Test 2 - Further Q's Flashcards

1
Q

Physiological sequelae in people with cystic fibrosis include

A
  • Increased amount of Cl and Na in sweat.
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2
Q

The alpha cells of the pancreas secrete

A
  • Glucagon
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3
Q

The beta cells of the pancreas secrete

A
  • Insulin
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4
Q

The delta cells of the pancreas secrete

A
  • Somatasim
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5
Q

A key function of the hormone cholecystokinin (CCK) is to:

A
  • Increase pancreatic enzyme secretion into the duodenum
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6
Q

Pancreatic protease enzymes act to

A
  • Break down large protein complexes in the small intestine
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7
Q

Pancreatic peptidase enzymes act to:

A
  • Breakdown small-proteins into A.A in the small intestine
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8
Q

Which of the following three compounds are all fully digestible

A
  • Sucrose, maltose and amylopectin starch
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9
Q

What starch isn’t fully digestible?

A
  • Amylose starch. Because of its tightly packed helical structure, amylose is more resistant to digestion than other starch molecules and is therefore an important form of resistant starch
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10
Q

Which of the following statements is correct in relation to resistant starch (RS)?

A
  • Foods high in amylose starch will often contain increased levels of RS
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11
Q

Carbohydrate digestion commences in the ____________ and is mostly completed in the ____________

A
  • Oral cavity, small intestine
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12
Q

Key differences between Protein-Energy-Malnutrition (PEM) conditions of Kwashiorkor and Marasmus include:

A
  • A rapid change in diet from mother’s milk to one consisting of staples such as corn and rice, combined with a severe bacterial infection is typical in Kwashiorkor; while Marasmus is the result of chronic, long lasting PEM
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13
Q

What are the two ketogenic amino acids and why?

A
  • Leucine and Lysine

- as they are degraded into the precursors for ketone body synthesis, acetyl-CoA and acetoacetate.

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14
Q

Body protein regulation in the post-prandial period after a meal involves:

A

Increased amino acid transport into insulin-sensitive peripheral tissues

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15
Q

Release of _______ from ______cells in the pancreas is decreased
after a meal to help decrease elevated blood sugar levels?

A
  • Glucagon / Alpha
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16
Q

Release of _______ from ______cells in the pancreas is increased
after a meal to help decrease blood sugar levels?

A
  • Insulin / Beta
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17
Q

Somatassim is triggered by?

A
  • Insulin released from the beta cells. To halt release.
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18
Q

Type 2 diabetes is characterized by:

A

Decreased (relative) insulin secretion and insulin resistance

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19
Q

Type 1 diabetes is characterized by:

A
  • Little or no insulin release

- In ketoacidosis from consistent gluconeogenesis occurring

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20
Q

Inactive pancreatic enzymes are activated by ____________ within the small intestine.

A
  • Enterokinase – A enzyme that is released from the duodenum that make inactive enzymes active.
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21
Q

A key function of insulin is to:

A
  • Decrease gluconeogenesis
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22
Q

A key function of gluconeogenesis is to:

A
  • Create glucose and raise blood glucose levels.
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23
Q

Humans cannot digest_______ because we lack enzymes to break down _____-glycosidic bonds.

A
  • Cellulose, beta
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24
Q

Absorption of monosaccharides from absorptive epithelial cells into the blood (i.e. across the basolateral membrane) involves

A
  • Facilitated diffusion for fructose.

- Active diffusion for glucose and galactose.

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25
Q

De novo lipogenesis can be defined as:

A
  • The synthesis of fatty acids from glucose
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26
Q

Amino acid degradation involves:

A
  • The process of deamination and formation of ammonia
  • Deamination:
    o Removal of NH2 (Amino)
    o Creation of ammonia that creates urea in the liver.
     Urea is excreted by the kidney
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27
Q

Absorption of dietary proteins involves:

A
  • Secondary active transport of amino acids, di- and tri-peptides
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28
Q

The tertiary structure of a protein refers to:

A
  • The three dimensional geometric shape of the complete protein unit
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29
Q

In order to assume maximum stability, protein shapes are organised such that:

A
  • hydrophobic groups are located away from water (water fearing)
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30
Q

The action of hydrochloric acid in the stomach on protein results in:

A
  • denaturation (untangling)
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31
Q

n example of an individual most likely to be in a negative nitrogen balance includes:

A
  • a burns’ victim (ANY MUSCULE WASTING)
32
Q

Where is urea formed?

A
  • The Liver. Then transports to the Kidneys.
33
Q

The concept of complementary proteins relates to:

A
  • the process of combining two or more incomplete proteins which have a low biological value, and when combined contain all essential amino acids.
34
Q

How can the effect of protein on adult bone loss be characterised?

A
  • An excessive protein intake leads to calcium excretion.
35
Q

The protein content of legumes has:

A
  • a high biological value and digestibility
36
Q

The protein RDI for a healthy adult male is

37
Q

Which of the following statements would be true of an individual who has PKU?

A
  • Tyrosine would become a conditionally essential amino acid.
  • Cannot convert phenylalanine into tyrosine.
38
Q

Which of the following features is not common in both kwashiorkor and marasmus?

A
  • Oedema
    o Marasmus: Severe weight loss and muscle wasting due to lack of nutrition and calories.
    o Kwashiorkor: Swelling or edema due to water retention from lack of protein
39
Q

Which protective mechanism helps to prevent erosion in the stomach?

A
  • Mucus secretion. Lines parental cells.
40
Q

A person who has a history of gastrointestinal problems related to indigestion and heartburn might have problems with the:

A
  • lower oesophageal sphincter
41
Q

For nutrients that are first absorbed into the lymphatic system, eventually enter the vascular system via the:

A
  • thoracic duct of the heart
42
Q

Which gastrointestinal hormone is released in response to fat in the diet?

A
  • Cholecystokinin
43
Q

Carbohydrate digestion is initiated in which target organ?

44
Q

Prebiotics can be described as:

A
  • fibre-containing foods used by bacteria in the large intestine to encourage microbial growth and production of short-chain fatty acids
45
Q

Which two actions help to propel a bolus of food through the digestive tract?

46
Q

-Which gastrointestinal hormone is released by the stomach cells in response to appetite?

47
Q

Which of the following carbohydrates is absorbed by facilitated diffusion?

48
Q

Which of the following carbohydrates is absorbed by active diffusion?

A
  • Glucose & Galactose.
49
Q

An example of a highly branched polysaccharide molecule includes

A
  • Amylopectin (Is highly branched.) Indigestable.
50
Q

Important role and function characteristics of insoluble fibre include:

A
  • fibre that is non-viscous, less readily fermented and promotes bowel movements
51
Q

An example of a type of soluble fibre includes:

A
  • Pectin (Fruits)
52
Q

Important role and function characteristics of soluble fibre include:

A
  • Fibre is relatively indigestible, it adds bulk to the faeces. Soluble fibre soaks up water like a sponge, which helps to bulk out the faeces and allows it to pass through the gut more easily. It acts to slow down the rate of digestion
53
Q

The action of bacterial enzymes on fibre in the large intestines causes:

A
  • the release of short-chain fatty acids
54
Q

Prediabetes can be defined as a serum blood glucose of:

A
  • 6.1 to 7 mmol/L
55
Q

Diabetes can be defined as a serum blood glucose of:

A
  • Greater than 7mmol/L
56
Q

If an individual has not eaten for most of the day, which mechanism is triggered to maintain blood glucose

57
Q

Where does the majority of carbohydrate digestion occur?

A
  • Small intestine.
58
Q

What is the consequence of oligosaccharides not digested in the small intestine?:

A
  • they pass into the large intestine and are fermented by bacteria, resulting in the production of intestinal gas
59
Q

Exocrine cells of the pancreas secrete:

A
  • Amylase and lipase
60
Q

A key defining underlying problem in people with _________diabetes is _______________?

A

Type 2, increased insulin resistance in skeletal muscle

61
Q

A key function of glucagon is to:

A
  • Increase gluconeogenesis in the liver
62
Q

In order of decreasing size, which three compartments represent the masses of stored carbohydrate in the body?

A
  • Muscle glycogen, liver glycogen, blood glucose
63
Q

In response to postprandial insulin stimulation, expression of the GLUT4 transporter in the plasma membrane of skeletal muscle cells are _________ to promote ________ glucose transport

A
  • Increased, increased
64
Q

Which of the following conditions would represent a state of negative nitrogen balance?

A
  • Cachexia (muscle wasting)
65
Q

Which of the following situations causes a decrease in the free amino acid pool in cells of the body?

A
  • The synthesis of body proteins from amino acids
66
Q

During short-term fasting (<48 hours), protein degradation to amino acids will predominantly occur in the:

A
  • Skeletal muscle
67
Q

The key function of pancreatic bicarbonate (HCO3-) is to:

A

Increase the pH of chyme and acid entering the duodenum

68
Q

During the post-prandial state (i.e. following meal ingestion), which pathways in the liver increase?

A
  • Glycogen synthesis and glycolysis
69
Q

Just following consumption of a meal containing carbohydrates, levels of glucagon _____________, while levels of insulin ______________.

A
  • Decrease, increase
70
Q

The alpha cells of the pancreas secrete:

71
Q

In the period immediately following a high carbohydrate-containing meal:

A
  • Rates of glycogen synthesis increase in both liver and skeletal muscle
72
Q

In relation to dietary fibre, which of the following statements is correct?

A
  • Soluble fibres ingested can slow digestion and absorption in the small intestine
73
Q

Fructose is absorbed via:

A
  • GLUT transporters
74
Q

Digestion of dietary protein involves:

A
  • Activation of pepsin from pepsinogen via hydrochloric acid secretion in the stomach
75
Q

Which of the following would represent a state of positive protein balance?

A
  • High energy intake in a growing adolescent
76
Q

Transamination involves:

A
  • The transfer of an amino group from one amino acid to an alpha keto acid to form a second amino acid