TEST 2 Flashcards

1
Q

DEFINITION: quick, electrical impulse goes down neuron to target cell.

A

NERVOUS REGULATION

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2
Q

3 STEPS OF ENDOCRINE REGULATION

A
  • Endocrine cell releases hormone
  • Hormone enters Blood Stream
  • Hormone is carried off to target cell
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3
Q

TRUE OR FALSE? ENDOCRINE REGULATION HAS A FASTER REACTION TIME THAN NERVOUS REGULATION

A

FALSE

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4
Q

Like a lock and key hormones must fit on the _____________ or the hormone isn’t able to ________ on the receptor.

A

receptors

act

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5
Q

TRUE OR FALSE? Not all hormones fit on all cells.

A

TRUE

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6
Q

Endocrine glands stop secreting hormones by a process called:

A

NEGATIVE FEEDBACK

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7
Q

EXPLAIN NEGATIVE FEEDBACK RELATED TO EXCESS GLUCOSE INGESTION

A

Pancreas begins to secrete insulin – causes cells to absorb glucose.

When blood sugar level drop down to normal the pancreas stops secreting insulin.

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8
Q

WHICH ENDOCRINE GLAND?
* Gland secretes:

ANTERIOR

  * TSH: Thyroid
  * Growth Hormone: Bones
  * ACTH: Adrenal Glands
  * Prolactin: Milk reduction
  * Follicle Stimulating Hormone
  * Lutenizing Hormone: Sex Characteristics

POSTERIOR

  * ADH (antidiuretic hormone): Kidneys
  * Oxytocin: Contracts the uterus
A

PITUITARY GLAND

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9
Q

HORMONE TSH ACTS ON WHAT?

A

THYROID

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10
Q

GROWTH HORMONE ACTS ON WHAT?

A

BONES

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11
Q

HORMONE PROLACTIN ACTIONS ON WHAT?

A

BREASTS (MILK REDUCTION)

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12
Q

LUTENIZING HORMONE IS RELATED TO

A

SEX CHARACTERISTICS

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13
Q

ANTIDIURETIC HORMONE ACTS ON WHAT?

A

KIDNEYS

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14
Q

HORMONE OXYTOCIN ACTS ON WHAT?

A

UTERUS (CONTRACTIONS)

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15
Q

WHICH ENDOCRINE GLAND?

  • Releases thyroid Hormone
    • T3 Tri-iodothyramin
    • T4 thyroxine
  • Calcitonin
A

THYROID

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16
Q

T3 (TRI-IODOTHYRAMIN) AND T4 (THYROXINE) ARE RESPONSIBLE FOR:

A

CELL METABOLISM

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17
Q

Thyroid hormone increases _________ ________ and is essential for normal __________ and ____________.

A

metabolic rate
GROWTH
DEVELOPMENT

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18
Q

______________: Thyroid hormone that moves Calcium from the blood to bone

A

Calcitonin

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19
Q

WHICH THYROID GLAND?

secretes a hormone that works opposite to calcitonin, the two balance each other out

A

PARATHYROID GLAND

PARATHYROID HORMONE

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20
Q

WHICH THYROID GLAND?

secretes cortisol and aldosterone

A

ADRENAL GLAND

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21
Q

WHICH THYROID GLAND?

secretes insulin and glucagon

A

PANCREAS

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22
Q

WHICH HORMONE IS THE BODY’S RESPONSE TO STRESS?

A

CORTISOL

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23
Q

WHICH HORMONE acts on kidneys, tells kidneys to reabsorb sodium which makes it reabsorb water

A

ALDOSTERONE

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24
Q

PANCREAS

____________ cells secretes insulin which lowers glucose.

A

BETA

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25
Q

PANCREAS
_____________ cells secrete glucagon – which increases blood sugar. Glucose is in bloodstream, glycogen is stored in the liver. Allows for a ready supply of glucose when we need it

A

ALPHA

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26
Q

WHICH HORMONE? Liver breaks glycogen down into glucose which helps maintain blood sugar levels. **important to remember when dealing with diabetes

A

glucagon

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27
Q

WHICH ENDOCRINE DISORDER? Hypersecretion of Growth Hormone

A

Giantism

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28
Q

WHICH ENDOCRINE DISORDER? Distorting Facial Feature

A

Acrmegaly

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29
Q

WHICH ENDOCRINE DISORDER? Normal intelligence and normal cognitive function

A

Hypopituitary Dwarfism

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30
Q

WHICH Disorder of Antidiuretic Hormone Secretion? Causes water to reabsorb (Too much antidiuretic hormone)

A

Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH):

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31
Q

WHICH Disorder of Antidiuretic Hormone Secretion? Not enough diuretic hormone

A

DIABETES INSIPIDUS

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32
Q

WHICH Disorder of Antidiuretic Hormone Secretion?

SYMPTOMS:
o	low urine output
o	increase in urine osmolality
o	increase BP
o	edema
o	decreased blood osmolality
o	hyponatremia
A

SIADH

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33
Q

3 SYMPTOMS OF HYPONATREMIA:

A
  • confusion
  • weakness
  • seizures
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34
Q

CAUSE OF SIADH:

A

Some tumors (particularly lung cancer) have ability to make ADH inappropriately.

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35
Q

condition OPPOSITE OF SIADH

A

DIABETES INSIPIDUS

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36
Q

4 CAUSES OF DIABETES INSIPIDUS

A

o head injury
o problem with pituitary gland
o nephrogenic cause
o neurogenic cause

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37
Q

WHICH Disorder of Antidiuretic Hormone Secretion?

SYMPTOMS:
o Dehydration
o increase osmolality of blood
o Thirst (doesn’t have to do with glucose, but with ADH).
o Excreting large amount of urine lowering the urines osmolality.

A

DIABETES INSIPIDUS

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38
Q

Treatment FOR DIABETES INSIPIDUS:

A

ADH injections (vasopressin).

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39
Q

SIMILARITY BETWEEN DIABETES INSIPIDUS AND DIABETES MELLITUS:

A

Large amounts of urine output

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40
Q

Hyperthyroidism (Thyrotoxicosis) - Too much ________ ____________

A

THYROID HORMONE

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41
Q

DISEASE RELATED TO HYPERTHYROIDISM

A

GRAVE’S

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42
Q

COMPLICATION OF HYPERTHYROIDISM

A

THYROID STORM

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43
Q

SIGNS & SYMPTOMS OF WHAT HORMONE CONDITION

  • Exophthalmus (Bulging Eyes)
  • Weight Loss (Due to sped up metabolism)
  • Increased Heart Rate & Cardiac Output
  • Goiter
  • Increased Appetite
  • Dyspneic
  • Sweating (Diaphoretic)
  • Anxious, Anxiety, Insomnia
  • As it worsens it may lead to Heart Failure
  • Heat intolerance
A

HYPERTHYROIDISM

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44
Q

TREATMENT FOR HYPERTHYROIDISM:

A

SURGICAL REMOVAL

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45
Q

SIGNS & SYMPTOMS OF WHAT HORMONE CONDITION

  • Weight Gain
  • Depression
  • Bradycardia
  • Cold Intolerance
  • Decrease in Appetite
  • Slower Metabolism
A

HYPOTHYROIDISM

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46
Q

TREATMENT FOR HYPOTHYROIDISM

A

THYROID HORMONE REPLACEMENT

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47
Q

increased T3&T4 levels CAN CAUSE a __________ TO develope

A

goiter

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48
Q

_________ __________ (accelerated hyperthyroidism) is a form of lifethreatening thyrotoxicosis that occurs when excessive amounts of thyroid hormones are acutely released into the circulation

A

Thyroid storm

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49
Q

SIGNS AND SYMPTOMS OF WHAT HORMONE DISORDER
• Fever
• Tachycardia
• Palpitations – may eventually lead to heart failure

A

THYROID STORM

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50
Q

__________ _____________ – inflammation of thyroid gland. As a result destroys thyroid tissue. May develop goiter as a result.

A

Hashimoto thyroiditis

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51
Q

congenital hypothyroidism

A

Cretinism

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52
Q

3 hormones secreted by the adrenal gland?

A

Mineralcorticoids
Glucocorticoids
Gonadocorticoids

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53
Q

ADRENAL GLAND

________________ – aldosterone (causes fluid retention)

A

Mineralcorticoids

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54
Q

ADRENAL GLAND

________________ – cortisol (stress hormone)

A

Glucocorticoids

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55
Q

ADRENAL GLAND

_________________ – androgens (sex hormones)

A

Gonadocorticoids

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56
Q

____________ ___________: Too much cortisol secreted from adrenal cortex

A

cushings syndrome

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57
Q

SIGNS & SYMPTOMS OF WHAT HORMONE DISFUNCTION

  • Weight Gain from fluid retention
  • Trunkal Obesity
  • Long thin arms due to protein wasting
  • Abnormal Deposits of fat
  • Hyperglycemia
  • gynecomastia (man boobs)
A

cushing’s disease

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58
Q
WHICH HORMONE DISFUNCTION?
Insufficent cortisol. 
Problems are with the adrenal glands. 
It is autoimmune. 
Antibodies attack the adrenal glands.
A

ADRENOCORTICAL INSUFFICIENCY

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59
Q

WHICH ADRENOCORTICAL INSUFFICIENCY? Life threatening when they become Hypovolemic. Replace with cortisol and aldosterone.

A

ADDISONIAN CRISIS

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60
Q

SIGNS & SYMPTOMS OF WHICH HORMONE DISORDER

  • Dehydration and electrolyte imbalance
  • Decrease blood sugar
  • May become hypotensive
  • May lead to sever osteoporosis
  • Abnormal skin pigmentation
A

ADRENOCORTICAL INSUFFICIENCY

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61
Q

WHICH DISEASE?

  • metabolic disease
  • diagnosed on blood sugar levels
  • fasting blood sugar levels 4-6 mmol/L
A

DIABETES MELLITUS

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62
Q

__________ cells: secretes glucagon (acts on the liver)

A

ALPHA

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63
Q

__________ cells: secretes insulin (works on all cells)

A

BETA

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64
Q

test for longterm glucose levels

A

A1C

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65
Q

hemoglobin that glucose binds to the best

A

HEMOGLOBIN A1C

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66
Q

A1C RESULTS

  • good control:
  • fair control:
  • poor:
A
  • good control: 2.5-5.9%
    • fair control: 6-8%
    • poor >8%
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67
Q

Acute Complications of Diabetes

  • aka insulin reaction insulin shock
  • activates CNS
  • causes increase in cortisol, which increases blood sugar (hyperglycaemia), which requires insulin
A

Hypoglycemia

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68
Q

Acute Complications of Diabetes

  • (aka diabetic coma)
  • Type 1 Diabetes marked hyperglycemia and elevation of ketones
A

Diabetic Ketoacidosis

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69
Q

Acute Complications of Diabetes

* Rebound hyperglycemia, especially in children

A

Somogyi Effect

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70
Q

Acute Complications of Diabetes

  • Person during the night will have a higher blood sugar when waking up
  • hormone is secreted and this prevents glucose from entering the cell;
  • primarily in type 2 Diabetes
  • goes into electrolyte imbalances, when checking ketones they will be mildly elevated
A

Dawn Phenomenon

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71
Q

Acute Complications of Diabetes
1. when glucose binds to collagen it produces advanced glucosylated end products. (AGE)

  1. Interferes with platelets- forms clots and promotes aggregation
  2. Provides a medium for bacterial growth (At risk for infection)
  3. inhibits myoinosital: promotes nerve conduction –> neuropathy
A

HYPERGLYCEMIA

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72
Q

Acute Complications of Diabetes

  • hyperglycemia
  • dehydration
  • electrolyte imbalances
  • ketones are normal
A

Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic Nonketotic Syndrome

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73
Q

Normal fasting range is ______-_______ mmol/L

A

4-6

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74
Q

DEFINITION: An increase in cell or tissue size and function.

A

Hypertrophy

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75
Q

DEFINITION: a reduction in size and function of a cell or tissue; wasting

A

ATROPHY

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76
Q

DEFINITION: a lack of differentiated features in a tumor cell as evidenced by variations in cell size and shape and presence of abnormal nuclei.

A

ANAPLASIA

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77
Q

DEFINITION: abnormal increase in the number of normal cells in normal arrangement in an organ or tissue, which increases its volume; more of them; even growth pattern

A

HYPERPLASIA

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78
Q

DEFINITION: abnormality of development; in pathology, alteration in size, shape, and organization of adult cellsdisorderly; nuclei not of equal size; considered pre-cancerous

A

DYSPLASIA

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79
Q

DEFINITION: new growth; the term implies an abnormality of cellular growth and may be used interchangeably with the term tumor

A

NEOPLASIA

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80
Q

DEFINITION: incomplete development or underdevelopment of an organ or tissue

A

HYPOPLASIA

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81
Q

DEFINITION: the change in the type of adult cells in a tissue to a form abnormal for that tissue; abnormal; nuclei are still normal; capacity to return to normal dependent on the environment; eg. smokers; lungs

A

METAPLASIA

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82
Q

DEFINITION: abnormal swelling; abnormal growth

A

TUMOR

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83
Q

DEFINITION: not cancerous

A

BENIGN

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84
Q

DEFINITION: cancerous

A

MALIGNANT

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85
Q

DEFINITION: abnormal types of pattern

A

CANCER

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86
Q

DEFINITION: study of cancer

A

ONCOLOGY

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87
Q

DEFINITION: without shape

A

ANAPLASTIC

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88
Q

CHARACTERISTIC OF CANCER:

  • Hallmark of cancer; during cell division chromosome duplicate, get lost, become unstable;
  • Genes will mutate causing them to become unstable
A

GENETIC INSTABILITY

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89
Q

CHARACTERISTIC OF CANCER:

  • Normal cell need growth factors in order to divide;
  • Cancer cells do not need growth factors
A

Growth factor independence

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90
Q

CHARACTERISTIC OF CANCER:

  • Don’t have; lose their normal function; WBC will not fight infection/no good
  • Do not contribute to the function of cell
A

LOSS OF DIFFERENTIATION

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91
Q

CHARACTERISTIC OF CANCER:

  • Cells are programmed to die (apoptosis)
  • Cancer cell evade apoptosis
  • Unlimited replication
A

Immortal

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92
Q

CHARACTERISTIC OF CANCER:

  • They will produce hormones that they usually do not produce
  • Enzymes that promote clotting
A

Production of enzymes, hormones

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93
Q

CHARACTERISTIC OF CANCER:

Surrounding tissue; capacity to spread

A

Invasion and metastasis

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94
Q

DEFINITION: benign tumor of bone

A

OSTEOMA

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95
Q

DEFINITION: benign tumor of fat

A

LIPOMA

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96
Q

DEFINITION: benign tumor of skeletal muscle

A

Rhabdomyoma

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97
Q

DEFINITION: benign tumor of smooth muscle; also known as fibroids

A

Leiomyoma

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98
Q

DEFINITION: benign tumor of blood vessel

A

Hemangioma

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99
Q

DEFINITION: benign tumor of glands or duct

A

Adenoma

100
Q

DEFINITION: benign tumor of squamous cell

A

Squamous cell papilloma

101
Q

DEFINITION: mole; melanocytes; skin pigmentation

A

NEVUS

102
Q

DEFINITION: malignant tumor cells that gives us skin color

A

Melanoma

103
Q

DEFINITION: malignant tumor of lymph

A

Lymphoma

104
Q

DEFINITION: starts in the plasma cells in bone marrow

A

Multiple myeloma

105
Q

DEFINITION: epithelial cancers

A

carcinoma

106
Q

DEFINITION: cancer of squamous cells that line our body cavities ex: inside mouth

A

squamous cell carcinoma

107
Q

DEFINITION: cancer of liver

A

hepatocellular carcinoma

108
Q

DEFINITION: cancer of skin cell

A

malignant melanoma

109
Q

DEFINITION: cancer of leukocytes WBC

A

leukemia

110
Q

DEFINITION: cancer of lymph

A

lymphoma

111
Q

DEFINITION: malignant tumour of plasma cells of the bone marrow

A

multiple myeloma

112
Q

DEFINITION: cancer of connective tissue

A

sarcoma

113
Q

DEFINITION: cancer of fat cells

A

liposarcoma

114
Q

DEFINITION: cancer of bone

A

osteogenic sarcoma

115
Q

DEFINITION: cancer of smooth muscles

A

leiomyosarcoma

116
Q

DEFINITION: cancer of striated skeletal muscles

A

rhabdmyosarcoma

117
Q

DEFINITION: cancer of nerves

A

neuroblastoma

118
Q

DEFINITION: cancer of AID’s/HIV connective tissue

A

kaposi sarcoma

119
Q

Genetic Basis of Cancer

Two sets of genes:

A
  1. proto-oncogenes

2. tumor suppressor genes

120
Q

WHICH GENE?

* normal genes responsible for normal cell growth

A

PROTO-ONCOGENE

121
Q

WHICH GENE?

* “accelerators” – cause cells to multiply in a normal function

A

PROTO-ONCOGENE

122
Q

WHICH GENE?

* gain of funtion

A

PROTO-ONCOGENE

123
Q

WHICH GENE?

  • responsible for slowing down cell growth; keep them in check
  • Stop too much cell growth
A

TUMOR SUPPRESSOR GENE

124
Q

Normally, the ____________ & ______________ ____________ ____________ balance each other out

A

PROTO-ONCOGENE

TUMOR SUPPRESSOR GENES

125
Q

WHICH GENE?

* Mutated proto-oncogenes

A

ONCOGENE

126
Q

WHICH GENE?

* responsible for abnormal cell growth & loss of function

A

ONCOGENE

127
Q

TRUE OR FALSE? HOST & ENVIRONMENTAL CANCER FACTORS ARE ADDITIVE

A

TRUE

128
Q

*__________ and __________ Gene- Increases the risk of Breast Cancer

A

BRCA1

BRCA2

129
Q

6 HOST & ENVIRONMENTAL FACTORS

A
  1. HEREDITY
  2. HORMONES
  3. IMMUNOLOGIC MECHANISMS
  4. CHEMICAL CARCINOGENS
  5. RADIATION
  6. ONCOGENIC VIRUSES
130
Q

HOST & ENVIRONMENTAL FACTORS

Certain genes increases the risk of developing cancer

A

HEREDITY

131
Q

HOST & ENVIRONMENTAL FACTORS

  • Link isn’t always clear
  • Estrogen thought to play a role in feeding tumours, especially breast cancer
A

HORMONES

132
Q

HOST & ENVIRONMENTAL FACTORS

  • Natural killer cells will play a role if they detect stray cancer cells
  • High risk of cancer in immunodeficient people
  • Eg. People who have had organ transplants
A

IMMUNOLOGIC MECHANISMS

133
Q

HOST & ENVIRONMENTAL FACTORS

  • People working around chemicals  higher risks of bladder cancer, lung cancer (mines)
  • Smoking
A

CHEMICAL CARCINOGENS

134
Q

HOST & ENVIRONMENTAL FACTORS

  • Tanned skin is damaged skin
  • Tanning increases risk of skin cancer
A

RADIATION

135
Q

HOST & ENVIRONMENTAL FACTORS

  • Retrovirus have been known to increase the risk of skin cancer
  • HPV increases the risk of cervical cancer
A

ONCOGENETIC VIRUSES

136
Q

THE RISK OF CANCER INCREASES WITH _____

A

AGE

137
Q

Normal cells:

* are anchored to the basement membrane with _____________

A

laminin

138
Q

Cancer cells:
* Produce _____________ (protease and collagenase) to break away and destroy bonds normal cells have to hold one another together

A

ENZYMES

139
Q

Cancer cells:
* Have anchors called _______________ that allows them to ___________ ___________ the basement membrane and get into the bloodstream

A

fibronectin

break through

140
Q

Cancer cells:

  • _____________ allow the tumors to bind together and form an _______________
A

Platelets

embolus

141
Q

Cancer cells:

* _______________ travel down the blood stream and will stay and establish themsevles and grow

A

Embolus

142
Q

DEFINITION:Tumours ability of growing their own blood supply

A

ANGIOGENESIS

143
Q

This will help that tumor thrive and grow more.

A

ANGIOGENESIS

144
Q
  • Substances produced by cancer cells
    • Found on tumor plasma membranes, blood, spinal fluid, urine
    • Hormones, enzymes, genes, antigens, antibodies
A

TUMOR MARKERS

145
Q

3 PURPOSES OF TUMOR MARKING

A
  1. To screen & identify high risk
  2. To diagnose specific tumors
  3. To monitor clinical course
146
Q

TUMOR STAGING (TNM)

A

T- (Tumor) Size of Tumor
N- (Nodes) If any Tumors
M- (Metastasis) Present

147
Q

8 CANCER CLINICAL MANIFESTATIONS

A
  1. Pain
  2. Fatigue
  3. Bleeding
  4. Anemia
  5. Chronic Infection
  6. Paraneoplastic Syndromes
  7. Cachexia
  8. Pathological Fractures
148
Q

WHICH CANCER CLINICAL MANIFESTATION?

* Will ususally provoke people to seek medical attention(pressing on something else)

A

Pain

149
Q

WHICH CANCER CLINICAL MANIFESTATION?

  • Due to tumour taking nutrients
  • Recurring infections
A

Fatigue

150
Q

WHICH CANCER CLINICAL MANIFESTATION?

* abnormal bleeding

A

Bleeding

151
Q

WHICH CANCER CLINICAL MANIFESTATION?

* Due to chronic blood loss and poor appetite

A

Anemia

152
Q

WHICH CANCER CLINICAL MANIFESTATION?
* immune system has been overwhelmed

  • Especially in cancers involving wbc eg. Leukemia
A

Chronic Infection

153
Q

WHICH CANCER CLINICAL MANIFESTATION?
* Other conditions related to cancer

  • Syndrome where cancer cells secrete enzymes and hormones
A

Paraneoplastic Syndromes

154
Q

WHICH CANCER CLINICAL MANIFESTATION?
* Severe malnutrition (skin and bones) becomes nauseous.

  • Abnormal state of metabolism
A

Cachexia

155
Q

WHICH CANCER CLINICAL MANIFESTATION?
- Metastasis to bone may lead to pathological fractures

  • Because of malnutrition
  • Calcium is being drawn out of the bones and into the blood stream
  • Tumours may have extended to the bones making them more brittle
A

Pathological Fractures

156
Q

4 CANCER TREATMENTS

A
  1. Surgery
  2. Radiation
  3. Chemotherapy
  4. Immunotherapy
157
Q

DEFINITION: Amount of RBC in one area (Ratio of RBC to plasma)

A

HEMOCRIT

158
Q

DEFINITION: Too little RBC

A

ANEMIA

159
Q

DEFINITION: Too many RBC

A

POLYCEMIA

160
Q

Male Hematocrit Values

A

42-52 %

161
Q

Female Hemocrit Values

A

37-47%

162
Q

Male Erythrocyte (RBC) Values

A

4.7 - 6.1 x 10(to the 12) per litre

163
Q

Female Erythrocyte (RBC) Values

A

4.2 - 5.4 x 10(to the 12) per litre

164
Q

Leukocytes values

A

5000 - 10,000 x 10 (to the 9) per litre

165
Q

Differential (Never Let Monkeys Eat Bananas)

A
Neutrophils
Leukocytes
Monocytes
Eosinophils
Basophils
166
Q

Platelet Values

A

150,000 - 400, 000 per cubic milimetre (mm3)

167
Q

Male Hemoglobin Values

A

140-180g per litre

168
Q

Female Hemoglobin Values

A

120-160g per litre

169
Q

DEFINITION: protein that stores iron

A

FERRITIN

170
Q

DEFINITION: protein that carries iron to bone

A

TRANSFERRIN

171
Q

CONDITION: losing red blood cells faster than making them

A

ANEMIA

172
Q

3 CAUSES OF ANEMIA:

A
  1. Blood loss
  2. Altered erythrocytes production
  3. Increased erythrocytes destruction
173
Q

Morphology (Structure)

CYTIC MEANS:

A

SHAPE

174
Q

Morphology (Structure)

CHROMIC MEANS:

A

COLOUR

175
Q

3 KINDS OF CYTIC

A

Normocytic (Normal Shape)

Macrocytic (Bigger than normal)

Microcytic (Smaller than normal)

176
Q

2 KINDS OF CHROMIC

A

Normochromic (Normal colour - normal hemoglobin concentration)

Microchromic (poor color or pale - less hemoglobin concentration)

177
Q

7 Signs & Symptoms OF ANEMIA

A
  • fatigue
    • pallor
    • lightheaded
    • dizziness (decreased oxygen to cerebral tissue)
    • tacchycardia
    • heart failure
    • jaundice
178
Q

Anemia caused by Acute Blood Loss:

as blood loss increases, symptoms become _____________

A

worse

179
Q

TREATMENT OF ANEMAI CAUSED BY ACUTE BLOOD LOSS:

A

BLOOD TRANSFUSION

180
Q

EXAMPLE OF ANEMAI FROM BLOOD LOSS:Person is losing blood and the body is trying to compensate but the fluid entering the blood stream is going to _____________ the hemoglobin.

A

DECREASE

181
Q

WHICH KIND OF ANEMIA RESULTS IN PANCYTOPENIA

A

APLASTIC

182
Q

APLASTIC MEANS

A

FAILURE TO PRODUCE SOMETHING

183
Q

IN APLASTIC ANEMIA, THE ___________ ___________ HAS FAILED

A

BONE MARROW

184
Q

IN APLASTIC ANEMIA, THE BONE MARROW CANNOT PRODUCE ENOUGH OF THESE 3 THINGS

A
  • RBCs
    * WBCs
    * platelets
185
Q

CONSEQUENCE OF LOW RBCs

A

decreased oxygen carrying capacity

186
Q

CONSEQUENCE OF LOW WBCS

A

decreased ability to fight off infections

187
Q

CONSEQUENCE OF LOW PLATELETS

A

decreased clotting

188
Q

pure red cell aplasia happens with ___________ failure

A

renal

189
Q

2 CAUSES OF APLASTIC ANEMIA

A
  1. ACQUIRED

2. GENETIC

190
Q

Clinical manifestations OF APLASTIC ANEMIA

A
  • Anemia (Pallor, fatigued, lethargic), leukopenia (Infection, chills, fever), thrombocytopenia (risk for bleeding)
  • Pancytopenia: fever, bleeding
191
Q

MOST COMMON TYPE OF ANEMIA

A

IRON DEFICIENT

192
Q

3 CAUSES OF IRON DEFICIENT ANEMIA

A
  1. low dietary intake,
  2. chronic blood loss,
  3. increase in physiological requirements
193
Q

POPULATION HIGH RISK OF DEVELOPING IRON DEFICIENT ANEMIA:

A

woman of child bearing years, children, infants <2 and poverty countries)

194
Q

NUTRITIONAL SOURCES OF IRON

A

leafy greens, vegetables and liver

195
Q

WHAT KIND OF ANEMIA RESULTS FROM lack of intrinsic factor results in vitamin B12 deficiency

A

PERNICIOUS

196
Q
WHAT KIND OF ANEMIA RESULTS IN people with damaged lining to the stomach
EX.
      * eating disorders
      * alcoholism
      * gastro problems
A

PERNICIOUS

197
Q

CAUSE OF PERNICIOUS ANEMIA: ______________ production and maturation of RBCS

A

Abnormal

198
Q

RBCS IN PERNICIOUS ANEMIA:

A

Macrocytic (large and fragile and breaks easily), normochromic (normal color)

199
Q

TREATMENT OF PERNICIOUS ANEMIA

A

B12 INJECTIONS

200
Q

condition caused by the destruction or hemolysis of RBC’s at a rate that exceeds production

A

Hemolytic Anemia

201
Q

2 CAUSES OF Hemolytic Anemia

A
  1. HEREDITY

2. BLOOD TRANSFUSION

202
Q

MANIFESTATIONS OF Hemolytic Anemia

A
  • tacchycardia
    • hypotension
    • jaudice
    • chest pains
    • fever
203
Q

2 FIRST STEPS TO treatment for bad reaction to blood transfusion:

A
  1. stop blood transfusion

2. flush with normal saline

204
Q

WHICH White Blood Cell Disorders

  • high WBC count
  • > 10,000 mm3
  • caused by presence of infection
A

Leukocytosis

205
Q

WHICH White Blood Cell Disorders

  • low WBC count
  • < 4000 mm3
  • caused by aplastic anemia
A

Leukopenia

206
Q

WHICH White Blood Cell Disorders

  • absolute neutrophil count: ABNC
  • associated with a high risk of bacterial sepsis
  • < 1000 mm3
A

Neutropenia

207
Q

WHICH Platelet and Clotting Disorders

Platelet count < 100,000

A

Thrombocytopenia

208
Q

WHICH Platelet and Clotting Disorders
* Causes:

  * can be secondary to drugs
  * spleen removal
A

Thrombocytopenia

209
Q

WHICH Platelet and Clotting Disorders
* Clinical manifestations:

  * bruising
  * bleeding
  * petechiae: pinpoint bleeding
A

Thrombocytopenia

210
Q

WHICH Platelet and Clotting Disorders

  • Treatment
    • give them IV platelets
A

Thrombocytopenia

211
Q

large patches of bleeding into the skin

A

purport

212
Q

WHICH Platelet and Clotting Disorders: DIC

A

Disseminated Intravascular Coagulopathy

213
Q

WHICH Platelet and Clotting Disorders

complication of any disease with massive inflammation

A

DIC

214
Q

WHICH Platelet and Clotting Disorders

mediators like free-radicals and histamine that trigger the clotting cascade

A

DIC

215
Q

WHICH Platelet and Clotting Disorders

simultaneous excessive blood clotting and bleeding due to activation of clotting cascade

A

DIC

216
Q

WHICH Platelet and Clotting Disorders

leads to vascular or microvascular fibrin deposition

A

DIC

217
Q

WHICH Platelet and Clotting Disorders

organs start to shut down and they go into organ failure

A

DIC

218
Q

WHICH PLATELET AND CLOTTING DISORDER
Because clotting factors have been used, bleeding from the site of injury or any orifice, petechiae, ecchymosis, acrocyanosis (mottled skin), dyspnea, hemoptysis

A

DIC

219
Q

WHICH BLOOD DISEASE? cancer of the blood

A

LEUKEMIA

220
Q

WHICH BLOOD DISEASE? proliferation of abnormal WBCs

A

LEUKEMIA

221
Q

WHICH BLOOD DISEASE? blood forming cells all come from stem cells

A

LEUKEMIA

222
Q

developing stem cells are programmed into becoming either:

A
  1. LYMPHOID STEM CELL

2. MYELOID STEM CELL

223
Q

3 LYMPHOID STEM CELLS:

A

B CELLS
T CELLS
NATURAL KILLER CELLS

224
Q

4 MYELOID STEM CELLS

A

neutrophil
monocyte
rbc
megakaryocyte

225
Q

WHICH CATEGORY OF LEUKEMIA:

  • adult
  • onset: insidious
  • months to years
  • mature forms of cells
  • anemia: mild
  • thormbocytopenia: mild
  • WBC: increased
A

Chronic myeloid leukemia

226
Q

WHICH CATEGORY OF LEUKEMIA:

  • all ages
  • onset: sudden
  • weeks to months
  • mature forms, blasts
  • anemia: mild to severe
  • thrombocytopenia: mild to severe
  • WBC: variable
A

Acute myeloid leukemia

227
Q

WHICH CATEGORY OF LEUKEMIA:

  • affects adults primarily –> poor survival rate
  • onset: acute
  • responds fairly well to treatment
  • prognosis: worse than all
  • usually malignancy of granulocytes others may be affected
  • several gene abnormalities identified
A

Acute myelogenous (AML)

228
Q

WHICH CATEGORY OF LEUKEMIA:

  • affects adults primarily (40-50 years)
  • onset: insidious
  • poor prognosis
  • responds poorly to chemotherapy
  • characterized by the presence of gene translocation (PHILADELPHIA CHROMOSOME)
A

Chornic Myelogenous (CML)

229
Q

WHICH CATEGORY OF LEUKEMIA:

  • common in children
  • acute onset age 3-7 years old
  • responds well to therapy
  • good prognosis
  • associated with transformation of precursor BLASTS in the bone marrow
  • manifests with bone pain, indications, tendency to bleed
A

Acute Lymphocytic (ALL)

230
Q

WHICH CATEGORY OF LEUKEMIA:

  • adults primarily
  • onset: insidious
  • asymptomatic
  • diagnosed by accident usually
A

Chronic Lymphocytic (CLL)

231
Q

cancer of lymphoma tissue

A

Malignant Lymphomas

232
Q

WHICH CANCER? starts in one lymphnode, spreads in continuous pattern to next lymph node

A

Hodgkins Lymphoma

233
Q

WHICH CANCER? diagnosed by an enlarged lymph node

A

Hodgkins Lymphoma

234
Q

WHICH CANCER? caught early = good survival rate

A

Hodgkins Lymphoma

235
Q

WHICH CANCER? contains Reed-Sternberg cells

A

Hodgkins Lymphoma

236
Q

WHICH CANCER? tired; night sweat

A

Hodgkins Lymphoma

237
Q

WHICH CANCER? more devastating

A

Non-Hodgkins Lymphoma

238
Q

WHICH CANCER? invades multiple lymphnodes rapidly all at once does not follow a pattern

A

Non-Hodgkins Lymphoma

239
Q

WHICH CANCER? rarely localized; spread rapidly

A

Non-Hodgkins Lymphoma

240
Q

WHICH CANCER? no Reed-Sternberg cells

A

Non-Hodgkins Lymphoma

241
Q

WHICH CANCER? Originates in bone marrow

A

Multiple Myeloma

242
Q

WHICH CANCER? Destroy bone tissue - cause chronic infection – abnormal B cells

A

Multiple Myeloma

243
Q

WHICH CANCER? >40 yrs of age- metastasis easily, multiple

A

Multiple Myeloma

244
Q

WHICH CANCER? hypercalcemia

A

Multiple Myeloma

245
Q

WHICH CANCER? BENCE JONES PROTEIN

A

Multiple Myeloma

246
Q

abnormal proteins that are produced as a result of this type of cancer, block kidney tubules leading to renal failure

A

BENCE JONES PROTEIN