Test 2: ABO Blood Group System Flashcards

1
Q

Who do you report to if you break compliance with the FDA?

A

CBER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the three main regulatory agencies of Blood Bank?

A

-FDA
-CDC
-AABB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What agency is under the CDC that is who is reported to voluntarily?

These reports do not change regulations (unlike many other countries)

A

NHSN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

-Regulatory agency that only does blood bank
-Voluntary accreditation

A

AABB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

-standards for BBTS
-CAP, COLA, CLIA, etc

A

AABB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

_______ is over AABB but AABB tells them what to do/change.

A

FDA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What does T/S and T/C mean?

A

-type and screen order
-type and cross order

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How do you identify a patient?

A

must have TWO independent patient identifiers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What could be used for patient identification?

A

-Name
-DOB
-MRN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What should NEVER be used as a patient identifier?

A

-accession number
-visit/financial number

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When should a patient’s sample be labeled?

A

AT THE BEDSIDE (aka immediately after collection)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Should a patient’s sample be labeled before or after collection?

A

after

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What else should be included on the patients sample label?

A

Date/Time of collection &
collecting personnel ID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is different and what is the same for Pink top and purple top tubes?

A

Pink- used for blood bank (plasma)
purple- for hematology (plasma)

they are both EDTA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is another collection tube that is acceptable for blood bank besides pink top?

A

red- no anticoagulant or preservative, used for serum

(compliment gets activated —> clots)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  • EDTA binds ____ and ____ that inhibits complement activity —> no clotting
A

Calcium, magnesium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Why are pink top tubes preferred for DAT and elutions?

A

Due to lack of fibrin which causes false positives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What should you do if there is a delay in testing?

A

(Check this one). ????

-refrigerate
-greater than 48 hours -remove serum from cells, freeze

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When do specimens intended for compatibility testing expire?

A

on the 3rd day at midnight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the storage protocol for specimens?

A

Refrigerated until 7 days post transfusion

(keep 10 days total just in case need transfusion or need to test again in the case of patient death (even without transfusion))

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What testing is done prior to any blood transfusion? (unless emergent)

A
  1. Type (two tests)
    • Blood type: A, B, AB or O
    • Rh: Positive or Negative
  2. Screen
    • Antibody detection:
      unexpected antibodies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is Landsteiner’s rule (law)?

A

healthy individuals possess ABO antibodies directed toward the A or B antigen that is absent from their RBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

ABO antigens are detected in the embryo as early as ___ to __ weeks’ gestation.

Full expression occurs at about ______ years of age.

A

5, 6

2 to 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

ABO antigens can be intrinsic to the RBC membrane or _________ (body fluids)

A

soluble

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Newborns’ RBCs have fewer numbers and ________ developed antigens

A

partially

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

this blood typing test looks for the presence or absence of A and B ANTIGENS

A

Forward typing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

this blood typing tests patients serum/plasma for presence or absence of anti-A and anti-B (ANTIBODIES)

A

reverse typing aka back typing

-It is a confirmatory test for the forward blood typing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

When would a blood typing test must be done by hand?

A

for hyperlipemic samples if it is greater than 2+ lipemic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Blood bank rarely rejects samples due to quality unless contaminated with __________.

A

IV fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is a positive reaction grade for forward typing?

A

*** 3-4+ = antigen present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is a positive reaction grade for reverse typing?

A

*** 2-4+ = antibody is present

32
Q

What is added to the test tube for forward typing?

A

-1 drop of antisera (anti-A or anti-B)
-1 drop of cells suspension

33
Q

What is added to the test tube for reverse typing?

A

-2 drops of serum/plasma
-1 drop reagent A1 cell or B cell

34
Q

What is the % of each blood type for the white population?

A

O: 45%
A: 40
B: 11
AB: 4

35
Q

What is the % of each blood type for the black population?

A

O: 49%
A: 27
B: 20
AB: 4

36
Q

What is the % of each blood type for the Asian population?

A

O: 40%
A: 28
B: 27
AB: 5

37
Q

Chromosome ___ – A, B or O (amorph)

A

9

38
Q

the genetics of blood type exhibits ________ expression.

O is the _______

A

codominant

-O being the autosomal recessive trait

39
Q

What does “double dose” refer to?

A

when the blood genotype is homozygous so there will be more expression of that type

40
Q

variation of antigen expression due to the number of alleles present

A

dosage

41
Q

Genes at ____ separate loci influence the occurrence and location of ABO antigens: ABO, H, Se

A

3

42
Q

the gene that encodes the ABO antigen carbohydrates is on what chromosome?

A

chromosome 9

43
Q

The presence or absence of the ABH antigens on the RBC membrane is controlled by the _____ gene
* FUT1 on chromosome 19

A

H

44
Q

The presence or absence of the ABH antigens in
secretions is influenced by the ____ gene
* FUT2 on chromosome 19

A

Se

45
Q

amorph blood type ,meaning no functional gene product is produced from this sequence of DNA

A

O

46
Q

FUT2 on chromosome 19 —–> ____ gene

A

Se

47
Q

FUT1 on chromosome 19 ——> _____ gene

A

H

48
Q

The ____________ chain is a basic precursor structure for several RBC antigens, including A, B, and H

A

oligosaccharide

-Attached to a protein or lipid carrier molecule

49
Q

What is the difference between type 1 and 2 oligosaccharide chains?

A

Type1: body fluids and secretions (beta1 —> 3 linkage)
Type 2: red blood cells and body fluids and secretions (beta1 —> 4 linkage)

50
Q

The ____ antigen is the
foundation for the A and/or
B antigens

A

H

51
Q

*H antigen:

gene product?
immunodominant sugar?

A

L-Fucosyltransferase

L-Fucose

52
Q

*A antigen:

gene product?
immunodominant sugar?

A

N-Acetylgalactosaminyltransferase

N-Acetylgalactosamine

53
Q

*B antigen:

gene product?
immunodominant sugar?

A

D-Galactosyltransferase

D-Galactose

54
Q

The H gene codes for a
_____________ enzyme
that transfers the
immunodominant sugar, Lfucose, to the terminal sugar of the oligosaccharide chain (Type 2)

A

glucosyltransferase

55
Q

*** Order of blood types with the most H antigens to the fewest H antigens

A

O, A2, B, A2B, A1, A1B

56
Q

If you do not have H then ___ and ____ cannot be present.

A

A, B

57
Q

What is used to distinguish A1 from A2 red cells?

A

Dolichos biflorus (anti-A1)

58
Q

What does Dolichos biflorus agglutination with?
what does it not agglutinate with?

A

A1

A2

59
Q

Which A type is branched?

A

A1

60
Q

____% A1 and A1B
____% are A2 and A2B

A

80

20

61
Q

What is called when the RBCs lack the H antigen (hh)?

A

Bombay

-rare but more common in India

62
Q

The h gene is an ______ and results in little or no production of Lfucosyltransferase

A

amorph

63
Q

What blood type contains antibodies to H, A, and B?

A

Bombay

64
Q

Why can type O RBCs not be given to Bombay type?

A

the H antigen is present

only autologous units or rare donor files can be used

65
Q

***What A type is associated with mixed field?

A

A3

-also B3, but most hospitals do not test for this because it is not prevalent

66
Q

Which A type has the most antigen sites?

A

A1 (810-1170)

67
Q

What lectin is associated with anti-B?

A

Bandeiraea simplicifolia

68
Q

What lectin is associated with anti-H?

A

Ulex europaeus

69
Q

What % of the population are secretors (SeSe or Sese)?

A

80%

70
Q

What can be done to establish ABO group when serologic testing was difficult?

A

ABH secretions

71
Q

___ gene needed for ABH soluble antigens to be present in
secretions

A

Se

72
Q

What type of transfusion is required in whole blood transfusions?

A

-ABO identical unit
-low titer group O whole blood

73
Q

what is the universal donor for RBC transfusions?
plasma transfusions?

A

O

AB

74
Q

What is the universal recipient for RBC transfusions?
Plasma transfusions?

A

-AB

-O (type A in emergent situations)

75
Q

If a recipient is Group
A, what can the donor be for…
whole blood, red blood cells, and plasma?

A

Whole blood: A

Red blood cells: A, O

Plasma: A, AB

76
Q

If a recipient is Group
O, what can the donor be for…
whole blood, red blood cells, and plasma?

A

Whole blood: O

Red blood cells: O

Plasma: O, A, B, AB