G1
    b. S
    c. G2
    d. M
A

d. M

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17
Q
  1. The least sensitive stage of a cell for radiation damage is:
    a. G1
    b. S
    c. G2
    d. M
A

b. S

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18
Q
  1. Match the cell type with their relative radiation sensitivity
    a. Lymphocytes low
    b. Nerve Medium
    c. Reproductive High
A

a. Lymphocytes high
b. Nerve low
c. Reproductive medium

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19
Q
  1. Which is not a type of DNA mutation?
    a. Main-chain scission
    b. Cross linking
    c. Point lesion
    d. Side-chain lesion
A

d. Side-chain lesion

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20
Q

Radiation-induced damage in tissue:

a. Is lesser in the presence of oxygen
b. Is greater in the presence of oxygen
c. Results only in latent effects
d. Is irreversible

A

b. Is greater in the presence of oxygen

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21
Q
  1. The replacement of damaged cells in an organ with fibrotic scar tissue which comprises the function of the organ is an example of:
    a. Regeneration
    b. Repair
    c. Redistribution
    d. Tissue necrosis
A

b. Repair

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22
Q
  1. Which of the following is not one of the five R’s principles of fractionation that is used in radiation therapy?
    a. Redistribution
    b. Repair
    c. Re population
    d. Resonance
A

d. Resonance

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23
Q
  1. The exposure of high doses of radiation over brief intervals of time produces _____ effects?
    a. Acute
    b. Chronic
    c. Stochastic
    d. Fractionation
A

a. Acute

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24
Q
  1. A person exposed to a lethal dose of radiation in excess of 50Gy will invariably die within 48 hours of complications from:
    a. Gastrointestinal syndrome
    b. Haematopoietic syndrome
    c. Neurovascular syndrome
    d. Restless leg syndrome
A

c. Neurovascular syndrome

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25
Q
  1. If a 20 Sv radiation dose was delivered to a person rapidy, the likely outcome would be?
    a. No detachable damage to tissue
    b. Some damage to sensitive tissue
    c. Significant damage to tissue
    d. Death within hours
A

d. Death within hours

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26
Q
  1. The LD50/60 for humans is approximately?
    a. 1-2mSv
    b. 3-5mSv
    c. 6-8mSv
    d. 9-11mSv
A

b. 3-5mSv

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27
Q
  1. The LD50/60 for humans with sensitive medical care may be as high as?
    a. 1-2mSv
    b. 3-5mSv
    c. 6-8mSv
    d. 9-11mSv
A

c. 6-8mSv

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28
Q
  1. The average annual MRT occupational exposure is:
    a. 0.5mSv
    b. 1mSv
    c. 20mSv
    d. 50mSv
A

a. 0.5mSv

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29
Q
  1. The annual background radiation in NZ averages:
    a. 8mSv
    b. 4mSv
    c. 2mSv
    d. 1mSv
A

c. 2mSv

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30
Q
  1. Match the terms with their definition
    a)Latent
    Initial symptoms that can begin minutes to hours after exposure
    b)Manifest illness
    Stage that may take weeks to months
    Prodromal
    Like an incubation period where initial symptoms subside
    Recovery
    Abrupt onset of moderate to severe symptoms relevant to the underlying organ system damage
A

Latent = Like an incubation period where initial symptoms subside

Prodromal=Initial symptoms that can begin minutes to hours after exposure

Manifest illness= Abrupt onset of moderate to severe symptoms relevant to the underlying organ system damage

Recovery = Stage that may take weeks to months

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31
Q
  1. What is fractionation?
    a. Technique of giving large doses monthly for radiotherapy
    b. Technique of giving one large dose radiotherapy
    c. Technique of giving small doses regularly for radiotherapy
    d. None of the above
A

c. Technique of giving small doses regularly for radiotherapy

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32
Q
  1. Which statement best described haemopoietic syndrome?
    a. Rapid onset of neurological and cardiac conditions leading to the loss of consciousness and death
    b. Direct damage to the GI tract making the body unable to absorb nutrients and leading to perforation
    c. Another name for leukaemia
    d. Radiation effects related to blood forming tissues, normally indicated by change in
A

d. Radiation effects related to blood forming tissues, normally indicated by change in

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33
Q
  1. Which describes what a point lesion DNA mutation is?
    a. Lesion is another name for benign growth
    b. Breakage of the backbone of a molecule or DNA strand
    c. A disruption of a single chemical bond which is not detectable but can cause malformation within the cell
    d. When the side rail on a DNA strand is broken, it may slip and crosslink
A

c. A disruption of a single chemical bond which is not detectable but can cause malformation within the cell

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34
Q

The most radiation sensitive cells in the body are those that are:

a. Have a low metabolic rate
b. Have a high division rate
c. Have no oxygen supply
d. Poorly nourished

A

b. Have a high division rate

35
Q

What does the term LET- linear energy transfer mean?

a. Intensity of radiation at a location is inversely proportional to the square of its distance from the source radiation
b. Thickness of absorber necessary to reduce an x-ray beam to half its original intensity
c. Effect of radiation that results from the production of free radicals
d. Measure of the rate at which energy is transformed from ionising radiation to tissue

A

d. Measure of the rate at which energy is transformed from ionising radiation to tissue

36
Q

Which statement does not describe the term stochastic effect?

a. At random
b. No safe threshold
c. The severity rather than the probability of the effect occurring, increases with radiation dose.
d. Often takes a relatively long time to appear

A

c. The severity rather than the probability of the effect occurring, increases with radiation dose.

37
Q
  1. Which of the following cells is least sensitive to the effects of ionising radiation?
    a. GI cells
    b. Reproductive
    c. Lymphocytes
    d. Nerve
A

d. Nerve

38
Q
  1. Which of the following are carcinogenic agents?
    a. Radiation
    b. Pesticides
    c. Viruses
    d. All of the above
A

d. All of the above

39
Q
  1. Radiation expressed as 50/106/10mSv means?
    a. 50 deaths per 10 million per 10millisieverts
    b. 50 deaths per 10 million per 10 microsieverts
    c. 50 deaths per million per 10 millisieverts
    d. 50 deaths per million per 10 microsieverts
A

a. 50 deaths per 10 million per 10millisieverts

40
Q
  1. The main type of cancer observed in the radium clock/watch painters was?
    a. Thyroid
    b. Breast
    c. Leukaemia
    d. Bone
A

d. Bone

41
Q

During pregnancy, the most sensitive time to radiation exposure of the fetus is?

a. Conception to 7 weeks
b. 8-13 weeks
c. 14-25 weeks
d. 26 weeks till birth

A

a. Conception to 7 weeks

42
Q
  1. During the pre-implantation stage of the developing embryo the most significant risk is?
    a. Childhood cancer
    b. Mental retardation
    c. Growth retardation
    d. Prenatal death
A

d. Prenatal death

43
Q

Mental retardation of the developing embryo is an example of?

a. Stochastic effect
b. Somatic effect
c. Deterministic effect
d. Genetic effect

A

c. Deterministic effect

44
Q

Fatal childhood cancer is a risk of radiation exposure of the developing embryo. Which type of cancer accounts for about half of all childhood cancers?

a. mailinoma
b. leukimia
c. pancriatic cancer
d. Stomach cancer

A

b.leukimia

45
Q

At 2.5mSv, an AP lumbar radiograph is equivalent to how many months of background radiation?

a. 9 months
b. 12 months
c. 15 months
d. 18 months

A

c. 15 months

46
Q
  1. If radiation exposure of the developing embryo occurs during the foetal stage, growth retardation is likely to only be temporary?
    a. True
    b. False
A

b. False

47
Q
  1. List four studies that our knowledge about the effects of radiation come from?
    a.
    b.
    c.
    d.
A

a cancers
b radium girls
c Hirishima and Nagasaki (atomic bombs)
d Chernobyl

48
Q
  1. If a chest/abdomen/pelvis CT delivers 5.5mSv of ionising radiation, this is equivalent to how many months of background radiation?
    a. 24 months
    b. 33 months
    c. 36 months
    d. 48 months
A

b. 33 months

49
Q

Sieverts, what is the threshold for radiation induced cancers?
___________ mSv

A

1 (anything above 0)

50
Q
  1. What is the maximum latency time period that research indicates it may take for a solid radiation induced cancer to become apparent?
    a. 10 years
    b. 20 years
    c. 50 years
    d. 80 years
A

d. 80 years

51
Q 
49.	Match the stage of embryonic development with the lethal dose limits
Stage	                 LD
Pre-implantation	2-3mGy
Organogenesis	1.5Gy
Foetal	                1.0Gy
A

Pre implantation= 2-3mGy
Oranogenesis= 1.0 Gy
Foetal=1.5 Gy

52
Q
  1. What stage of embryonic development is there the highest risk from radiation exposure?
    a. Neo-natal
    b. Organogenesis
    c. Foetal
    d. Pre-implantation
A

d. Pre-implantation

53
Q
  1. At what stage of embryonic development does radiation have an “all or nothing” effect?
    a. Foetal stage
    b. Pre-implantation stage
    c. Organogenesis
    d. Weeks 15-25
A

b. Pre-implantation stage

54
Q
  1. CSP5 calls for signs to be displayed in the public area of an imaging department, including in the changing rooms, saying what?
    a. That this is a teaching department and that a student may be performing your radiography exam
    b. To inform reception if you have changed your address since the last visit
    c. To inform the MRT, nurse or doctor if you are pregnant
    d. A list off all the MRTs and their qualifications
A

c. To inform the MRT, nurse or doctor if you are

55
Q
  1. A pregnant patient is brought in to the emergency department with a compound fracture to her left femur after being involved in a car accident. She is to be sent to CT and then straight in to theatre to control the bleeding and operate on the fracture. Who would approve the CT?
    a. Ed consultant
    b. Orthopaedic consultant
    c. Radiologist
    d. Ob/Gyn consultant
A

c. Radiologist

56
Q
  1. What is the most correct process to follow when performing a radiological exam on a heavily pregnant patient (37/40) to investigate if the patient hurt her right wrist after a fall?
    a. Put a lead apron in the patients lap
    b. Use an apron of .25mm lead equivalence to cover the patients abdomen
    c. Use an apron of .50mm lead equivalence to cover the patients abdomen
    d. Use an apron of .50mm lead equivalence to cover the patients chest
A

Use an apron of .50mm lead equivalence to cover the patients abdomen

57
Q
  1. Give two examples of practical steps that a pregnant MRT can take to minimise radiation dose to themselves and the foetus?
    a.
    b.
A

A) Do not work in theatre

B) No holding

58
Q
  1. List three steps or special attentions that an MRT can take when performing an x-ray on a pregnant patient?
    a.
    b.
    c.
A

A) Pb protection or PA vs AP
B) Strict collimation
C) Use higher KV

59
Q
  1. CSP 5 states that the holding of patients or IR’s shall NOT be performed by?
    a. The same person each time
    b. Pregnant personnel
    c. Personnel under 18 years old
    d. All of the above
A

d. All of the above

60
Q 
Match the following: persons holding a patient or IR
Persons	
Anyone pregnant or under 18years old	
Most preferred
Members of the public	
Less preferred
Non-radiation personnel	
Least preferred
Radiation personnel	
never
A

Match the following: persons holding a patient or IR

Anyone pregnant or under 18years old
NEVER
Members of the public	
Most preferred
Non-radiation personnel	
Less preferred
Radiation personnel	
Least preferred
61
Q
  1. CSP 5 states that “it should be assumed that a women is _______ if she has clearly missed her most recent expected menstruations”?
    a. Late
    b. Not pregnant
    c. Pregnant
    d. Menopausal
A

c. Pregnant

62
Q
  1. CSP 5 states that “where the foetus has been irradiated in the course of an x-ray examination of the mother, and dose to the foetus may exceed 5mSv, a ______ shall estimate the dose involved and shall advise on the ensuring radiation risk”?
    a. Radiologist
    b. Obstetrics consultant
    c. Midwife
    d. Qualified health physicist
A

d. Qualified health physicist

63
Q
  1. What is the lead equivalence minimum thickness of a gown used to cover a pregnant patient?
    a. 0.05mm
    b. 0.25mm
    c. 0.50mm
    d. 1.00mm
A

c. 0.50mm

64
Q
  1. At 75kVp, a lead apron of 0.5mm lead equivalence, provides ______ attenuation of the x-ray beam?
    a. 75%
    b. 90%
    c. 95%
    d. 99%
A

c. 95%

65
Q
  1. The waiting area in a department for pregnant patients waiting to receive an ultrasound should not also be shared with patients awaiting for what other type of imaging?
    a. Diagnostic radiation
    b. CT
    c. MRI
    d. Nuclear medicine
A

a. Diagnostic radiation

66
Q
  1. Which is not a requirement under CSP5 for monitoring Non Radiation personnel & members of the public?
    a. An effective dose of 1mSv in any one year
    b. An equivalent dose to the skin of 50mSv over any 1cm2, regardless of the total area exposed, in any one year?
    c. An equivalent dose of 15mSv to the lens of either eye in any one year
    d. For women for declare themselves pregnant, a dose of 2mSv at the surface of the abdomen over the remainder of the pregnancy
A

d. For women for declare themselves pregnant, a dose of 2mSv at the surface of the abdomen over the remainder of the pregnancy

67
Q
  1. As per radiation protect regulations 1982, it is compulsory to monitor staff if they should receive in any period of one year a dose equivalent to, or exceeding ______ of the reference dose
    a. 0.03
    b. 0.1
    c. 0.3
    d. 0.5
A

d. 0.5

68
Q
  1. Match the following: Non Radiation personnel dose limits
    -An equivalent dose to the skin of ___ mSv over any 1cm2, regardless of the total area exposed, in any one year
    -An effective dose of ___ mSv in any one year
    -An equivalent dose of ____ mSv to the lens of either eye in any one year
    1mSv
    50mSv
    150mSv
    15mSv
A
  • An equivalent dose to the skin of _50__ mSv over any 1cm2, regardless of the total area exposed, in any one year
  • An effective dose of _1__ mSv in any one year
  • An equivalent dose of __15mSv__ to the lens of either eye in any one year
69
Q
  1. A general MRT rostered to fluoroscopy for the day should generally wear?
    a. One TLD badge at collar on their thyroid guard
    b. One TLD badge at waist height, under the lead apron
    c. One TLD badge at waist height under their lead apron and one at collar on their thyroid guard
    d. One TLD badge at waist height under their lead apron and one on the outside of their lead apron also worn at waist height.
A

b. One TLD badge at waist height, under the lead apron

70
Q
  1. TLD personnel monitors use lithium fluoride (LiF) crystals. Why?
    a. LiF can be disposed of in landfills
    b. LiF has a Z number close to that of bone
    c. LiF has a z number close to that of tissue
A

b. LiF has a Z number close to that of bone

71
Q
  1. Lithium Fluoride (LiF) chips used in TLD badges can be read by exposing them to:
    a. Light
    b. Cold
    c. Heat
    d. Sound
A

c. Heat

72
Q
  1. Give three advantages and three disadvantages for the use of TLD badges for personnel monitoring?
A 
ADVANTAGES 
1 cost
2 lightweight
3 re usable
DISADVANTAGES
1 long delays
2 requires specialist equipment 
3 guidance can be destroyed
73
Q
  1. The filters on the TLD badge assist in determining the type of radiation that caused the exposure. What does a recording under the aluminium filter indicate?
    a. Exposure to alpha particles
    b. Exposure to beta particles
    c. Indicates shorter/higher energy x-rays
    d. Indicates longer/lower energy x-rays
A

c. Indicates shorter/higher energy x-rays

74
Q
  1. The radiation protection regulations 1982 state that in most cases the longest a badge can be issued for it?
    a. 1 month
    b. 2 months
    c. 3 months
    d. 6 months
A

c. 3 months

75
Q
  1. The dosimetry reporting produced by ESR’s personnel Dosimetry Service is quoted in?
    a. mGy
    b. mR
    c. mAs
    d. mSv
A

d. mSv

76
Q
  1. ESR’s Personnel Dosimetry Services term Hp(10) can not be used to measure:
    a. An effective dose of 20mSv per year averaged over any five year period and 50mSv in any one year,
    b. An equivalent dose of 500mSv to the skin (at the normal depth of 7mg/cm2) averaged over 1cm2, regardless of the total area exposed
    c. An equivalent dose of 150mSv to the lens of either eye
    d. An equivalent dose of 500mSv to the hands and feet
A

b. An equivalent dose of 500mSv to the skin (at the normal depth of 7mg/cm2) averaged over 1cm2, regardless of the total area exposed

77
Q
  1. Optically stimulated luminescence uses ______ to obtain the measurement of radiation exposure
    a. Electricity
    b. Cold
    c. Heat
    d. Laser
A

d. Laser

78
Q
  1. “Given that CSP5 dose limits are not measureable, an alternative quantity has been defined that can be used to provide a reasonable estimate of the dose limit quantities, under normal exposure conditions”. This quantity is known as______.
    a. Personal dose equivalent
    b. Personal dose effective
    c. Professional dosimetry measurement
    d. Productive dosimetry measurement
A

a. Personal dose equivalent

79
Q
  1. Give two advantages and two disadvantages of Direct Ion Storage dosimeters.
A 
ADVANTAGES 
usb version has memory so uploads quick 
electronic warnings can be put in place
DISADVANTAGE 
cost
strong but not indestructible
80
Q
  1. What is the maximum dose limit allowable to the lens of the eye for radiation personnel?
    a. 15mSv
    b. 50mSv
    c. 150mSv
    d. 500mSv
A

c. 150mSv

81
Q
  1. What is not a type of personnel monitoring device?
    a. Thermoluminecent dosimeter
    b. Optically stimulated Luminescence
    c. Geiger-muller counter
    d. Pocket dosimeter
A

c. Geiger-muller counter

82
Q
  1. Name four types of radiation personnel monitoring badges/devices that may be used to monitor workers radiation exposure?
    a.
    b.
    c.
A

a) TLD
b) OSL
c) pocket dosimeters
d) direct ion storage dose meters

83
Q
  1. What is the equivalent dose that the hands and feet are allowed to receive in one year for radiation personnel?
    a. 450mSv
    b. 500mSv
    c. 550mSv
    d. 550Sv
A

b. 500mSv

84
Q
  1. What are the two filters in a TLD badge made out of?
    a. Aluminium and plastic
    b. Aluminium and copper
    c. Copper and plastic
    d. Aluminium and steel
A

a. Aluminium and plastic

Imaging applications (4 decks)

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