Test #2 Flashcards

0
Q

The osteon, of haversian system does what?

A

Delivers nutrients to and removes waste products from bone cells

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1
Q

In bone formation, the cells that produce the organic matrix are the;

A

Osteoblasts

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2
Q

The major purpose of the epiphyseal plate is to…

A

Lengthening long bones

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3
Q

The form of the external ear is composed of …

A

Elastic cartilage

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4
Q
Which of these substances is not part of the inorganic matrix of bone?
A. Magnesium
B. Collagen
C. Sodium
D. Fluoride
A

B. Collagen

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5
Q

As the activity of osteoblasts increases ..

A

The level of calcium in the blood and bone increases

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6
Q

Which of the following is not a characteristic of the diaphysis?
A. Provides a shape for attachment of muscle
B. Hollow
C. Composed of compact bone
D. All of the above

A

A. Provides a shape for attachment of muscle

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7
Q
Which of the following is not dependent on the proper amount of calcium in the blood?
A. Blood clotting
B. Transmission of nerve impulses
C. Contraction of cardiac muscles
D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

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8
Q

Which type of bone consists of compact bone?

A

All types of bone are composed of both compact and spongy bone

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9
Q

The femur of the thigh is an example of what kind of bone?

A

Long bone

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10
Q

The tarsals are an example of what kind of bone?

A

Short bone

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11
Q

As the amount of calcitonin in the blood increases, the amount of calcium:

A

In the blood decreases

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12
Q

A person with a diet rich in calcium would have a high level of _______ and a low level of ________ hormone.

A

Calcitonin and parathyroid hormone

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13
Q

Which type of bone is usually found In a tendon?

A

Sesamoid bone

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14
Q

___________ is a thin membrane that lines a large cavity in long bones.

A

Endosteum

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15
Q

________ covers joint surfaces.

A

Articular cartilage

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16
Q

_______ part of the long bone to which tendons attach

A

Periosteum

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17
Q

________ location of spongy bone.

A

Epiphyses

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18
Q

________ tube like hollow space in long bones

A

Medullary cavity

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19
Q

_______ central shaft of long bones

A

Diaphysis

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20
Q

The upper part of the sternum is called the ..

A

Manubrium

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21
Q

The skeletal framework of the neck consists of ?

A

Cervical vertebrae

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22
Q

How many thoracic vertebrae are there?

A

12

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23
Q

Alternate name for the clavicle?

A

Collar bone

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24
Q

Metacarpal bones form the framework of the:

A

Hand

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25
Q

The longest heaviest bone in the body is ..

A

Femur

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26
Q

Going from superior to inferior, the sequence of the vertebral column is…

A

Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, coccyx

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27
Q

Going from proximal to distal the bones of the Lower extremity are:

A

Femur, tibia, tarsals, and metatarsals

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28
Q

What is the only bone of the body that does not articulate with another bone?

A

Hyoid

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29
Q
The floating ribs articulate with which of the following? 
A. The vertebrae
B. The sternum 
C. The costal cartilage 
D. Both a and c
A

The vertebrae

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30
Q

Name given to the plasma membrane of a muscle cell?

A

Sarcolemma

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31
Q

Inward extensions of the sarcolemma that allow impulse to go deeper k to the cell

A

T-tubule

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32
Q

The ability of a muscle cell to be stimulated by a nerve impulse

A

Excitability

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33
Q

A neuron and all the muscle fibres it stimulates

A

Motor unit

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34
Q

Protein that blocks the receptor sites on the actin molecule

A

Tropomyosin

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35
Q

The ability of a muscles cell to shorten

A

Contractibility

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36
Q

Protein that makes up the thin myofilament

A

Actin

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37
Q

Protein that joins with calcium ions

A

Troponin

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38
Q

The ability of a muscle to stretch?

A

Extensibility

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39
Q

Protein makes up the thick myofilament that pulls to shorten the sacromere

A

Myosin

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40
Q

A segment of myofilament between two z-lines?

A

Sacromere

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41
Q

Protein that is the thin filament and has active sites for cross-bridge heads

A

Actin

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42
Q

The specific link between the thin and thick filaments when a muscle contracts

A

Cross-bridge

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43
Q

The stimulus to contract the muscle is carried inside the muscle cell by this structure

A

T-tubules

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44
Q

Protein that directly prevents the formation of cross bridging in the sacromere?

A

Tropomyosin

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45
Q

Chemicals released by the motor neuron that initiates the stimulus for a muscle contraction?

A

Acetylcholine

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46
Q

Compound that supplies the energy for muscle contraction

A

ATP

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47
Q

Ion that is released by the sarcoplasmic reticulum

A

Calcium

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48
Q

Protein that has cross bridge heads that pull on the thin fibre

A

Myosin

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49
Q

Protein that has receptor sites for an ion that causes it to change shape and pull another protein away from the receptor sites on the action

A

Troponin

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50
Q

The first event in contraction of a muscle is…

A

Is nerve impulse reaches the end of the motor neuron and triggers the release of acetylcholine

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51
Q

The second event in the contraction of a muscle

A

Stimulation of ach receptors creates an impulse that travels through the t- tubules to the sarcroplasmic reticulum

52
Q

The third event in muscle contraction of a muscle is

A

Calcium ions are released and bind to the troponin molecules on the thin filaments

53
Q

The fourth event in muscle contraction is

A

Tropomysone molecules shift and expose the active sites on the actin

54
Q

The fifth event in the contraction of a muscles is

A

Energized myosin cross bridges to actin and use their energy to pull thin filaments to the centre of the sarcomere

55
Q

The sixth event in the contraction of a muscle is

A

As the filament slide past each other the entire muscle fibres shorten

56
Q

The seventh event in contraction of a muscle

A

Calcium ions are actively transported out of the Sarcomere

57
Q

The eighth event in the contraction of a muscle is …

A

As the calcium ions are stripped away from the troponin, tropomyosin returns to block the actin active sites

58
Q

The ninth event in the contraction of a muscle is …

A

Myosin cross bridges are blocked from the binding with the actin and can no longer sustain the contraction.

59
Q

The plasma membrane of a muscle finer is called the..

A

Sarcolemma

60
Q

Bundles of fine fibre that extend lengthwise along muscle fibres are called

A

Myofibrils

61
Q

The ability of a muscle cells to respond to nerve stimulus is called:

A

Irritability

62
Q

The chief function of the t-tubules is called ..

A

Allow for electrical signals to move deeper into the cell

63
Q

The protein that has receptor sites for the cross bridge is

A

Actin

64
Q

The ion necessary for cross bridging is

A

Calcium

65
Q

A motor unit is most correctly described as a

A

Muscle fibres and motor neuron

66
Q

All of the following are true characteristics of an isometric contraction except:
A. The muscle does not shorten
B. They can produce work by tightening to resist a force
C. Movement is produced
D. The tension produced by the myosin cross bridges cannot overcome the load place on the muscle

A

Movement is produced

67
Q

A contraction in which the tension within the muscle remains the same but length changes to produce movement is called

A

Isotonic contraction.

68
Q

Attempting to pick up an object too heavy to lift would result in which type of muscle contraction?

A

Isometric

69
Q

Sarcolemma is ….

A

A unique name for a plasma membrane of a muscle fiber

70
Q

The characteristics of the muscle cell that directly cause movement is…

A

Contractility

71
Q

After it is released the sarcroplasmic reticulum, the calcium combines with which protein?

A

Troponin

72
Q

Glucose can be stored in the muscle as:

A

Glycogen

73
Q

Muscle contraction will continue as long as ..

A

The calcium ions are attached to the troponin

74
Q

Which structure functions to temporarily store calcium ions?

A

Sarcroplasmic reticulum

75
Q

Which type of muscle is responsible for peristalsis?

A

Single unit SM

76
Q

Skeletal muscles constitute approx ____ of our body weight

A

50%

77
Q

The covering of individual muscle fibres is the

A

Endomysium

78
Q

Groups of skeletal muscles fibres are bound together by a connective tissue envelope called the:

A

Perimysium

79
Q

Muscles may be named according to:

A

Function
Direction of fibres
Points of attachments

80
Q

Erythropoiesis is formation of …

A

RBC’s

81
Q

Many types of blood cells are produced in the …

A

Red bone marrow

82
Q
Which of the following is not a leukocyte? 
A. Basophil
B. Reticulocyte 
C. Neutrophil
D. Monocyte
A

Reticulocyte

83
Q

Red blood cells carry:

A

Oxygen and carbon dioxide

84
Q

Heme is broken down into substances, which is excreted bile.

A

Bilirubin

85
Q
Which of the following cell types are classified as agranulocytes?
A. Neutrophils and monocytes
B. Basophils and lymphocytes
C. Neutrophils and basophils 
D. Lymphocytes  and monocytes
A

D. Monocytes and lymphocytes

86
Q

Which types of white blood cells is thought to play a role in prevention of clothing?

A

Basophils

87
Q

Which type of white blood cell play a role in immunity?

A

Lymphocytes

88
Q

Thrombocytes are used for:

A

Blood clotting

89
Q

The type of plasma protein that constitutes more than half of the total amount is..

A

Albumin

90
Q

The element in hemoglobin that allows oxygen to be transported is

A

Iron

91
Q

A decrease in RBC’s numbers can result in :

A

Anemia

92
Q

In a tube of centrifuged blood, the order of substance from top to bottom would be

A

Plasma, Buffy coat, red blood cells

93
Q

Which is not true about hemoglobin ?
A. It carries oxygen in the blood
B. Carries co2
C. It is composed of four heme molecules joined to one globin molecule

A

C. It is composed of four heme molecules and joined to one globin molecule

94
Q

Which of the following does not hasten clotting?
A. Rough spot in endothelium
B. Abnormally slow blood flow
C. Heparin

A

C. Heparin

95
Q

What part of the hemoglobin molecule combine with carbon dioxide?

A

Globin

96
Q

Which characteristic of blood makes it especially effective temp regulation?

A

High specific heat capacity

97
Q

If you gave a unit of blood in a blood drive and you are an average size adult you have given about what % of your blood?

A

10%

98
Q

Some white blood cells are capable of diapendeis; this means they can:

A

Migrate out of blood vessels into tissue places

99
Q

Which white blood cell helps protect against parasitic worms?

A

Eosinophil

100
Q

A person with no antibodies in the blood plasma would have which blood type?

A

AB

101
Q

A person with no antigens on the red blood cell would have which blood type?

A

O

102
Q

Called the universal donor

A

O

103
Q

Has the A antigen and the Rh antigen and the b antibody

A

a+

104
Q

Called the universal recipient; has both a and b antigens and no antibodies

A

AB

105
Q

Has the A antigen only and has the b antibody

A

A

106
Q
Which of the following acts as blood reservoirs? 
A. Arteries
B. Arterioles
C. Capillaries
D. Veins
A

D. Veins

107
Q

Which of the following is not true about the pulmonary artery?
A. Carries blood to the lungs
B. The blood in it has just left the left ventricle
C. It is carrying nonoxygenated blood y

A

B. The blood in it has just left the left ventricle

108
Q

The correct order of the layers of the heart from deep to superficial are:

A

Endocardium, myocardium, and epicardium

109
Q

Respectively, the right and left atrioventricular valves are also know as:

A

Tricuspid, mitral

110
Q

Diminished blood flow to an organ or tissue that reduces the oxygen level i pares cell function is called:

A

Ischemia

111
Q

The first structure that blood leaves the right ventricle passes through is the?

A

Pulmonary semilunar valve

112
Q

Blood passing through the the tricuspid valve has left the..

A

Right atrium

113
Q

Chordae tendineae are associated with which structure?

A

Mitral valve, and tricuspid valve

114
Q

If damaged which valve could allow blood to leak back into the right atrium?

A

Tricuspid valve

115
Q

The most important blood vessel in the cardiovascular system are the..

A

Capillaries

116
Q

If the chrodae tendineae in the right side of the heart we’re damaged, it may cause blood to leak into..

A

Right atrium during heart contraction

117
Q

During the cardiac cycle, the second heart sound is

A

Ventricular relaxation

118
Q

The first heart sound heard is cause by..

A

Ventricle contracting and the av valve closing

119
Q

Cardiac output can be computed by:

A

Multiplying the heart rate and stroke rate volume

120
Q

The greatest resistance to blood flow occurs in the:

A

Arterioles

121
Q

The frank- starling mechanism is ..

A

Show the relationship between the stretch of the heart muscles and the strength of contraction

122
Q

Which artery in the arm is used for measuring pulse?

A

Brachial

123
Q

First sound heard during BP?

A

Systolic

124
Q

Peripheral resistance to blood flow closes about because

A

Friction between blood cells and vessel walls

125
Q

The effect of what substance is to decrease total blood volume?

A

ANH

126
Q

Which is true of the following about the conduction system of the heart?
A. It is made up of cardiac muscles
B. It is made of nervous tissue
C. It requires either a sympathetic or parasympathetic stimulus to begin a beat

A

A. Made up of cardiac muscle

127
Q

Atrial systole cause blood to:

A

Move through the cuspid valve

128
Q

The period between the filling of the ventricle and the opening of the semilunar valve is called;

A

Ventricular contraction