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Human Disease And Therapeutics > Quiz 6 (test 3) > Flashcards

Quiz 6 (test 3) Flashcards

1
Q

What is a sty?

A

Skin infection like a pimple on the edge of the eyelid. Associated with hair follicle

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2
Q

True or false… cancers of the eyelid such as ___ and ___ destroy lashes.

A

True

Basal cell

Squamous cell

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3
Q

What is glaucoma?

A

High intraocular pressure in anterior chamber

Increased pressure within eye due to increased production or decreased outflow of aqueous humor (replaced every 2 hours; supplies nutrients and removes waste). Can damage optic nerve and cause blindness

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4
Q

True or false… glaucoma can cause optic nerve damage and cause blindness

A

True

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5
Q

What is closed-angle glaucoma?

A

Iris fused to cornea

Often painful
Fast developing
Requires immediate attention to avoid blindness

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6
Q

What is open angle glaucoma?

A

Wide space between iris and cornea

Reduction in drainage

Slow developing

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7
Q

What is the most common form of glaucoma (90%)?

A

Open angle glaucoma

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8
Q

What are four risk factors for open angle glaucoma?

A

Age

African American

Diabetes

Hypertension

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9
Q

_____ measures intraocular pressure

A

Tonometry

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10
Q

Name three drugs that can be used to treat glaucoma

A

Pilocarpine

Timolol

Lantanoprost

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11
Q

What is the mechanism of pilocarpine in the treatment of glaucoma?

A

Cholinomimetic

Contract ciliary muscle and increases outflow of aqueous humor

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12
Q

What is the mechanism of timolol in the treatment of glaucoma?

A

Beta blocker

Decreases aqueous humor secretion

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13
Q

What is the mechanism of lantanoprost in the treatment of glaucoma?

A

Prostaglandin

Increase outflow of aqueous humor

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14
Q

What drugs should you avoid in a patient with glaucoma? Why?

A

Anticholinergics

Stimulants (amphetamines)

These drugs worsen glaucoma

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15
Q

What is the #1 cause of blindness worldwide? What is the #2 cause of blindness?

A

1 = cataracts

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16
Q

What are cataracts? What causes it?

A

Opaque lens due to…

Age
UV exposure
Diabetes
Steroid use

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17
Q

What has micro-aneurysms of retina and cotton wool spots from ischemia?

A

Diabetic retinopathy

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18
Q

What does hypertensive retinopathy look like?

A

Diabetic retinopathy

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19
Q

> ___% of pts >___ years of age have age-related macular degeneration

A

10%

80 years old

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20
Q

Age related macular degeneration is a loss of ___ vision which widens ___. It is associated with ___, ___, and ___.

A

Central vision

Widens laterally

Gene polymorphisms
Smoking
Cardiovascular disease

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21
Q

Age-related macular degeneration progresses faster in ___(which is?..) than ___ (which is?…)

A

Wet (hemorrhage and fluid present behind retina

Dry (large majority)

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22
Q

True or false… smoking is a risk factor for age-related macular degeneration

A

True

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23
Q

What are the pharmacological options for age-related macular degeneration?

A

Minimal options

Some evidence that antioxidants such as vitamin C or zinc oxide may help reduce development, but benefit is minimal

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24
Q

What is the most common cause of retinal detachment?

A

Usually a retinal tear resulting from trauma

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25
Q

What is the most common tumor in children?

A

Retinoblastoma

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26
Q

What is meniere disease?

A

Excess of endolymphatic fluid in inner ear

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27
Q

What are the symptoms of meniere disease?

A

Vertigo

Healing loss

Nausea

Sometimes migraine

Headaches

Swimming feeling

Tinnitus

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28
Q

What are fours risks for developing meniere disease?

A

Abnormal immune response

Allergies

Head trauma

Migraines

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29
Q

What are 5 drugs that can be used to treat meniere disease?

A

Meclizine

Diazepam

Promethazine

Long acting steroids

Hydrochlorothiazide

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30
Q

What is meclizine?

A

H1 blocker and anticholinergic used to treat…

meniere disease
CNS depressant
Motion sickness
Xerostomia

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31
Q

What is promethazine?

A

H1 blocker and anticholinergic used to treat..

Meniere disease
Nausea
Motion sickness
Xerostomia

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32
Q

What is hydrochlorothiazide?

A

Diuretic

Regulates fluid volume and pressure in inner ear

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33
Q

What are the symptoms of otitis media?

A

Pain (can be mistaken for dental or sinus pain)

Ear discharge

Headache

Hearing loss

Tinnitus

Vertigo

Immobile

Bulging eardrum

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34
Q

What drugs can you use to treat otitis media?

A

Amoxicillin

Or

Amoxicillin + clavalunate

or

ceftriaxone (rocephin 3rd generation cephalosporin) for acute OM

Drain for chronic with effusion if necessary

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35
Q

What is the cause of otitis media?

A

It is middle ear inflammation due to blockage of Eustachian tube

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36
Q

Most cancers arise ___, but some come from benign tumors

A

De novo (starting from the beginning)

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37
Q

What is the second leading cause of death in the US after cardiovascular?

A

Cancers/tumors

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38
Q

What is cancer caused by?

A

Accumulation of DNA mutations in cells acquired spontaneously or induced (environment)

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39
Q

What are 5 properties of cancer?

A

Non-responsive to normal physiologic cues

Lack of response to growth inhibitory signals

Avoid normal cell cycle mediated death

Develops own angiogenesis

Evades immune detection

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40
Q

What is a neoplasm?

A

Uncontrolled growth of cells

Progeny of a single cell

Name usually ends in -oma

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41
Q

A benign epithelial tumor of glandular origin is called an _____. What if it is projected?

A

Adenoma

Papilloma

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42
Q

What is a malignant tumor?

A

One that metastasizes

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43
Q

In regards to malignant tumors…

Epithelial = ____

Mesenchymal = _____

Lymphoid = ______

Hematopoietic = ______

A

Carcinoma

Sarcoma

Lymphoma

Leukemia

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44
Q

What is an adenocarcinoma?

A

Malignancy of glandular epithelial cells

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45
Q

What is a lipoma?

A

Benign tumor of fat cells

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46
Q

What is an osteosarcoma?

A

Malignancy of bone cells

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47
Q

What is a leiomyoma?

A

Benign tumor of smooth muscle

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48
Q

What are granulomas?

A

Inflammatory mass of immune cells

*not a neoplasm

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49
Q

True or false… skin tags are considered neoplasms

A

False

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50
Q

What is a hamartoma?

A

Not a malignancy

Mal-developed tissue in proper tissue

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51
Q

What is a choristoma?

A

Normal tissue in another organ

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52
Q

What is a myxoma?

A

Benign tumor usually of fibroblast frequently in the heart

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53
Q

What is a teratoma?

A

Germ cell tumor that can contain tissue or tissues not associated with surrounding organ (tooth bud in an ovary)

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54
Q

True or false… sarcomas are the most common form of malignancy.

A

False. Carcinomas are the most common.

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55
Q

Where do carcinomas most often metastasize to?

A

Regional lymph nodes, but can spread through blood… dependent on type

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56
Q

Carcinomas are [high/low] nuclear: cytoplasmic ratio. What does that mean?

A

High nuclear: cytoplasmic ratio, which underscores the abnormality of nuclear regulation

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57
Q

Carcinoma [is/is not] invasive, and its pattern of spread is usually [unpredictable/predictable].

A

Is invasive

Predictable

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58
Q

What is carcinoma in situ?

A

Not invasive and doesn’t metastasize

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59
Q

What are two forms of carcinoma in situ?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

Adenocarcinoma

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60
Q

Squamous cell carcinoma has a similar ___ regardless of primary site. Its prognosis depends on ___.

A

Appearance

Site

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61
Q

What sites of squamous cell carcinoma has a good prognosis? What has a bad prognosis?

A

Skin is less dangerous

Lip, oral cavity, lung is dangerous

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62
Q

What type of carcinoma forms glands and cells and often makes protein mucin?

A

Adenocarcinoma

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63
Q

Name two neuroendocrine tumors

A

Carcinoid tumors

Small cell

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64
Q

What are carcinoid tumors?

A

Usually show up in GI tract or lungs (typically low grade)

If well-developed, usually do better. If not well differentiated, they do not do as well

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65
Q

True or false… small cell lung carcinomas are highly malignant

A

True

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66
Q

Carcinoid tumors of the GI or lung are typically [high/low] grade

A

Low

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67
Q

Sarcomas are a malignant ___ tumor. It has ___ rather than invasive border. It is [more/less] likely to metastasize - when it does, it is by ____ (not ___).

A

Mesenchymal

Pushing

Less

Blood, not lymph nodes

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68
Q

What is a smooth muscle malignancy most often in the uterus?

A

Leiomyosarcoma

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69
Q

What is the most common form of bone cancer?

A

Osteosarcoma

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70
Q

What is a hepatoma?

A

Malignancy of hepatocytes in liver

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71
Q

What is rhabdomyosarcoma?

A

Malignancy of skeletal muscle

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72
Q

Describe the progression of malignancies

A

Normal - hyperplasia (grows) - dysplasia (grows and cell nuclei charge) - cancer (grows and invades)

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73
Q

What are the cytological features of carcinomas?

A

Nuclear enlargement

Abundant mitotic figures

Pleomorphic (can exist as multiple cell types and morphologies)

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74
Q

Lipomas are benign, small, and very common. The cells look ___ and usually ___

A

Normal

Subcutaneous

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75
Q

Ewing sarcoma is most frequently seen in ___

A

Children

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76
Q

Chondrosarcoma develops from ___

A

Cartilage

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77
Q

Lymphomas are cancers of ___ and ___.

A

Blood cells

Bone marrow

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78
Q

___ lymphoma has the presence of reed sternberg cells and [rarely/usually] responds to treatment

A

Hodgkin

Usually responds to treatment

(Less common than non-hodgkins)

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79
Q

____ lymphoma tends to be more variable and more difficult to treat and lacks reed sternberg cells

A

Non hodgkins

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80
Q

What is burkitts lymphoma?

A

A very fast growing cancer which starts with B cells. Typically associated with impaired immunity and rapidly fatal if not treated quickly. A form of non-hodgkins lymphoma and linked to EBV infection

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81
Q

Burkitts lymphoma starts with __ cells. It is a form of ___ lymphoma and is linked to ___

A

B cells

Non-hodgkins

EBV infection

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82
Q

Define the following…

Incidence:

Mortality:

Prevalence:

Survival:

A

Incidence: newly diagnosed cases/time

Mortality: deaths/time

Prevalence: new and preexisting cases at one time

Survival: proportion of pts alive at a given time after diagnosis

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83
Q

How many cancer cases were there in 2011?

A

1.5 million

84
Q

How many cancer deaths were there in the US in 2011?

A

570,000

85
Q

What is the leading cause of most sporadic cancers?

A

Environment

86
Q

True or false… cancer is often caused by AD gene

A

True

87
Q

___ cancer is the leading cause of cancer death in the US followed by…

A

Lung cancer

Prostate cancer in men and breast cancer in females

88
Q

___ genes lead to breast cancers

A

BRCA 1 and 2

89
Q

___ gene increases intestinal/colon cancer when mutated

A

Familial adenomatous polyposis coli (APC)

90
Q

T or F… Cancer subtype risks ween in those moving to different areas of the world, usually begins to reflect that of the native population in subsequent generations.

A

True

91
Q

Japanese risk of gastric cancer is ___ than in the US

A

7x greater

92
Q

Breast cancer is more common in ___ than in __

A

Europe

US

93
Q

Environmental factors cause mor cancer than genetic factors, especially in the ___

A

Elderly

94
Q

___ are next generation sequencing used for solid tumor tissue and assessed for multiple potential targets for therapeutic responses. Sometimes can predict prognosis

A

Solid tumor mutation panels

95
Q

____ are used to grow tumor cells and examine cellular histology and abnormalities

A

Cytogenetics

96
Q

True or false.. common for success response not to kill “all” of the cells (99.9% kill) may lead to recurrence months to years later.

A

True

97
Q

Chromosomal changes associated with cancers include what 5 things?

A

Deletions

Translocations

Duplications

Amplification

Abnormal number of chromosomes

98
Q

Genetic targets for tumors include what 6 things?

A

Oncogenes

Nuclear regulating genes

Tumor suppressor genes

Apoptosis regulating genes

DNA repair genes

Angio-neogenesis

99
Q

What are oncogenes?

A

They promote proliferation

Growth factors or corresponding receptors.

100
Q

What drug works by inhibits oncogenes?

A

Gleevac

101
Q

What are tumor suppressor genes?

A

Inhibit tumor growth

BRCA 1 and 2

Effect is often recessive and both gene copies need to be inactivated with treatment

P53 genes

APC

102
Q

What genes are considered the guardians of the genome and suppressive proliferative genes?

A

P53 genes

103
Q

What does the APC gene do (adenomatous polyposis coli gene)?

A

Helps control apoptosis

104
Q

Most chemotherapy targets ____ cells. Most interfere with ___. Consequently, good for killing ___ tumors but not so good for __ tumors

A

Proliferating

DNA replication

Fast growing

Slow or non-growing tumors

105
Q

True or false.. most chemotherapy injures rapidly proliferating normal cells such as bone marrow, intestinal mucosa, and hair

A

True

106
Q

___ pattern varies between tumors (due to varying growth factors)

A

Metastatic

107
Q

True or false… complete response to cancer treatment (~99.9% cancer cell kill) leaves thousands of malignant cells, but while it may cause remission, it does not mean that the cancer is cured.

A

True

108
Q

Malignant tumors usually requires at least __-___ types of mutations to survive

A

5-6

109
Q

Roughly ___ of cell doublings occur before tumor detection

A

3/4

110
Q

What are some causes of cancer?

A 
Mutation
Tumor viruses
Bacteria and inflammation
Hormonal activation
Lack of immune responses
Genetic predisposition 
Chemical carcinogens 
Radiation 
Viruses
111
Q

What are three metal ions that can cause mutation leading to cancer?

A

Nickel
Arsenic
Chromium

112
Q

What is the Ames test?

A

It measures if a chemical alters genetic changes in bacteria and would be a carcinogen

113
Q

Name one example of a tumor virus

A

HPV cause carcinoma of cervix

114
Q

Name one species of bacteria that can lead to cancer

A

H. Pylori

Asbestosis is a chemical that can cause inflammation and thus cancer

115
Q

What hormones may stimulate cancer?

A

Sex hormones

Androgens stimulate prostate cancers

Estrogens stimulate breast cancers

116
Q

Lack of immune responses may lead to cancer. ___ pts have an increased chance to get lymphomas. ___ infections induces kaposi’s sarcoma in AIDS.

A

Transplant pts/AIDS

HHV

117
Q

Immunodeficient children are __ times more likely to develop cancer

A

200

118
Q

Reactive chemicals alter DNA especially in ___ cells

A

Rapidly dividing

119
Q

True or false… acidifying agents (including some chemotherapeutic agents) are chemical carcinogens

A

False. Alkylating agents

120
Q

What is an example of a polycyclic aromatic compound?

A

Benzopyrene

121
Q

What is alfaztoxin?

A

Fungus on peanuts or other foods (associated with old moldy food). - chemical carcinogen

122
Q

X rays and gamma rays can cause cancer. What kinds of cancer are they most likely to cause?

A

Leukemias

Breast

Lung

Salivary gland

123
Q

___ virus is a herpes virus associated with B cell lymphomas (burkitts lymphoma)

A

Epstein Barr

124
Q

What virus causes damage that can lead to hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

Hepatitis B and C

125
Q

What virus causes kaposi’s sarcoma

A

HHV8

126
Q

What bacteria can cause gastric adenocarcinoma?

A

H. Pylori

127
Q

Chronic inflammation by asbestos leads to ___ and ___

A

Mesothelioma

Lung cancers

128
Q

What are four ways in which cancers kill?

A

Growth and metastasis

Involve vital organ functions

Cachexia (progressive loss of body fat and muscles leading to wasting)

Cancers release secretions of the tissue of origin (Cushing syndrome - hypercortisol)

Paraneoplastic syndrome

129
Q

Paraneoplastic syndrome develops in __% of malignancies and can have a variety of expressions due to the type of tissue involved. Such as…

A

Hypercortisolism

Hypercalcemia - PTHRP (parathyroid hormone related protein in squamous lung cancer, breast cancer, etc.)

Carcinoid syndrome

Polycythemia (too many RBCs)

Many rare syndromes

130
Q

What are 3 things involved with carcinoid syndrome?

A

Flushing

Diarrhea

Asthma

131
Q

What are some things that tumors must do to survive?

A

Develop signal to proliferate

Avoid apoptosis

Invade

Metastasize

Include angiogenesis

Mutation of antitumor factors

132
Q

In order to induce angiogenesis, the tumor must secrete angiogenic factros such as…

A

VEGF (vascular endothelial growth factor)

bFGF (basic fibroblast growth factors - causes a fibrotic structure in tumor)

133
Q

P53 (an antitumor factor called the gaurdian of the genome) is the [least/most] common tumor suppressor gene mutation. Lost or mutated in __% of malignancies. P53 is supposed to sense sick cell or abnormal DNA and induce ___ if beyond repair. It is related to _____ syndrome which is defined as…

A

Most common

50%

Apoptosis

Li-Fraumeni syndrome - rare inherited genetic cancer disorder that greatly increases risk of developing multiple cancers/tumors often in childhood or young adults

134
Q

____, if mutated, can stimulate precancerous colon polyps that mutate into colon cancers

A

APC

135
Q

What are the three factors in tumor staging?

A

T - size and extent of the primary tumor

N - presence of number of lymph node metastases

M - presence of distant metastases

136
Q

What are the three stages of breast cancer?

A

Stage 1 - small primary tumors

Stage 2 - positive node

Stage 3/4 - major threat

137
Q

What is therapeutic classification?

A

Classification methods specific for certain types of cancers ?

Examples include..

Presence of hormone receptors such as estrogen or progesterone

Her-2/Ne4 (human epidermal growth factor receptor protein for breast cancer)

138
Q

In regards to biopsy methods, less invasive techniques are often used and are usually accurate. Two examples are…

A

Needle biopsy

Fine needle aspirates

139
Q

What are 3 different treatment options for cancer?

A

Surgical removal

Radiation therapy - maximize exposure to tumor and minimize exposure to normal tissue

Chemotherapy

140
Q

Chemotherapy will most of the time interfere with ___. It kills __ cells. It treats the ___ body. Tumor can develop ____.

A

DNA replication or function which is necessary for cell proliferation

Fast growing cells. Most damage to rapidly proliferating cells

Treats whole body

Resistance

*remember that treatments can kill >99% of tumor cells, but will still leave thousands or millions of living cancerous cells that can cause recurrence in months or years

141
Q

1/__ patients are cured with local treatment such as surgery or radiotherapy.

A

3

142
Q

T or F… chemotherapy is typically used for advanced disease or as an adjuvant

A

True

143
Q

T or F… anticancer drugs usually exert action on cells in cell metabolism

A

False. Cell cycle

144
Q

Treating cancer typically requires combination of drugs or in combination with ___ or ___. Usually a single drug at clinically tolerable doses do not cure the cancer by itself.

A

Radiation and/or surgery

145
Q

T or F, it is necessary to have maximal cell kill within the range of toxicity tolerated by host. Adjust scheduling and overlapping toxicities to protect the patient

A

True

146
Q

What are the three principles of use of chemotherapy?

A

Primary induction for advanced disease or cancers without other treatment alternatives.

Neoadjuvant - localized disease where surgery/radiation alone are inadequate

Adjuvant - use in addition to local methods such as radiation/surgery to prevent metastasis

147
Q

In regards to drug combination principles to treat cancer.. usually single drugs at clinically tolerable doses [does/does not] cure cancers. Try to find a dose that provides maximum cancer-cell kill while within the range of toxicity tolerated by the host. Provide [broad/narrow] range of interactions between drug and tumor cells with different genetic abnormalities in heterogenous populations.

A

Does not

Broad

148
Q

In regards to drug combinations to treat cancer, try to optimize what 5 things?

A

Efficacy

Reduced toxicity

Optimum scheduling

Mechanism of interaction (if possible have synergism)

Optimal dosing

149
Q

P53 is mutated in 50% of all human tumors which leads to…

A

Resistance to radiation therapy and anticancer agents

Normally, P53 senses sick or abnormal DNA and regulates apoptosis

150
Q

Alkylating agents such as ____ is used to treat what four things?

A

Cyclophosphamide

Hodgkin’s/nonhodgkins lymphoma
Leukemia
Breast cancer
Multiple myeloma

151
Q

How do alkylating agents work?

A

Transfer their alkyl groups to various cell constituents such as DNA (causing miscoding)

152
Q

What are three adverse effects of alkylating agents?

A

Nausea/vomiting

Damage to rapidly growing tissues (bone marrow, GI tract, oral mucosa)

Carcinogenic in nature

153
Q

In regards to alkylating agents, resistance can be caused by increased ability of cancer cells to…

A

Repair damaged DNA

154
Q

Name two examples of nitrosoureas. What are they used for?

A

Procarbazine

Decarbazine

-used for combination regimens for Hodgkin’s lymphoma

155
Q

Nitrosoureas require __ to be effective. They are highly ___, so they are used to treat brain tumors

A

Biotransformation

Lipophillic

156
Q

Platinum analogs such as ___ are used on [broad/narrow] range of solid tumors.

A

Cisplatin

Broad

157
Q

antimetabolites act on ___ ___ of proliferating cells

A

Intermediary metabolism

158
Q

Methyltrexate-folic analog is an antimetabolite that is also commonly used to treat ___. It interferes with formation of ___ and ___ and inhibits ___. Its used to treat ___. It causes ___.

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

DNA and key proteins

Inhibits tetrahydrofolate

Treats head and neck cancers, and breast cancer

It causes mucositis and diarrhea

159
Q

5-fluorouracil is an antimetabolite used to inhibit ___ synthesis

A

Thymidine

160
Q

Natural product cancer (chemotherapy drugs) such as ___ or ____ inhibits ____. Toxicities include ___. ____ is a drug that is semisynthetic from mandrake, it inhibits topoisomerase 2.

A

Vinblastine or vincristine (vinca alkaloids)

Inhibits tubulin polymerzation (cytoskeleton component)

Mucositis

Etoposide

161
Q

What is etoposide?

A

A chemotherapy drug that is semisynthetic from mandrake plant

It inhibits topoisomerase 2 (interferes with DNA structuring/replication)

162
Q

What are anthracyclines?

A

Antitumor antibiotics

Doxorubicin and bleomycin treat breast cancer

163
Q

What is erlotineb?

A

A chemotherapeutic drug used to antagonize epidermal growth factor receptors

164
Q

True of false… non-hodgkins lymphoma is better controlled/treated than hodgkins lympohma

A

False. Hodgkin’s lymphoma is much better controlled

165
Q

Why is breast cancer treated more effectively today?

A

More effective due to early treatments

166
Q

1 in __ men will develop prostate cancer. It is treated by eliminating ____ production through ___.

A

1 in 8

Testosterone

Surgery castration

167
Q

What does methyotrexate bind to? What does it inhibit?

A

Dihydrofolate reductase. And inhibits tetrahydrofolate.

168
Q

What is a new treatment for actinic keratosis or basal cell carcinoma?

A

5-fluorouracil

169
Q

What drug inhibits thymidine synthase?

A

5-fluorouracil

170
Q

Where is vinblastine derived from?

A

Periwinkle plant

171
Q

What drug inhibits tubulin polymerization?

A

Vinblastine

172
Q

What drug is combined with prednisone to treat acute lymphoblastic leukemia in children?

A

Vincristine

173
Q

What drug inhibits topoisomerase 1 and is derived from the camptotheca acuminat tree in china?

A

Camptothecins

174
Q

What drug causes red urine (not hematuria) from cardio toxicity? What is its method of action?

A

Doxorubicin (anti-tumor antibiotic). MOA: free radicals

175
Q

What is the main form of leukemia in childhood?

A

ALL

176
Q

What is the most common leukemia in adults?

A

AML

177
Q

What leukemia has the Philadelphia chromosome (9,22)?

A

CML

178
Q

How do you treat Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

ABVD (doxorubicin, bleomycin, vinblastine, dacarbazine)

179
Q

What is the treatment for multiple myeloma?

A

Combination of alkylating agent (melphalan) and prednisone

180
Q

Stage 2 breast cancer is treated by…

A

The CMF protocol

181
Q

What is the most common type of GI malignancy?

A

Colorectal cancer

182
Q

What is pinguecula?

A

UV-damaged collagen in the sclera causing discoloration

183
Q

In glaucoma, intraocular pressure > ___

A

21 mmHg

184
Q

In closed angle glaucoma, the angle of iris to cornea is < ___ degrees

A

10

185
Q

In open angle glaucoma, the angle is ~ ___ degrees

A

45

186
Q

True or false… family history of glaucoma is a risk for getting glaucoma

A

True

187
Q

What drug is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor used to treat glaucoma by reducing secretion of AH.

A

Acetazolamide

188
Q

True or false… diabetic retinopathy involves micro-aneurisms on retina; leaves lipid rich yellow exudate

A

True

189
Q

Acute infections of otitis media are usually caused by ___.

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

190
Q

How do you diagnose prostate cancer?

A

PSA (prostate specific antigen)

191
Q

How do you diagnose recurrent thyroid cancer?

A

Thyroglobulin protein

192
Q

How do you diagnose leukemias and lymphomas?

A

Flow cytometry

193
Q

If squamous cell carcinoma is in the ___ and ___ it is more likely to metastasize

A

Lip and hand

194
Q

True or false… if squamous cell is in skin it rarely metastasizes

A

True

195
Q

Adenocarcinomas, tumor is __ or ___ in shape

A

Cuboidal or columnar

196
Q

In the mouth, adenocarcinomas are likely associated with ___. T or F… most organs form adenocarcinomas

A

Salivary glands

True

197
Q

Why do breast and prostatic carcinoma look similar?

A

Their ducatal histology is similar

198
Q

True or false… small cell lung carcinoma has lots of cytoplasm

A

False, barely any cytoplasm

199
Q

Which are more aggressive, carcinomas or sarcomas?

A

Carcinomas

sarcomas tend to grow and displace rather than invade

200
Q

True or false… angiosarcoma is very likely in oral cavity

A

False it is not likely

201
Q

Where can chondrosarcoma occur?

A

Larynx

202
Q

What is brachytherapy?

A

Includes radioactive implants into the tumor

203
Q

What things does head and neck radiotherapy cause?

A

Damage vocal cords

Dysphagia

Osteonecrosis in the jaw

204
Q

What is the most common secondary malignancy after chemo?

A

AML

205
Q

What is decarbazine used to treat?

A

Hodgkin’s lymphoma

Melanomas

Soft tissue sarcomas

206
Q

Imatinib (gleevac) is affective against ___. It blocks a form of ____.

A

Chronic myelogenous leukemia

Tyrosine kinase

207
Q

True or false… EBV can lead to nasopharyngeal carcinoma

A

True

Human Disease And Therapeutics (13 decks)

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