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BIOL 243 > Test 2 > Flashcards

Test 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Immune surveillance

A

The destruction of abnormal cells by NK cells in peripheral tissues

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2
Q

Interferons

A

Chemical messengers that coordinate the defenses against viral infections

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3
Q

Complement

A

A system of circulating proteins that assist antibodies in the destruction of pathogens

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4
Q

Inflammation

A

Localized, tissue-level response that tends to limit the spread of an injury or infection

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5
Q

Fever

A

An elevation of body temperature that accelerates tissue metabolism and body defenses

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6
Q

Dominant inhibitory receptor

A

Prevents the activation of the NK cell. The MHC receptor is this

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7
Q

Protectin

A

Intrinsic molecule that protects NK cells from their own perforins

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8
Q

Interferon alpha

A

Signals neighboring uninfected cells to destroy RNA and reduce protein synthesis

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9
Q

Interferon beta

A

Signals neighboring infected to cells to undergo apoptosis

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10
Q

Interferon gamma

A

Activates immune cells

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11
Q

Complement proteins work together in…

A

cascades

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12
Q

Respiratory burst

A

Part of the Inflammation reaction. Neutrophils undergo this upon leaving the vasculature

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13
Q

Pyrogen

A

Substance that induces a fever

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14
Q

Hypothalamus orchestrates heat effector mechanisms through…

A

the autonomic nervous system

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15
Q

Innate immunity

A

Nonspecific defense mechanisms that come into play immediately or within hours of an antigen’s appearance in the body

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16
Q

Adaptive immunity

A

Antigen-specific immune response. Antigen first must be processed and recognized. Response is customized to antigen

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17
Q

Adaptive immunity may be…

A
  • Humoral (antibodies)

- cell-mediated

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18
Q

Key to understanding immunity

A

The body must recognize self from non-self

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19
Q

Lymphocyte characteristics

A
  • Account for 20-40% circulating leukocytes
  • Do not phagocytose foreign bodies
  • Each type has distinct biochemical functions
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20
Q

Self vs non-self recognition

A

MHC complex that recognizes surface antigens

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21
Q

CD markers (Cluster of differentiation markers)

A

Tells whether a T cell responds to a class I or II MHC

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22
Q

CD8 markers

A

Cytotoxic and suppressor T cells. Respond to MHC I proteins

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23
Q

CD4 markers

A

Helper T cells. Respond to MHC ii Proteins

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24
Q

CD25

A

Activated T cells. The receptor for interleukins

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25
Q

CD3 markers

A

All T cells

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26
Q

The T cell must be ____ to confirm activation

A

Costimulated

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27
Q

Cytotoxic T cells may destroy a cell through…

A

perforin, lymphotoxin, or induction of apoptosis

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28
Q

Time period for cytotoxic T cell accumulation

A

Two days

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29
Q

memory Tc cells

A

Produced by cell division. Awaits reappearance of the antigen

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30
Q

Suppressor T cells

A

Control or moderate immune response by T cells and B cells

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31
Q

Helper T cells

A

Stimulate immune response by T cells and B cells

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32
Q

Memory Th cells

A

Await reappearance of antigen

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33
Q

Five B cell produced heavy chains

A
  • IgG
  • IgE
  • IgD
  • IgM
  • IgA
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34
Q

IgG antibodies

A

Account for 80% of antibodies. Responsible for resistance against many viruses, bacteria, and bacterial toxins

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35
Q

igE antibodies

A

Basophils and mast cells. Release histamine

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36
Q

IgD antibodies

A

on B cell surfaces.

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37
Q

IgA

A

Glandular secretions such as mucus, tears, saliva, and semen

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38
Q

IgM antibodies

A

first class of antibody secretyed after an antigen is encountered. IgM concentration declines as IgG production accelerates.

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39
Q

Epitopes

A

Triggers B cell stimulation. Most microorganisms can have multiples.

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40
Q

Partial antigens are too ___ to trigger B cell activation

A

small. They cannot bind to MHC.

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41
Q

Seven mechanisms of antibody action

A
  • Neutralization
  • Opsonization
  • Precipitation/agglutination/aggregation
  • Attraction of phagocytes
  • Stimulation of inflammation
  • prevention of bacterial adhesion
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42
Q

Part of innate immune system relies on…

A

proteases and cytokines

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43
Q

Neutralization

A

Prevents recognition of cell surface markers by blocking recognition sites

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44
Q

Agglutination/Aggregation

A

Antibodies link large numbers of antigens together

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45
Q

Attraction of phagocytes

A

Antibodies attached to antigens attract eosinophils, neutrophils, and macrophages

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46
Q

Opsonization

A

Enhances phagocytosis of smooth antigens/microbes by allowing for more efficient binding

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47
Q

Stimulation of inflammation

A

Stimulate basophils and mast cells (WBCs that release heparin and histamine)

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48
Q

Prevention of bacterial adhesion

A

Most notably in the saliva, mucus, and perspiration

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49
Q

Antibody titer

A

The amount of antibody in the plasma

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50
Q

Primary response to antigens

A

Titer remains high as long as exposure to an antigen is ongoing or suppressor T cells inhibit further immune response

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51
Q

Secondary response to antigens

A

Memory B cells respond right away - antibodies tend to be more effective and secreted in massive quantities

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52
Q

When is functional cell mediated immunity established?

A

three months

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53
Q

Humoral immunity establishes when?

A

four months

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54
Q

Fetal immune system is dominated by?

A

Maternal IgG antibodies (passive immunity)

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55
Q

Maternal immunity

A

Antibodies pass from mother to baby across placenta (IgG) or in mother’s milk

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56
Q

Cellular elements of the immunologic properties of human milk

A
  • Macrophages

- T and B cell lymphocytes

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57
Q

Noncellular elements of the immunologic properties of human milk

A
  • immunoglobins (Secretory IgA prodominant; also contains IgG, IgM, and IgE)
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58
Q

Immune tolerance

A

The degree of responsiveness of the immune system

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59
Q

Central tolerance

A

The way the immune system learns to discriminate self from non-self. Deletes autoreactive lymphocyte

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60
Q

Peripheral tolerance

A

Way of preventing hyper-reactivity of the immune system

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61
Q

Autoimmune disease

A

Loss of tolerance can lead to this

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62
Q

Positive selection of B and T cells

A

Must have correct compliment of CD markers to enter a functional state

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63
Q

Location of peripheral tolerance

A

Lymphoid organs

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64
Q

Autoimmunity

A

Occurs when there is the ability of self to recognize self

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65
Q

While a high level of autoimmunity is unhealthy;

A

a low level of autoimmunity may be beneficial

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66
Q

Autoimmune disorcers

A

Production of excessive antibodies

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67
Q

Activated B cells

A

Make autoantibodies against body cells

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68
Q

Different effects of autoimmune diseases

A
  • Damage to or destruction of tissues
  • Altered organ growth
  • Altered organ function
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69
Q

Lupus

A

Most distinctive sign of lupus is a facial rash that resembles wings of a butterfly

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70
Q

Multiple sclerosis

A

A progressive disorder. Diagnosed based on tingling, numbness, uncontrolled tremors, among other symptoms

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71
Q

Celiac disease

A

Autoimmune disorder where ingestion of gluten leads to damage in the small intestine

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72
Q

Immunodeficiency disease

A

Occurs when the immune system fails to develop normally during embryology or the immune response is blocked/surpressed

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73
Q

Primary immunodeficiency (congenital immunodeficiencies)

A

Many of these disorders are hereditary and are autosomal recessive or X-linked.

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74
Q

Secondary immunodeficiencies

A

Also called acquired immunodeficiencies. Can result from various immunosuppressive agents.

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75
Q

Examples of secondary immunodeficiencies

A

Malnutricion, aging and particular medications

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76
Q

Zoonoses

A

A jump of disease or virus from an animal from human. Ex is HIV

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77
Q

AIDS

A

stage of infection that occurs when the immune system is so badly damaged that the body becomes vulnerable to opportunistic infections

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78
Q

Malignant tumors

A

DO NOT mutate more frequently than normal cells. It is the evolutionary context that matters

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79
Q

Monoclonal antibodies

A

Lab-made versions of immune system proteins. Antibodies are designed to attack a very specific part of a cancer cell

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80
Q

Immune checkpoint inhibitors

A

Inhibit the checkpoint to upregulate the immune response

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81
Q

Cancer vaccines

A

Some vaccines can help prevent or treat cancer

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82
Q

Costimulation acts as a

A

negative regulator of T cell activity

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83
Q

Vaccines protect

A

individuals

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84
Q

Herd immunity

A

mechanism that protects populations. Leads to reduction and eventual removal of a disease from the population.

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85
Q

Herd immunity threshold

A

Diseases exhibit this based on their mechanisms of transmissions

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86
Q

For airborn diseases, herd immunity breaks down at vaccination rates below

A

80-95%

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87
Q

For diseases requiring exchange of bodily fluids herd immunity breaks down at vaccination rates

A

below 30-50%

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88
Q

Infected people can spread measles from

A

four days before through four days after the rash appears

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89
Q

Logical fallacies

A

Tricks or illusions of thought often wrapped in technical language meant to decieve people or elicit an emotional response (fear)

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90
Q

Burden of proof

A

The burden of proof lies with someone who is making a claim, and is not upon anyone else to disprove

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91
Q

methylmercury

A

type of mercury found in certain kinds of fist. At high exposures it can be toxic to people

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92
Q

ethylmercury

A

cleared from the human body more quickly and therefore less likely to cause any harm

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93
Q

Side effect of thimerosal in vaccines

A

Most common are minor reactions, the redness and swelling at the injection

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94
Q

Thimerosal was taken out of childhood vaccines in the US in

A

2001

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95
Q

Four of the most successful vaccinations in medical history

A
  • smallpox
  • polio
  • measels
  • tetanus
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96
Q

Measels facts

A
  • fever over 104 degrees, blindness, swelling of brain, pneumonia, and extreme discomfort
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97
Q

Tetanus facts

A
  • caused by bacteria usually found in soil, duct, and manure and enter the body through breaks in the skin - usually cuts or puncture wounds caused by contaminated objects
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98
Q

General rule for vaccines

A

The more similar a vaccine is to the disease-causing form of the organism, the better the immune response to the vaccine

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99
Q

Live, attenuated vaccines

A

Vaccines produced by growing the virus in tissue cultures that will select for less virulent strains, or by mutagenesis or targeted deletions in genes required for virulence

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100
Q

Upsides of Live, attenuated vaccines

A

Contain a weakened version of the living microbe. Elicit strong cellular and antibody responses and often confer lifelong immunity with only one or two doses. Easy to produce

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101
Q

Downsides of live, attenuated vaccines

A

Remote possibility exists that an attenuated microbe in vaccine could revert to virulent form and cause disease. Usually needs to be refrigerated to stay potent

102
Q

Inactivated vaccines

A

Produced by killing the disease-causing microbe with chemicals, heat, or radiation

103
Q

Upsides to inactivated vaccines

A
  • Such vaccines are more stable and safer than live vaccines.
  • The dead microbes cannot mutate back to their disease causing state.
  • Do not require refrigeration
104
Q

Subunit Vaccines

A

Instead of the entire microbe, includes only the antigens that best stimulate the immune system. Can contain anywhere from 1 to 20 or more antigens

105
Q

upsides to subunit vaccines

A

Because only contain the essential antigens and not all the other molecules that make up the microbe the changes of adverse reactions to vaccine are lower

106
Q

Downsides to subunit vaccines

A

Don’t know what antigens will trigger the response

107
Q

Toxoid vaccines

A

Used when a bacterial toxin is the main cause of illness

108
Q

Examples of toxoid vaccines

A

diphtheria, tetanus, and botulism

109
Q

example of subunit vaccine

A

Hepatitis B

110
Q

examples of inactivated vaccines

A

polio, annual flu shot

111
Q

Conjugate vaccines

A

Created by covalently attaching a poor antigen to a strong antigen to elicit a stronger immunological response to the poor antigen

112
Q

There are three types of influenza virus

A
  • A,B, and C.

- A and B types can cause flu epidemics

113
Q

Influenza A divided into subtypes based on two proteins on the surface of the virus:

A
  • Hemagglutinin (H)

- Neuraminidase (N)

114
Q

H1N1 influenza virus

A
  • 1918 spanish influenza

- Bird to human

115
Q

H2N2Influenza virus

A
  • 1957 Asain influenza

- Ressaortment of H2Ns avian virus and H1N1 human virus

116
Q

H3N2 Influenza virus

A
  • 1968 Hong kong influenza

- reassortment of H3 avian virus and H2N2 human virus

117
Q

Current vaccines produce antibodies that recognize

A

the hemagglutin, particularly the head region. It is the part of the virus that is most susceptible to antigenic drift

118
Q

Antigenic drift

A
  • Natural selection mediated by our own immune systems

- Flu evolves much more rapidly than do other viruses do

119
Q

Antigenic shift

A

Movement of pathogens from domestic animals or wildlife to humans
origin of zoonoses

120
Q

Challenges of living at altitude

A
  • Hypoxia
  • cold
  • aridity
  • solar radiation
  • diet
  • disease ecology
  • lifestyle
121
Q

Functions of the respiratory system

A
  • Exchange of gases with external enviornment
  • surface area for gas exchange
  • Protect respiratory surfaces from debris and infection
  • produce sounds of singing and speaking
  • Detection of odors
  • Regulate blood pressure and volume (conv. of angiotension II)
122
Q

3 major parts of respiratory system

A
  • Airway
  • lungs
  • muscle of respiration
123
Q

Nose consists of…

A

External nose and nasal cavity

124
Q

Naris (nostrils)

A

Two elliptical orifices on the external nose

125
Q

Nasal septum

A

Separates the naris

126
Q

Ala nasi

A

Lateral margin of nose, rounded and mobile

127
Q

Nasal cavity has

A
  • floor
  • roof
  • lateral wall
  • medial or septal wall
128
Q

Know floor of nasal cavity

A
  • palatine process of maxilla and the horizontal plate of palatine bone
  • know locations on skull
129
Q

Know roof of nasal cavity

A
  • nasal and frontal bone
  • cribiform plate by ethmoid
  • located beneath the anterior cranial fossa, posteriorly by the downard sloping body of the sphenoid
  • **know locations
130
Q

Nasal septum consists of…

A
  • Perpindicular plate of the ethmoid bone (superio)
  • Vomer (inferior)
  • septal cartilage (anterior)
131
Q

Medial wall of nasal cavity

A

The nasal septum, which divides the nasal cavity into right and left halves. Has occeus and cartilagenous parts

132
Q

Deviated septum

A
  • typically caused by facial trauma

- extreme cases can become obstructive, but surgical repair is rare

133
Q

Deviated septum

A
  • typically caused by facial trauma

- extreme cases can become obstructive, but surgical repair is rare

134
Q

Nasal concha

A

Nasal turbinate

135
Q

Meatus

A

space below each concha

136
Q

Function of Nasal turbinate

A

Responsible for filtration, heating, and humidification of air inhaled through the nose.
*marine bones

137
Q

Openings into the nasal cavity

A
  • Inferior meatus: Nasolacrimal duct
  • Middle Meatus: maxillary sinus, frontal sinus, anterior ethmoid sinuses
  • Superior meatus: posterior ethmoid sinuses
138
Q

Skin of external noses supplied by…

A

branches of the opthalmic and maxillary arteries

139
Q

Skin of the ala and lower part of the septum are supplied by…

A

branches from the facial artery

140
Q

Kiessalbach’s plexus

A

Responsible for the 90% of nosebleeds. Drying during inhalation

141
Q

Posterior epistaxis

A

5-10% nosebleeds. occur at Woodruff’s plecus. Located at posterior end of inferior turbinate. Occurs due to physiological deficiencies

142
Q

Review Scent slide

A
  • Olfactory tract
  • olfactory plate
    l lamina propria
  • olfactory epithelium
  • mucus layer
143
Q

Location of paranasal sinuses

A

Found in the interior of the maxilla., frontal, sphenoid, and ethmoid bones
*study head CT to know location

144
Q

Mucoperiosteumm

A

Mucus membrane attached directly to the periosteum. Lining of paranasal sinuses

145
Q

Mastoid air cells

A

Sits within the mastoid process of the temporal bone

146
Q

Functions of paranasal sinuses

A
  • resonators of the voice
  • reduce skull’s weights
  • help warm and moisten inhaled air (minimal gas exchange)
  • act as shock absorbers in trauma
  • contribute to facial shape/growth
147
Q

Sinusitis/rhinosinutis

A

Sinus infection

148
Q

Chronic rhinosinutis

A

May cause swollen membranes interfering with drainage, mucus buildup

149
Q

The first pharyngeal arch divides into

A

Maxillary and mandibulary prominences

150
Q

Know location of pharyngeal arches

A
  • frontonasal prominence
  • maxillary prominence
  • mandibular arch
151
Q

Each pharyngeal arch consists of

A

a core of neural crest derived mesenchymal tissue covered by surface ectoderm and on the inside by epithelium

152
Q

The human has four pairs of…

A

Pharyngeal pouches

153
Q

Look at picture of development of anterior pathway

A
  • focus on lateral nasal process and maxillary process
154
Q

Cleft lip and palate occurs in about

A

1 to 2 per 1000 births in developed world due to failure of prominence fusion

155
Q

Know the different cartilages associated with anterior airways

A
  • mandibular arch
  • meckel’s cartilage
  • reichert’s cartilage
  • cardiac bulge
  • hyoid arch
  • bone of hyoid
  • styloid ligament
  • thyroid cartilage
  • cricoid cartilage
156
Q

Identify all structures of development of anterior airway on SEM or on diagram

A
  • Frontonasal process
  • Maxillary Process
  • stomodeum
  • mandibular process
  • hyoid
  • medial nasal and lateral nasal process
157
Q

Laryngeal cartilages

A
  • thyroid
  • cricoid
  • arytenoid
  • Epiglottis (the lid)
  • Corniculate
  • Cuneform
158
Q

Laryngeal ligaments

A

Thyrohyoid

Cricohyoid

159
Q

Laryngeal innvervation

A

Vagus

Superior laryngeal nerve

160
Q

Role of breathing (Larynx)

A

Open glottis

161
Q

Role in cough reflex (Larynx)

A

Close, then open glottis

162
Q

Role in swallowing (Larynx)

A

Close glottis

163
Q

Role in voice (Larynx)

A

Close glottis and adjust vocal fold tension

164
Q

True vocal cords

A

“Folds” or “ligaments”

165
Q

Know structures of the larynx

A
  • laryngeal
  • thyroid cartilage
  • cricoid cartilage
  • tracheal cartilage
  • trachea
  • superior horns of thyroid cartilage
  • epiglottis
  • vocal fold
166
Q

Phonation

A

Process of making sound

167
Q

Air pressure system role in sound production

A

Provides and regulates air pressure to cause vocal folds to vibrate

168
Q

Air pressure system organs

A

Diaphragm, chest muscles, ribs, abdominal muscles, lungs

169
Q

Vibratory system role in sound production

A

Vocal folds vibrate, changing air pressure to sound waves producing “voiced sound”, frequently described as a “buzzy sound”
Varies pitch of sound

170
Q

Vibratory system organs

A 
Voice box (Larynx)
Vocal folds
171
Q

Resonating system role in sound production

A

Changes the “buzzy sound” into a person’s recognizable voice

172
Q

Resonating system organs

A

Vocal tract: throat (pharynx), oral cavity, nasal passages

173
Q

Bernoulli effect

A

Caused by the low pressure created behind the fast moving air column during vocal fold vibration. This causes the bottom to close, followed by the top

174
Q

Any change that affects the mucosal wave of vocal fold vibration…

A

can cause vocal problems

175
Q

What changes can affect the mucosal wave of the vocal fold vibration?

A

-Stiffness of vocal fold layers, weakness or failure of closure, imbalance between R and L vocal folds from a lesion on one vocal fold

176
Q

Voice as we know it =

A

Voiced sound + Resonance + articulation

177
Q

Voiced sound

A

The sound produced by vocal fold vibration

178
Q

Resonance

A

Voiced sound is amplified and modified by the vocal tract resonators (throat, mouth cavity, sinuses, and nasal passages). Resonators produce a person’s recognizable voice

179
Q

Articulation

A

The vocal tract articulators (tongue, soft palate, and lips)modify the voiced sound. The articulators produce recognizable words

180
Q

Voice depends onf vocal fold…

A

vibration and resonance

181
Q

110 cycles per second or hz (men)

A

lower pitch

182
Q

180 to 220 cycles per second (women)

A

medium pitch

183
Q

300 cycles per second (children)

A

higher pitch

184
Q

Higher voice

A

increase in frequency of vocal fold vibration

185
Q

Louder voice

A

Increase in amplitude of vocal fold vibrations

186
Q

Articulation of the different vowel sounds depends on

A
  • THe point of constriction
  • the degree of constriction
  • the degree of lip-rounding
  • the degree of muscle tension
187
Q

Voiced consonants

A

produced with the vocal cords vibrating

188
Q

voiceless consonants

A

produced with the vocal cords open

189
Q

Uvulars

A

consonants articulated with the back of the tongue against or near the uvula

190
Q

Resonant frequency of each of our voices differ depending on

A

size and shape of:

  • Vocal tract
  • oral cavity
  • nasal cavity
  • paranasal sinuses
191
Q

Larynx is mechanosensitive

A

glottis will close if it is irritated

192
Q

Tradheotomy

A

cut between 2nd and 3rd tracheal cartilages

193
Q

Esophagotracheal ridges

A

Separates lung buds from foregut when the diverticulum expands caudally

194
Q

Esophagotracheal septum

A

The esophagotracheal ridges fuse to form this

195
Q

Laryngeal orfice

A

How the respiratory primordium maintains its communication with the pharynx

196
Q

Lingual frenulum

A

Serves as a guide for the foward growth of the tongue during early gestation

197
Q

After birth

A

the tip of the ongue continues to elongate

198
Q

Wharton’s ducts

A

Two largest ducts in the center just in front of the attachment of the lingual frenulum. Source of “gleeking”

199
Q

Ankyloglossia

A

tongue tied = short frenulum

200
Q

Esophageal atresia

A

Abnormalities in partitioning of the esophagus and trachea by the tracheoesophageal septum

201
Q

Tracheoesophageal fistulas

A

can or cannot be part of the esophageal artesia

*see diagram

202
Q

Fistula

A

Abnormal connection

203
Q

Artesia

A

Blind ending pouch

204
Q

Pain from disease of the heart or its pericardial layers can be referred to

A

the upper shoulder via the phrenic nerve

205
Q

know locations of right and left lung on model

A
  • right phrenic nerve
  • right lung
  • left lung
  • respiratory diaphragm
  • left phrenic nerve
206
Q

Phrenic nerve

A

Originates at C3-C5 and passes down between lung and heart to reach the diaphragm

207
Q

Spinal injuries at C4 and above are

A

fatal without intervention

208
Q

Irritation of the phrenic nerve is the cause of

A

hiccups

209
Q

Esophagus lies _ to the trachea

A

Posterior

210
Q

Trachealis muscle

A

Can decrease diameter of trachea to forcibly expel air (coughing)

211
Q

Know locations inside trachea

A
  • esophagus
  • trachealis muscle
  • mucosa
  • submucosa
  • submucous gland in submucousa
  • hyaline cartilage
212
Q

Trachea and bronchi locations

A

At level of carina, trachia divides into:

  • main stem (primary) bonchi
  • secondary (lobar) bonchi
  • tertiary (segmenta) bonchi
  • look at the diagram of both
213
Q

Mucous membrane of the carina

A

is the most sensitive area of the trachea and larynx for triggering a cough reflex

214
Q

The bronchi are not

A

Symmetric

215
Q

Inhaled objects typically become lodged in the

A

right bronchus

216
Q

Right bronchus compared to left

A
  • wider
  • shorter
  • steeper
  • 2cm
217
Q

Pleura diagram

A
  • Parietal pleura parts: Cervical, costal, diaphragmatic, mediastinal
  • pleural cavity
  • costodiaphragmatic recess
  • cardiac notch
218
Q

Costodiaphragmatic recess

A

Lungs partially fill these during inhalation

219
Q

Pleural effusion

A

Site of fluid buildup following traumatic injury

220
Q

Pneumothorax

A

Accumulation of air in the pleural space

221
Q

What does each lung contain?

A
  • an apex
  • three surfaces (costal, medial, and diaphragmatic)
  • three borders (anterior, inferior, and posterior)
222
Q

Know how to identify right and left lung through models

A
  • right lung has 3 lobes

- left lung has 2

223
Q

Hilium of the lung

A

a groove that allows passage of the primary bronchi, pulmonary vessels, nerves, and lymphatics

224
Q

What forms the root of the lung?

A

Bronchi and pulmonary vessels, which extend from the trachea and heart

225
Q

Lymph nodes collect

A

carbon, dust particles, and pollutants that were not filtered out by the pseudostratified columnar epithelium

226
Q

Gas exchange can take place in the

A
  • respiratory bronchioles and alveolar ducts

- also in alveoli

227
Q

Know the general structure of respiratory apparatus

A
  • bronchopulmonary segment which contains: smaller bronchi, bronchioles, terminal bronchile, respiratory bronchiol, alveoli
228
Q

Pneumonia

A

Inflammation of lobules

229
Q

Effects of pneumonia

A

Causes fluid to leak into alveoli

Compromises function of respiratory membrane

230
Q

Spongy nature of the lung is due to

A

packing of millions of alveoli together

231
Q

Type I cells in alveolus

A

Simple squamous cells forming lining

232
Q

Type II cells in alveolus

A

Septal cells that secrete surfactant

233
Q

Pulmonary surfactant

A

Mixture of lipids and proteins which is secreted by the epithelial type II cells into alveolar space

234
Q

Function of primary surfactant

A

Reduce the surface tension at the air/liquid interface of the lung

235
Q

Angiotension-converting enzyme (ACE)

A

Produced by endothelial cells. Converts angiotension I to Angiotension II. Active in regulation of blood volume

236
Q

Sinusitis

A

Inflammation of nasal cavities

237
Q

Pharyngitis

A

strep throat

238
Q

laryngitis

A

Inflammation of the larynx

239
Q

Bronchitis

A

Dry cough that may lead to pneumonia

240
Q

Pneumonia

A

Inflammation of lungs, alveoli fill with fluid

241
Q

Occult stage non-small lung cancer

A

Cancer cells found in sputum, but no tumor can be found in the lung by imaging tests or bronchoscopy

242
Q

Stage 0 non-small cell lung cancer

A

Carcinoma in situ. Cancer tiny in size and has not spread into deeper lung tissues or outside of lungs

243
Q

Stage I non-small cell lung cancer

A

Cancer may be present in the underlying lung tissues, BUT LYMPH NODES REMAIN UNAFFECTED

244
Q

Stage II non-small cell lung cancer

A

The cancer may have spread to nearby lymph nodres or into crest wall

245
Q

Tuberculosis

A

Highly contageous infection of lungs.
spreads through air
Antiobiotic resistance growing problem

246
Q

Cystic fibrosis

A
  • Thick, sticky mucus blocks airway
  • bacterial infection
  • widened airway
  • blood in mucus
247
Q

CFTR critical to

A

Involved in production of sweat, digestive fluids, and mucus.
Mutations involved with cystic fibrosis

248
Q

Dichotomous branching forms

A

bronchial buds

249
Q

After a pseudoglandular and canalicular phase, cells of the respiratory bronchioles change into

A

thin, flat cells, type I alveolar epithelial cells

250
Q

Growth of the lungs after birth is primarily due to what

A

an increase in the number of respiratory bronchioles and alveoli and notto an increase in alveoli size

251
Q

Embryonic breathing movements

A

strengthen respiratory muscles

252
Q

One cause of respiratory distress

A

Lack of sufficient surfactant to prevent alveoli collapse

BIOL 243 (3 decks)

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