Test 2: Child Abuse Flashcards

1
Q

___ are the single most common presentation of physical child abuse

A

cutaneous injuries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

___ are the most common type of injury in abused children, but also the most common type of injury in non-abused children

A

bruises

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what developmental stage is bruising most common (precruisers, cruisers, or walkers)?

A
  • walkers, followed by cruisers and then precruisers
  • in general, “if they don’t cruise, they don’t bruise”, so you want to consider abuse and potentially some other underlying condition when you see bruises in non-cruising children
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are the common locations of non-intentional bruises?

A
  • forehead
  • vertex of chin
  • elbows
  • knees/shins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are the common locations of intentional bruises?

A
  • ears
  • neck
  • upper arms/legs
  • abdominal wall
  • buttocks and anus
  • genitalia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are considered the non-discriminating bruising locations?

A

face, cheek, scalp, head, and legs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what bruising locations are considered highly predictive of abuse?

A

ear, neck, buttocks, GU area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

___ tend to be bruised accidentally in ambulatory kids, whereas ___ areas tend to be bruised from abusive mechanisms

A
  • bony prominences

- soft tissue areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

T or F:
bruising resolution is independent of the attachment and thickness of tissue injured, depth of injury, and age of patient

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

does the type of injuring force affect bruising resolution?

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

T or F:

bruising resolution is dependent on the underlying color of the injured person’s skin

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

does vascularity of injured/surrounding tissues affect bruising resolution?

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

can underlying medical conditions delay healing of bruises?

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

T or F:

bruises are easy to date

A

false

-studies have determined that “assessment of the age of a bruise in children is inaccurate and has no scientific basis”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

are red/blue/purple colors are associated with newer or older bruises?

A

newer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

are yellow/brown and green colors associated with newer or older bruises?

A

older

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
T or F:
any colors (red, blue, purple, yellow, brown, and green) can be observed in a bruise at any time before it fully resolves
A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is the appearance of patterned bruising inflicted by a hand?

A

impact of the hand forces blood into nearby capillaries causing them to rupture, resulting in an outline of the fingers/hand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what might produce short, linear bruises, where the bruising reflects the impact in one plane and doesn’t follow the curvature of the affected region?

A

inflexible objects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

bruising that results from ___ may lead to ecchymosis that has no definable pattern

A

inflexible objects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is the bruising pattern caused by flexible objects, and what are some common objects used?

A
  • follows the curvature of the body

- extension cords, belts, ropes, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

describe patterned injury to the buttocks

A
  • given the convexity of the surface of the buttocks, a site of injury is created between impacted and nonimpacted tissue
  • often a distinct line of vertical bruising/petechiae seen
  • may be associated with more diffuse gluteal contusions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

___ is an example of a cultural practice that causes circular bruising

A

cupping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

___ is an example of a cultural practice that causes extravasation of blood from the capillaries (petechiae) and may result in ecchymosis, and involves repeated strokes over the skin with a smooth edge

A

coining (gua sha)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
___ is an example of a cultural practice that involves burning skin using a special stick, with the belief that it will relieve an infection
fire-burning
26
___ is a systemic disease of unknown cause, characterized by IgA-related leukocytoclastic vasculitis, palpable purpura (commonly on lower extremities and buttocks), with normal platelets
henoch-schonlein purpura (HSP)
27
what are the symptoms/signs of henoch-schonlein purpura?
edema, arthralgias, abdominal pain, and hematuria
28
dermal melanosis is also known as ___ or ___
mongolian spots or sleight gray macule/patch
29
what is the frequency of dermal melanosis in african americans, asians, hispanics, and caucasians?
- 95% african americans - 80% asian - 70% hispanic - 10% caucasian
30
___ can overly dermal melanosis
bruising
31
___ is characterized erythematous raised plaques with "dusky" centers that result from necrosis of keratinocytes; lesions may be confused with bruising or hives
erythema multiforme
32
___ is commonly associated with drugs (sulfonamides) and viral infections (HSV, mycoplasma, EBV)
erythema multiforme
33
what are 7 conditions that mimic bruising?
- prupural fulminans - phytophotodermatitis - allergic dermatitis - insect bites - self-inflicted bruises or cutting - abdominal striae - diaper dermatitis
34
cutaneous findings that result from biting depend on what 3 things?
- force - duration - degree of movement between teeth and the soft tissue
35
with respect to bites, what 2 things is central ecchymosis related to?
- negative pressure of suction or tongue thrust | - disruption of blood vessels enclosed within the area of the bite
36
is the following characteristic of adult or child inflicted bites? - bites often only distinct in one arch - average maxillary intercuspid distance of 33mm - teeth tend to be rectangular
adult
37
is the following characteristic of adult or child inflicted bites? - bites are often distinct in both arches - intercuspid distance of less than 30mm - teeth tend to be more rounded
child
38
what type of bites generally tear skin, and have much narrower arch with elongated anterior-posterior aspects?
animal-inflicted bites
39
T or F: | human bites occur most frequently on upper extremities
true
40
what is a possible reason an adult might bite a child?
to stop biting behavior
41
what is developmental biting behavior?
in preschool age children, often seen with frustration or anger
42
what 3 things are included in the forensic evaluation of bites?
- photography - accuracy - double swab technique for saliva - consult forensic odontogolist if possible
43
abusive injuries to the ___ and ___ region are among the most common seen in abused children
head and neck
44
what are 5 mechanisms of injury from trauma of the mouth?
- blunt impact - insertion of object into mouth - sexual abuse - burns with hot liquids or caustic agents - tongue lacerations may be caused by bites
45
trauma of the mouth that results from sexual injury can be ___ or ___
- traumatic - petechiae, ulcerations | - infection - oropharyngeal gonorrhea, condyloma
46
what is helpful in distinguishing tongue lacerations caused by self-inflicted vs abusive bites?
direction of the curvature of the bite mark
47
what is the differential diagnosis for a frenulum tear?
- congenital - infections (herpes or coxsackie virus) - accidental trauma - non-accidental trauma
48
what does non-ambulatory mean?
able to walk
49
any non-ambulatory child with a frenulum tear should be evaluated for ___
abuse
50
what can erosion/scarring/bruising at the corners of the mouth be caused by?
gags to the mouth
51
what can result from perforation of the oropharynx?
- retropharyngeal free air - mediastinal air - carotid artery damage/dissection/perforation - tonsillar avulsion
52
___ are likely a commonly missed injury of physical abuse
dental injuries
53
you should consider physical abuse in what dental injury cases?
- teeth that are missing and shouldn't be - fractured teeth - significantly damaged teeth
54
what are the major complications of dental injuries in children?
- injury to primary teeth can cause injury to the developing secondary teeth - enamel hypoplasia - devitalization of periodontal ligament or dental pulp
55
infant ___ are protected from injury during falls or accidents, making fractures of these structures rare
mandibles
56
describe how infant mandibles are protected from injury
- cranio-to-facial proportion of 8:1 (as opposed to 2:1 in adults) - infant calvarium impacts as opposed to the facial skeleton - elasticity of the developing mandible - relatively thick soft tissue of the face
57
mandible fractures in infants are likely due to ___
direct impact to the mandible
58
T or F: | infants with mandibular fractures in the symphysis and/or premolar area suffer severe pain
false | "not severely painful"
59
what are symptoms of a subcondylar fracture in an infant?
trismus and pain/tenderness overlying the TMJ
60
what 4 things may indicate a mandibular fracture?
- contusion of the floor of the mouth - irregularity of the mandibular arch - alteration of dental occlusion - bruising and swelling of the face/jaw line
61
if an infant has one mandibular fracture, should you suspect a second fracture?
- yes, unless it is a single midline symphysis fracture | - the mandible is a "ring structure"
62
what 3 things can the quality of mandibular radiographic images be limited by?
- overlapping bony/soft tissues - patient cooperation - institutional availability
63
when obtaining radiographic images (vs panoramic image) of the mandible using a series of xrays, how many do you need to view the entire lower jaw?
4 images
64
what are the limitations of panoramic mandibular radiographs?
-same as standard radiographic images (overlapping bony/soft tissues, patient cooperation, institutional availability)
65
what is the benefit of panoramic mandibular radiographs when compared to a radiographic series?
shows the entire mandible in one view
66
what is the benefit of CT imaging over radiographs?
- offers greater accuracy in diagnosis, sensitivity, and specificity - allows for evaluation of potential co-existing intracranial injury