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Host Defense Test 1-2 > Test 2 > Flashcards

Test 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is RSS?

A

Recombination signal sequence

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2
Q

What’s the significance of RSS 23/12?

A

12 can’t combine with 12, 23 can’t combine with 23. they have to combine 12-23. This makes sure that a V-region will get set up with a J region.

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3
Q

What’s a TdT?

A

Terminal deoxynucleotydal transferase

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4
Q

How does TdT add diversity?

A

It adds random nucleotides to insure diversity

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5
Q

How does the heavy chain recombine?

A

The D-J regions combine (closer to the C region) then the V region combines with the D-J (you end up with V-D-J) which codes the Heavy chain (inner parts of the antibody)

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6
Q

What’s the process of RAG and TdT receptor rearrangements?

A
  1. RAG: cuts DNA at specific sites
  2. TdT: adds random bases
  3. DNA repair enzymes resolve the DNA breaks
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7
Q

What is the HV 1,2,3 on the antibody?

A

It’s the very end of the antibody that binds to antigens (so it’s very “hypervariable”) There are 3 regions on both the light and heavy chain. So there are 6 total region per receptor

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8
Q

Which HV (hypervariable regions) are the most diverse and why?

A

HV3 (cdr3) on both heavy and light chain.

Because it’s where the final recombination takes places between V-DJ heavy and V-J light. So it’s more variable

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9
Q

What gender is affected by x-linked agammaglobulinemia more?

A

Males

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10
Q

What happens with XL agammaglobulinemia?

A

The body can’t produce mature b-cells (can’t fight infection well)

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11
Q

What is the Bruton Tyrosine Kinase?

A

Gene on X-chromosome produces BTK…which helps with B-cell maturation (H and L chain rearrangement)

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12
Q

What is passive immunity?

A

Transfer of antibodies from one person to another

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13
Q

What is CVID (common variable immunodeficiency)??

A

Problems with late b-cell maturation (in secondary tissues) treated same as xl-agamma. Usually acquired by mutation of late b-cell development.

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14
Q

What are the differences between TCR’s and B cells?

A

TCR’s only see antigen peptide that’s on a MHC

B cells have antibodies that can go out and see any antigen

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15
Q

What does TCR bind to?

A

The MHC

and the Antigen being presented

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16
Q

What MHC class is endogenous?

A

MHC class I

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17
Q

What MHC class is exogenous?

A

MHC class II

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18
Q

What is SIRS?

A

systemic inflammatory response syndrome (a variety of processes)

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19
Q

What is sepsis?

A

2 SIRS criteria and infection. Bad stuff

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20
Q

What is severe sepsis?

A

Sepsis plus organ dysfunction

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21
Q

What is septic shock?

A

Sepsis plus hypotension despite fluid resuscitation

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22
Q

What is MODS?

A

Multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (altered organ function in an acutely ill patient, will die without treatment)

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23
Q

What are some of the manifestations of sepsis?

A 
fever (fever beaver)
hypotension (hippo)
LOC (loss of consciounceness)
increase WBC (with left shift)
Tachycardia
Tachypnea
Hyperglycemia (hiker glue man)
Edema (edamame)
Microthrombi (microtrombones)
DIC (disseminated intracellular coagulation)
Decrease O2 pressure
Oliguria (old gopher urinating)
High output heart failure
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24
Q

What’s the key for Proinflammation and Antiflammation balance?

A

When you get infection you have “Proinflammatory” and if the “anti-inflammatory” doesn’t respond similar to the proinflammation you can get death. (you can get too much or too little anti-inflammatory both of which end in death)

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25
Q

What to look for in children Sepsis SIRS?

A

Bad temperature (fever, chills)
Tachycardia/Bradycardia
Respiratory Rate (they are normally faster anyways)
High or Low WBC (or 10% left shift)

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26
Q

Why do neonates have problems with sepsis?

A 
Fever is bad
Less IgG produced
Declining maternal IgG
Less cytokines produced
Decreased function of neutrophils
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27
Q

What is SBI?

A

Serious bacterial infection

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28
Q

What would cause you to worry about SBI in 0-3 month olds?

A

fever above 38

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29
Q

What are the three SBI’s common in infants?

A

Meningitis
Bacteremia
UTI (most common)
…….0-30 days is the worst.

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30
Q

What are the 3 bacterial pathogens in neonate SBI’s?

A

Group B strep
E. Coli (and other Gram -)
Listeria Monocytogenes

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31
Q

What is GBS (group B strep) like?

A

Gram +
Beta hemolytic
Landfield Group B

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32
Q

CMV torch picmonic

A

side toe mega virus torch
Nonspecific torch (jaundice, trombone peanut, hepatosplenomegaly)
Headphones on caesar while peeing(deafness, seizures, urine culture)
re-tarred book in uterus
Pear on cow with vent
Tiki mask with rash

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33
Q

CMV picmonic

A 
Side toe mega virus
Envelope on owl 
High five hand on harp
DNA train track
Baby with torch
Nuclear monkey
Nun with hat files
Band-Aid sarcophagus with red eyes
Train plants
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34
Q

Ganciclovir picmonic

A 
Gandolf with clover
Side toe mega virus
Moon compromised (patients)
G-iguana on a log
DNA bridge break up
Polly Mirror parrot (inhibition)
He-man blood (hematologic effects)
Frodo toxic (nephrotoxicity)
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35
Q

Rubella Torch picmonic

A 
Red Bell torch
Non specific torch symptoms (jaundice, hepatosplenomegaly, thrombo-cytopenia)
Cadillac
Duck artery
Lung hippo plates
Blueberry muffin
Glock
Headphones
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36
Q

Toxoplasma Gondii Picmonic

A 
Gandhi in Tux with plasma TV
Propeller protozoa
Torch Symptoms
Sisters on the Meat
Cat poop
Pregnant women (crosses the placenta)
Brain (with lesions) in HIV patients
Ring enhancing lesions
Pirate moth man (pyrimethamine)
Sulfur dice (sulfadiazine)
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37
Q

Varicella Zoster picmonic

A 
Varsity Zorro with envelope
Harp on 3 tree
ds DNA line
Chicken with head on fire (chicken pox, encephalitis)
Nude Mona (in adults)
Door on the root with tri-gems
shingles on the roof
Giant nuclear shell
Cow-drying on the line
Tank test (Tzank smear)
Apple cycops (aciclovir)
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38
Q

Herpes Simplex Virus picmonic

A 
Two Harp sister viruses with envelopes
ds DNA line (with cow drying)
Type 1 Harp
Carrot in eyes (keratoconjunctivitis)
Ginger in the mouth (gingivostomatitis)
Brain on fire (encephalititis)
3 gems 
Type 2 harp (in the tutu)
Baby with the harps (neonatal herpes)
Torch in babies hand
Resting in the "sac" sacral ganglia
Genital gentleman in vest (genital vesicles)
Tank test (tzank smear)
Giant nuclear shell
Apple Cyclops (acyclovir)
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39
Q

Sepsis assessment picmonic

A 
Snake and assessor
Infection spreading
Fever Beaver
hippo with Blood pressure
LOC
Increase WBC's
Tack Cardiac
Tack P lung
Hiker Glue man (hyperglycemia) 
Edamame (edema)
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40
Q

Severe Sepsis and Septic Shock picmonic

A 
Micro trombones
DICe (disseminated intra-cellular coagulation)
Decreased O2 bottle
Old gopher urinating (oliguria)
High output cardiac failure
MODS
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41
Q

What is IAP? neonates

A

Intrapartum Antibacterial Prophylaxis

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42
Q

What antibiotics are given for IAP? neonates

A
  1. Penicillin
  2. Cefazolin
  3. Clindamycin (last resort if susceptible)
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43
Q

When does screening occur for IAP

A

35-37

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44
Q

What TORCH infection leads to hearing loss and microcephaly?

A

CMV

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45
Q

What 2 clinical signs are common with Rubella

A 
Cataracts
Heart defect (Patent Ductus Arteriosus)
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46
Q

What are 2 clinical signs for T. gondii?

A

Hydrocephalus

Chorioretinitis

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47
Q

What are the 4 origins of antibiotics?

A
  1. accident from mold or bacteria (synthesized on it’s own)
  2. accident…drug made for something else, and it’s antibiotic as well
  3. Targeted at metabolic pathways
  4. Manipulated old antibiotics
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48
Q

What is MIC? antibiotics

A

Minimum inhibitory concentration (the minimum concentration needed to kill the bug)

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49
Q

What are the two dilution tests?

A

Broth macrodilution

Automated broth microdilution

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50
Q

What are the two diffusion tests?

A

Disk diffusion test

E-test method

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51
Q

E-coli picmonic

A 
E-Coal Eye
Graham cracker Devil (neg) with rod (bacillus)
Toilet (diarrhea)
Purple plate with green sheen
Pink Monkey (pink on makonkey plate)
Fern in Milk (lactose fermenting)
Lip-kiss Apple With Snake
P-pili pylonephritis cystitis 
K cap men in tights (with baby)
K cap nude mona
H Ant with Gems and flagella
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52
Q

Lysteria Monocytogenes picmonic

A 
Lizard Monacle Jeans
Graham cracker angel with Cockeyed rod and evil LPS balloon (only graham pos. with endotoxin)
In a cell
In a cold Cell
By a tumble weed (tumbling motility)
Actin Rocket at the Beta Fish
Positive Cat
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53
Q

Syphilis picmonic

A 
Sysiphis greek god
Tripod pendulum (treponema pallidum)
Mobile spirochete
Chain car
Condom latte
Rash on palms/feet
Granny llama Gum (granulomatous gummas)
Aorta Orca (aortitis)
Table Door
Neurons 
Vase in a Vase
Argyle Robertson pupils
Pencil man
Jewish Hercules
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54
Q

Streptococcus Agalactiae picmonic

A 
Galactic stripper
B-costume
Cockeyed Graham cracker angel
Beta fish
Negative cat
Resisting Bass
Vagina flower
Baby
Nude Mona
Men in tights
Sepsis snake
Camp factor with Staph oreos 
35-37 weeks
Pencil Man
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55
Q

Onychomycychosis picmonic

A

Turbine sucking fins (terbinafine medication)
Dermatologist toes itch (dermatophytosis)
Girl “on-a-mic-nail fungus” (onychomychosis)
Inhibits the Square Whale (inhibits squalene epoxidase)

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56
Q

Staph Aureus characteristics picmonic

A 
Staph of Oreos
Positive Graham cracker angel with cockeyes
Positive Cat
Positive Clogs on the cat (coagulase pos)
Beta Fish
Protein apple (protein A virulence)
Dead Pac Man (inhibits phagocytosis)
Mr. SAw (MRSA)
Resistant to B-lactams on PBP
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57
Q

What organism causes impetigo?

A

Staph Aureus (picmonic skin suit guy)

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58
Q

What organism causes furuncles, and cellulitis?

A

Staph Aureus (picmonic skin suit man)

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59
Q

Staph aureus Disease picmonic

A

Staph of Oreos
Skin suit man (skin diseases, impetigo, furuncles, zits, cellulitis)
Abscess guy (skin abscesses)
Nude Mona
Shocked Tampon (toxic shock)
MHC tutu with Tennis balls (toxin binds MHC 2, TCR)
Exfoliating scalded man (Scalded skin syndrome, exfoliative toxin)
Bacteria -in-donut-Cards (bacterial endocarditis)
Egg salad toilet
Skeleton on fire (osteomyelitis)

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60
Q

What causes Tinea corporis, versicolor?

A

Fungus ringworm (Fungus in a Tin cup being poured onto the skin of a worm)

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61
Q

Molluscum Contagiosum picmonic

A 
Double stranded DNA Line
Small fox with envelope
Nun ice-cathedral
Cow fox
Contagious Mollusks with umbilical lesions
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62
Q

When is a Tzank smear used?

A

VZV
HSV
CMV

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63
Q

What’s the difference in “transient” vs “continuous” bacteremia?

A

Transient: comes and goes (it clears pretty quick)
Continuous: comes and stays (it can’t clear fast enough)

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64
Q

What is Rheumatic fever?

A

disease that occurs bc of inadequately treated strep throat, or scarlet fever

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65
Q

What causes Rheumatic Heart disease (rare)

A

Rheumatic fever, scars the heart valves

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66
Q

What causes IE (infective endocarditis) 5 steps

A 
Turbulent blood flow (blood flow is messed up)
Endothelial cells get activated
Fibrin and platelets deposit
Bacteria seeds that area
Bacteria grow on the fibrin biofilm
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67
Q

What are the BIG 3 organisms that cause IE (infectious endocarditis)?

A

Staph A
Strep
Enterococci

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68
Q

Enterococci picmonic

A 
Intestine Cockeyed
Positive Graham Cracker Angel with Salt (grows in harsh salt environments)
Negative Cat in the Bile Nile river
In-donut-cards (endocarditis)
Colon flowers (normal colonic flora)
UTI on fire
Resisting pencil man
Resisting Van-mice
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69
Q

What kind of organism causes IE in IVDU’s?

A

Yeast

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70
Q

What are the two ‘culture negative’ organisms that cause IE?

A

Coxiella burnetii

Bartonella sp.

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71
Q

What are complications of IE?

A 
Heart Failure
Infarcts
Stroke
Glomerulonephritis
Mycotic aneurysms
Abscesses
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72
Q

What causes Omenn’s syndrome?

A

RAG mutation (get scids)

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73
Q

What has more diversity….TCR or BCR?

A

TCR

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74
Q

What does CD3 do? (in the TCR)

A

It chaperones TCR to the surface

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75
Q

Which cells express Class I MHC?

A

All cells

76
Q

Which cells express MHC Class II

A

Antigen Presenting Cells

77
Q

What does CD8 attach to?

A

MHC class I

78
Q

What does CD4 attach to ?

A

MHC class II

79
Q

What are the binding regions on MHC class I?

A

alpha/alpha

80
Q

What are the binding regions on MHC class II?

A

Alpha/Beta

81
Q

What genes are the most polymorphic?

A

MHC class 1/2

82
Q

What do TAP proteins do? MHC

A

transporter for peptide to take it to the ER (where it hooks onto the MHC)

83
Q

What does ERAP do? MHC

A

chops the peptide down to the right size (9 amino acids) then MHC travels to surface

84
Q

What does the invariant chain do? MHC class 2

A

It’s the cork in the MHC class 2 that blocks protein (becomes a small clip later) from getting into the binding site. Clip comes off in vesicle allowing peptide to bind

85
Q

What MHC class does endosome vesicles? Extracellular

A

MHC class 2

86
Q

What MHC class does intracellular?

A

MHC class 1

87
Q

What’s Bare lymphocyte syndrome?

A

No expression of MHC class 1, so no activity with T cells

88
Q

What’s Bare Lymphocyte Syndrome type 1?

A

deficient in TAP protein (which lets the peptide in the ER for placing in the MHC).

89
Q

What does the 3rd pharyngeal pouch do?

A

epithelial Thymus

90
Q

What’s hassals corpuscle?

A

graveyard in thymus

91
Q

Where is positive T cell selection?

A

cortex

92
Q

Where is negative T cell selection?

A

Medulla

93
Q

What happens to the thymus in DiGeorge Syndrome?

A

Thymus doesn’t develop as well.

94
Q

What does the Notch pathway do?

A

Notch ligand (thymus) hooks onto Notch1 (early Tcell) which then cuts and the Notch 1 goes to the Tcell nucleus to start the pathway.

95
Q

Is Beta (TCR) like the heavy or light chain?

A

Heavy (2 chances to rearrange)

96
Q

What does IL-7 do in the Thymus?

A

induces proliferation of T-cells in the thymus

97
Q

What is AIRE? in the thymus?

A

It helps the thymus make tissue specific “self antigens” for negative selection

98
Q

What is APECED? (type 1 APS)

A

mutations in AIRE (thymus) causes auto immune disease

99
Q

What is CD80/86?

A

It’s a B7 protein on mature dendritic cells (that can then activate Tcells

100
Q

Where are the T cells in the lymph node?

A

paracortical (between medulla and cortex)

101
Q

How are B cells and T cells segregated? zones

A

Chemokines

102
Q

What chemokine attracts T cells and DC’s?

A

CCR7

103
Q

What chemokine attracts Bcells?

A

CXCR5

104
Q

What is B7 good for on APC’s?

A

It’s the second handshake on APC’s (to the CD 28 on Naive T cell) but only when there’s an infection

105
Q

What happens with the CTLA-4 on Tcells?

A

After a few days of CD 28-B7 interaction the Tcell needs rest, and the CTLA-4 inhibits the B7.

106
Q

If you block CD40/40L or B7/CD28 what happens?

A

It inhibits the immune system (for transplant patients)

107
Q

What does cSMAC vs pSMAC do? (t-cell and apc)

A

cSMAC is signaling receptors

pSMAC is adhesion

108
Q

What is the phosporylation cascade in Tcell activation?

A

MHC binds to TCR
This phosporylates ITAM
Zap70 binds to ITAM and gets phosphorylated
Zap70 is then activated by LcK
This all leads to IL-2mRNA production (this leads to clonal expansion)

109
Q

What is IL-2 for in Tcell activation?

A

it helps with clonal expansion

110
Q

What are 6 cytokines that drive Tcell clonal expansion

A 
IL-2,
IL 4,
IL 7,
IL 15,
IL 21,
IFN
111
Q

What causes SCID?

A

defect in the gamma chain (so low tcells and Bcells)

112
Q

What is BAFF?

A

B cell activating factor (in the periphery)

113
Q

How many % of Bcells in the spleen are in the follicle?

A

90%

114
Q

What does the spleen filter in the marginal zone?

A

blood

115
Q

Once Bcell passes negative selection what Ig does it have?

A

IgM

IgD

116
Q

What are the 4 possibilities for B cell differentiation?

A
  1. Antibody secretion
  2. isotype switching
  3. Affinity maturation
  4. Memory Bcell
117
Q

Which Bcell differentiation is Tcell independent?

A

Antibody secretion

118
Q

WHat are the three signals for Tcell activation?

A
  1. MHC/TCR and CD4
  2. CD28/B7
  3. cytokine from apc
119
Q

What are the differentiated CD4 helper T cells?

A 
Th17
Th1
Th2
Tfh
Treg
120
Q

When does Tcell produce CD40L?

A

When its activated

121
Q

What does Th1 secrete to help activate macrophages?

A

IFNg

122
Q

What T cell enhances the DC cell to do its work?

A

Th1

123
Q

What T cell enhances the macrophages in delayed type hypersensitivity tests?

A

Th1

124
Q

What do Th1 secrete?

A

IL-2

IFNg

125
Q

What response is Th1?

A

Inflammatory

126
Q

What response is Th2?

A

Allergic, parasites

127
Q

What does Th2 mainly bind to and activate?

A

Mast cells

128
Q

What’s the process for Th2?

A

IL-4….activates Tcell….GATA-3….becomes Th2….secretes IL-4,IL-5, IL-10

129
Q

What does Th2 and IL-10 do to macrophages?

A

Inhibit macrophages (inhibit inflammation)

130
Q

What does perforins and granzymes do to a cell? from Cytotoxic T

A

Perforin: punches a hole
Granzymes: destroys the cell

131
Q

What are the two types of leprosy?

A

tuberculoid and lepromatous

132
Q

Which leprosy is fast moving, infectious, and has low Tcell responsiveness?

A

Lepromatous leprosy

133
Q

What type of Tcell works with tuberculous, and tuberculoid leprosy?

A

Th1

134
Q

What T cell is the main cause of autoimmunity?

A

Th17

135
Q

What Tcell activates neutrophils most?

A

Th17 (through IL-17)

136
Q

What does ITAM do in Bcells?

A

Initiate Bcell activation through phosphorylation? (ITIM = inhibition)

137
Q

What is the Bcell equivalent of CD3 on tcell?

A

Ig-alph/beta

138
Q

How is complement important in Bcell activation?

A

It reduces the amount of antigen needed (CR1 bcell cleaves C3 pathogen…C3 binds to CR2 bcell)

139
Q

What are the possible sources of 2nd signal for Bcell activation?

A 
Tcell (CD28)
Microbe toxin (LPS)
140
Q

Do Tcell independent bcell responses have memory cells?

A

No, not many

141
Q

Do thymus dependent bcell reactions have isotype switching and memory cells?

A

Yes

142
Q

What is CD40L/CD40 on the bcell/tcell interaction for?

A

Stimulates proliferation of Bcell

143
Q

What is the B7/CD28 on bcell/tcell interaction for?

A

Induces Tcell to make CD40L

144
Q

If you have Hyper IgM syndrome what don’t you produce?

A

No CD40L’s, and no germinal centers (lots of IgM)

145
Q

What happens with Isotype switching?

A

The C regions (constant) gets switched with AID

146
Q

What makes makes isotype switching important?

A

The different c regions accomplish different tasks (IgM=complement, IgG=mast cell)

147
Q

What are two ways to make unique isotypes? Bcell

A 
Isotype switching (switch the C regions)
Affinity maturation: Somatic hypermutation (mutate the Variable C-regions)
148
Q

What is AID? and what does it help induce?

A

Activation induced cytidine deaminase……Helps with Isotype switching

149
Q

What does AID result in?

A

mutations in the C region, recombine and make a new C. (DNA bubble cause the C’s get taken out)

150
Q

What’s a second way to get hyper IgM immunodeficiency? other than CD40L deficiency

A

AID deficiency

151
Q

If BCR and the FcReceptor are both engaged by antigen and FcAntibody what happens?

A

Negative feedback, antibody production slows down (there’s enough antibody already)

152
Q

What’s the FoxP3 transcription for?

A

Treg cells

153
Q

What does Th1 respond to?

A

infection (activates macrophages)

154
Q

What does Th2 respond to?

A

Allergic (activates mast cells)

155
Q

Thank Goodness its Friday, said the regulator Fox(p3) Thank goodness its friday, he opens a ten pack of beer.

A

TGF-b induces FoxP3 to make a Treg (which secretes TGF-b, IL-10)

156
Q

The best Tcells (#1) live in Tibet, 12 years olds, they love to interfere before and after events. In Tibet they start at 12 years old and change to 2 year olds because of macrophages.

A

IL-12, IFN-g induces T-bet, which becomes Th1 and secretes IFN, IL-2

157
Q

Bunch of angry gators with allergies are always 2nd place (Th2) because they start with 4 teeth, and they need 5 teeth to win. Some end with five some end with 4

A

IL-4 induces GATA-3 which makes a Th2 cell which secretes IL-4,IL-5 (IL-10 also helps by suppressing macrophages. slide #20)

158
Q

17 year old wakes up and ROARS at 6am. “Thank goodness it’s friday” Gets out of school at 17:00 and at 6pm workouts out their “neuts” and get fungal infections

A

TGF, IL-6 induces RORyT to become a T17 cell, which secretes IL-17 and IL-6

159
Q

A 6 year old wants to become a follicular cell so he eats BcLva and turns into a 21 year old follicle

A

IL-6 induces BcL6 to become a Tfh cell which secretes IL-21

160
Q

What does IL-2 (from Th1 cells) help with?

A

proliferating Tcells

161
Q

What is DC licensing?

A

When a Th1 enhances a DC cell to get to work

162
Q

What are the two molecules used by CD8 Cytotoxic T cells to kill cells?

A

Perforin (makes a hole)

Granzymes (tears up the cell from the inside)

163
Q

Difference in Tuberculoid leprosy vs Lepramatous leprosy?

A

Tuberculoid: slow, low infection, contained locally, Ig Normal, Tcells respond normal
Lepramatous: fast growth in macrophages, high infection, disseminated, hyper gammaglobulinemia, Low Tcell

164
Q

What cytokine is most likely to cause autoimmunity?

A

IL-17

165
Q

What other types of Tcells can make Tfh cells?

A

All the Th cells have the ability to transform into a Tfh cell (Tfh cell helps Bcells become plasma cells, or memory B)

166
Q

What three things is Tfh required for?

A
  1. germinal center formation
  2. Isotype switching
  3. Bcell memory
167
Q

If a Tfh cell doesn’t have good CD40L what will happen?

A

Germinal centers won’t form, IgM will be the only Ig in circulation

168
Q

If you don’t get a good “stats” “Job” when you’re “17” you’ll get boils and abscesses.

A

Job’s syndrome: IL-17 malfunction

169
Q

What are the two different pathways that CD8 cytotoxic Tcells can use for killing a cell?

A
  1. Perforin then granzymes
  2. Fas/FasL
    ……both pathways use caspase
170
Q

What is CD25 a receptor for?

A

IL-2

171
Q

What’s an IPEX patient missing?

A

Treg cells

172
Q

What are peripheral induced Treg cells called?

A

Adaptive

173
Q

What are thymus derived Treg cells called?

A

natural

174
Q

What are two causes of impetigo? treatment

A

group a Strep
Staph A
penicillin

175
Q

What does pus equal?

A

Staph A

176
Q

What does crust equal?

A

Strep a.

177
Q

What is Staph Epidermis known for?

A

prosthetic joint infections

178
Q

What does is the pathogen in Animal bites? gram (-)rod

A

Pasteurella Multocida

179
Q

What is Vibrio vulnificus?

A

Salt water environment bug, gram (-)

180
Q

What causes the Rose gardener/fish tank rash?

A

Sporotrichoid (sporothrix schenckii) Roses have spores.

181
Q

What causes Cellulitis/erysipilis most often?

A

Strep Pyogenes ( group A)

182
Q

What pathogen is most likely found in IVDU’s?

A

pseudomonas.

183
Q

What are 2 oral anaerobes? (gram neg)

A

Fusobacterium

Bacteroides fragilis

184
Q

What are 2 oral anaerobes? (gram pos)

A

Actinomyces

Propionibacterium

185
Q

What are 2 obligates aerobes?

A

M. tuberculosis

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

186
Q

What are 2 obligate anaerobes?

A

Clostridium perfringens

Bacteroides fragilis

187
Q

What are 2 facultative anaerobes?

A

E coli
Staph A
(most bacteria are)

Host Defense Test 1-2 (3 decks)

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