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Human Disease And Therapeutics > Test 2 Questions > Flashcards

Test 2 Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What is caesous necrosis?

A

Cell death occurring in a granuloma

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2
Q

What is effusion?

A

Too much fluid in a body cavity

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3
Q

What is apoptosis?

A

Orderly cell death without inflammation

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4
Q

What is gangrenous necrosis?

A

Death of a body part (finger, foot, ear, etc.)

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5
Q

What is karyorrhexis?

A

Fragmentation of nucleus of dying cell causing irregular chromatin distribution

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6
Q

What is hyperemia?

A

Leaky fluid from blood vessels

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7
Q

What are three symptoms you may expect to see in a patient with left-sided heart failure (right side is normal)?

A

Ischemia heart disease
Pulmonary edema
Difficulty breathing when lying down

(Will not see brain hemorrhages, pitted edema in ankles, hepatomegaly)

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8
Q

True or false… MI is universally associated with extreme pain

A

False

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9
Q

True or false… most MI related deaths are associated with ventricular arrhythmias

A

True

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10
Q

True or false… aortic thrombus is usually associated with MI

A

False

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11
Q

True or false… the blood levels of troponin T and creatinine phosphate are reduced in MI

A

False. Increased

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12
Q

True or false.. Libman-sacks is endocarditis not associated with an autoimmune disorder.

A

False… it is associated with autoimmunity

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13
Q

True or false… splinter hemmorrhages are cardiac miniature blood clots that can migrate to under the finger nails

A

True

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14
Q

True or false… cardiac tamponade is associated with fluid accumulation around the heart which causes excessive cardiac compression

A

True

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15
Q

True or false… bradycardia is typically associated with ventricular fibrillation

A

False

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16
Q

True or false… a first degre heart block is associated with a lack of hear conduction

A

False

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17
Q

True or false… atrial fibrillation is very rare, even in the elderly

A

False

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18
Q

Is preclampsia associated with primary or secondary HTN?

A

2

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19
Q

Which is most likely to be associated with increased Na retention, 1 or 2 HTN?

A

1

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20
Q

Which is most likely to be associated with the consequence of congestive heart failure, 1 or 2 HTN?

A

2

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21
Q

95% of all the cases of HTN are 1 or 2?

A

1

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22
Q

Which is most likely to be associated with diabetes, 1 or 2 HTN?

A

2

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23
Q

Name three things that may be a compensation for congestive heart failure

A

Cardiomegaly

Increased catecholamine (sympathetic) activity

Tachycardia

(A reduction of cardiac stroke volume is not seen)

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24
Q

Someone with type 2 diabetes and chest pain every time they stand up but also during periods of rest. Can this condition be easily associated with dyspnea and arrhythmias? Can sublingual nitroglycerin be effective in rapidly relieving the discomfort? Is this pain often associated with esophageal reflux? Can this condition be easy to manage and is known as stable angina?

A

This condition could easily become associated with dyspnea and arrhythmias.

It cannot be rapidly relieved with nitroglycerin. It is not associated with esophageal reflux. It is not called stable angina and not easy to manage.

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25
Q

True or false… endocarditis can cause fatal thromboemboli.

A

True

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26
Q

True or false.. bradycardia is defined as fewer than 60bpm and can be caused by cardiac conduction blocks

A

True

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27
Q

True or false… a risk of atrial fibrillation is a stroke-causing emboli

A

True

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28
Q

True or false.. lidocaine is an effective treatment for ventricular arrhythmias because of its calcium channel blocking action.

A

False. It has Na channel blocking action

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29
Q

What drug can be used to treat HTN because of its ability to hyperpolarize vascular smooth muscles by opening K channels?

A

Minoxidil

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30
Q

True or false… hydrochlorthizide is a K sparing diuretic

A

False

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31
Q

True or false.. phenoxybenzamine is an alpha 1 and 2 blocker

A

True

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32
Q

True or false… clonidine is an alpha 2 antagonist

A

False.. its an agonist.

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33
Q

True or false.. captopril is an ACE inhibitor

A

True

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34
Q

True or false… verapamil is a calcium channel blocker

A

True

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35
Q

A woman in her 22nd week of pregnancy present positive for diabetes. Abruptly, her normal blood pressure jumps up to a persistent reading of 144/95. What is a likely explanation for this clinical presentation?

A

Preclampsia

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36
Q

What type of thrombus typically forms after a myocardial infarct or from atrial fibrillation?

A

Mural

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37
Q

What is the most common type of drug used to lower cholesterol levels?

A

Statins (like simvastatin)

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38
Q

What is the method of action and reason for use for montelekast?

A

Blocks leukotriene receptor

Used for prophylaxis for patients who have problems with inhalers

39
Q

What is the method of action and reason for use for cromolyn?

A

Inhibits release of histamine

Used because it inhibits release of inflammatory mediators

40
Q

What is the mechanism of action and reason for use for theophylline?

A

Phosphodiesterase inhibitor

Add-on controller that helps reduce steroid dose

41
Q

What is the method of action and reason for the use of salmeterol?

A

Beta 2 agonist

Slower onset reliever for asthma attacks

42
Q

What is the mechanism of action and reason for the use of omalizumab?

A

Inhibits IgE binding to mast cells

Used only for chronic severe non-responsive asthma

43
Q

What pt population is asthma most likely seen in?

A

Children

Females

44
Q

True or false… you would expect to see a decreased PO2 in chronic bronchitis

A

True

45
Q

True or false.. there is a decreased Reid index in chronic bronchitis

A

False. Increased index

46
Q

True or false… chronic bronchitis is caused by mucous hypersecrion in the smaller airways and bronchi

A

True

47
Q

True or false… pts with chronic bronchitis are referred to as blue bloaters

A

True

48
Q

True or false… the vast majorities of lung cancers are sarcomas

A

False.. carcinomas

49
Q

True or false… the most aggressive carcomas are the small cell (oat cell) type

A

True

50
Q

True or false… pulmonary tumors rarely metastasize to the brain

A

False.

51
Q

True or false… pulmonary carcinomas are the leading cause of cancer deaths worldwide

A

True

52
Q

Name three drugs that are associated with anti smoking medication

A

Bupropion (zyban)

Varenicline (chantix)

Nicotine-containing gum

53
Q

Name three situations that are likely to cause thrombocytopenia

A

Decreased bone marrow production

Multiple transfusions

Immune reaction to platelet autoantibodies

(Caisson disease is not related to thrombocytopenia)

54
Q

True or false.. CBC determination includes red and white blood cells and platelets

A

True

55
Q

True or false.. normal WBC determinations are 3500-10,000 cells/microliter

A

True

56
Q

True or false… leukocytosis cannot be caused by heavy exercising

A

False, it can

57
Q

True or false… non-Hodgkin lymphomas are slow growing and likely curable

A

False. Aggressive and not likely curable

58
Q

What blood types can be safely transfused to a pt with B type blood?

A

B and O

59
Q

What drug is an ‘out-patient’ anticlotting drug that is popular because it has fewer side effects than warfarin and heparin and has antiplatelet action by blocking the PTT sensitive pathway?

A

Dabigatran (pradaxa)

60
Q

Protamine is used as an antidote for which anticlotting medication?

A

Heparin

61
Q

True or false.. diabetes is a common cause of chronic renal disease

A

True

62
Q

True or false… chronic renal disease pts often have periodontal disease

A

True

63
Q

True or false… chronic renal disease pts can have premature bone loss in the jaws

A

True

64
Q

True or false… chronic renal diseases typically causes cysteine-type kidney stones

A

False.

65
Q

True or false.. the most common cause of pyelonephritis is left sided heart failure

A

False.

66
Q

True or false… pyelonephritis is often associated with flank pain

A

True

67
Q

True or false.. 10-20% cases of pyelonephritis result in kidney filaure

A

True

68
Q

A woman feels chronically lethargic with tremors. She has experienced a modest weight gain. She feels cold in normal temperatures. TSH levels are elevated. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Hashimoto disease

69
Q

What is the most appropriate treatment for someone with hashimoto disease?

A

Synthroid

70
Q

Hyperparathyroidism can elevate the parathyroid hormone and increase the levels of free calcium in the blood by what three mechanisms?

A

Stimulating osteoclast activity

Increasing tubular reabsorption of calcium in the kidneys

Stimulating bone resorption

(It does not block the GI absorption of vitamin D, it promotes it)

71
Q

What are some manifestations of a pheochromocytoma?

A

Episodic severe HTN

Headaches

Flushing

Nervousness

Excessive sweating

Adrenal mass

72
Q

What are four things associated with metabolic syndrome?

A

Complex metabolic interaction between insulin resistance and anorexia

Damage to renal and neuronal cells

Excessive visceral fat

Increased tendency toward inflammatory reactions

73
Q

What types of diabetes have severe abnormal lipid metabolism?

A

Type 1 and 2

74
Q

In what type of diabetes are insulin receptors resistant to activation by insulin?

A

Type 2 only

75
Q

In which types of diabetes would you see an HA1c of 8-9%?

A

Type 1, 2, and gestational diabetes

76
Q

What drug is a sulfonylurea that increases the release of insulin from beta cells?

A

Glipizide

77
Q

What drug diminishes fat absorption in intestines?

A

Orlistat

78
Q

What drug has a 30 minute onset (insulin) and persists for 5-8 hours?

A

Humalin R

79
Q

What drug reduces insulin resistance in muscle cells?

A

Rosiglitazone (avandia)

80
Q

What drug is a biguinide that decreases glucose production in the liver?

A

Metformin

81
Q

What drug slows digestion and absorption of starch and disaccharides from intestines?

A

Acarbose

82
Q

What drug is thought to suppress appetite by stimulating the 5HT2c receptor in the hypothalamus?

A

Lorcaserin (belviq)

83
Q

What should you not recommend to patient who receives regular hemodialysis for kidney failure?

A

Aspirin for postoperative pain

84
Q

What is the lifespan of a functional platelet?

A

~10 days

85
Q

True or false… fibrin interacts with primary hemostatis elements to form a stable clot

A

True

86
Q

True or false… injury to a blood vessel causes platelet adherence to the subendothelium by interaction with Von willebrand factor

A

True

87
Q

What are some causes of increased WBCs?

A

Chronic infection

Some leukemias

Exercise

(Not gaisbock syndrome polycythemia (increased RBCs)

88
Q

True or false… macrocytic anemias are often caused by internal hemorrhagic

A

False

89
Q

True or false.. vitamin B12 deficiency can cause megoblastic macrocytic anemias

A

True

90
Q

What serious complication is seen with cretinism?

A

Intellectual disabilities

91
Q

What are some things associated with Graves’ disease?

A

Weight loss

Tremors

Exthalamos

Tachycardia

92
Q

True or false.. you see increased osteoblastoma activeity causing osteopetrosis in hyperparathyodisism

A

False.

93
Q

What is metyrapone used to treat?

A

Cushing’s syndrome

94
Q

Which is preferable for maintaining tight control of type 1 diabetes?

A: morning injections of insulin determir, supplemented by small amounts of insulin lispro at mealtimes

B: morning injections of a mixture of NPH insulin and insulin determir

A

A

Human Disease And Therapeutics (13 decks)

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