TEST 1 Flashcards

1
Q

ETIOLOGY DEFINITION: caused by something within genetic makeup

A

Inherited

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2
Q

ETIOLOGY DEFINITION: condition existing at birth and often before birth, or that develops during the first month of life (neonatal disease), regardless of causation eg. fetal alcohol syndrome

A

CONGENITAL (hahaha… genital)

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3
Q

ETIOLOGY DEFINITION: caused by wear and tear eg. arthritis, osteoarthritis

A

degenerative

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4
Q

ETIOLOGY DEFINITION: caused by abnormal chemical reactions eg. diabetes

A

metabolic

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5
Q

ETIOLOGY DEFINITION: caused from malnutrition anorexia

A

Nutritional deficiency

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6
Q

ETIOLOGY DEFINITION: caused by a mental health disorder

A

Psychogenic

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7
Q

ETIOLOGY DEFINITION: caused by an infectious agent eg. MRSA

A

Infectious

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8
Q

ETIOLOGY DEFINITION: caused with malfunction of immunity

A

Immunologic

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9
Q

ETIOLOGY DEFINITION: exposure to physical agents cause injury, eg. burn from fire

A

Physical agent

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10
Q

ETIOLOGY DEFINITION: neo means new, plastic means growth = cancer

A

Neoplastic

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11
Q

ETIOLOGY DEFINITION: caused by medical treatment, eg. side effects of medication

A

Iatrogenic

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12
Q

ETIOLOGY DEFINITION: unknown cause, eg. some forms of epilepsy

A

Idiopathic

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13
Q

CLINICAL MANIFESTATIONS DEFINITION: quick onset, quick completion (either cure or death)

A

acute

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14
Q

CLINICAL MANIFESTATIONS DEFINITION: longterm, unknown cure

A

CHRONIC

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15
Q

CLINICAL MANIFESTATIONS DEFINITION:

interval between exposure of a tissue to an injurious agent and the first appearance of signs and symptoms

A

LATENT PERIOD

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16
Q

CLINICAL MANIFESTATIONS DEFINITION: the interval between the receipt of infection and the onset of the consequent illness or the first symptoms of the illness; sometimes also referred to as the latent period

A

INCUBATION PERIOD

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17
Q

CLINICAL MANIFESTATIONS DEFINITION: the time during which a disease process has begun but is not yet clinically manifest

A

Prodromal period (prodrome)

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18
Q

CLINICAL MANIFESTATIONS DEFINITION: when the disease is at it’s highest

A

Stage of manifest illness

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19
Q

CLINICAL MANIFESTATIONS DEFINITION: 1. Gradual return to health and strength after illness; 2. The period needed for returning to health after illness

A

Convalescence

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20
Q

CLINICAL MANIFESTATIONS DEFINITION: A pathological condition resulting from a disease. eg. scar

A

Sequela

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21
Q

CLINICAL MANIFESTATIONS DEFINITION: A secondary disease, an accident, or a negative reaction occurring during the course of an illness and usually aggravating the illness.

A

complication

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22
Q

CLINICAL MANIFESTATIONS DEFINITION: Not manifesting characteristic clinical symptoms.

A

subclinical

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23
Q

CLINICAL MANIFESTATIONS DEFINITION: To increase the severity, violence, or bitterness of; aggravate

A

Exacerbation

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24
Q

CLINICAL MANIFESTATIONS DEFINITION: The period during which the symptoms of a disease abate or subside

A

Remission

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25
CLINICAL MANIFESTATIONS DEFINITION: having severe symptoms and a short course
acute phase
26
DEFINITION: a disease that is native to a local region
endemic disease
27
DEFINITION: disease is disseminated to many individuals at the same time
epidemic
28
DEFINITION: epidemics that affect large geographic regions, perhaps spreading worldwide
pandemic
29
cell caps that shorten when chromosome divides
TELOMERES
30
every time ________________ shorten, it results in less capacity for cell to regain normal function
telomeres
31
in order to survive, a cell must _____________
adapt
32
adaptation is ____________
chronic
33
cells that have adapted maintain _____________ function
normal
34
CELL ADAPTATION DEFINITION: cells become smaller | Eg. Cells in the muscles shrink from disuse
ATROPHY
35
CELL ADAPTATION DEFINITION: cells get bigger Eg. Muscle cells from exercise Eg. Hypertension causing enlarged heart
HYPERTROPHY
36
CELL ADAPTATION DEFINITION: More cells in a confined area; usually occurs as a result of chronic friction Eg. Frequent bladder infections, Eg. Calluses on feet from poor fitting shoes
HYPERPLASIA
37
CELL ADAPTATION DEFINITION: Varying sized cells in an orderly growth pattern; One type of cell is being replaced by another less functional cell Capable of regeneration into normal cells Eg. Healthy lung cells will be replaced by less functional cells in smoker’s lungs
Metaplasia:
38
CELL ADAPTATION DEFINITION: Nuclei are varying shapes and size Cells do not follow normal pattern of growth Considered pre-cancerous
Dysplasia
39
when assault on cell is too severe, cell becomes ________________
injured
40
_____________ cells cannot maintain normal function
injured
41
___________ injury with a ___________ cell - cell may recover
mild | healthy
42
_____________ injury with an _____________ cell - cell may die
severe | unhealthy
43
CELL INJURY DEFINITION: after mild cell injury, cell may go back to normal function
reversibility
44
CELL INJURY DEFINITION: if cell injury is more severe, cell may die and will not return to normal function; cannot maintain homeostasis
irreversibility
45
DEFINITION: when cell is injured, sodium pump fails and causes sodium to come inside the swell causing cell to swell (Normally, ATP keeps sodium outside of cell & potassium inside the cell)
Hydropic Swelling
46
water accumulation from ____________ ___________ within cell causes damage to mitochondria
Hydropic Swelling
47
DEFINITION: ATP pump malfunction may cause faulty lysosomes resulting in foreign substance build up in cell
Intracellular Accumulation
48
in ___________ ______________, faulty metabolism with mitochondria damage causes substances to accumulate within the cell
Intracellular Accumulation
49
EXAMPLE OF INTRACELLULAR ACCUMULATION
Fatty liver is caused by chronic alcoholism causing lysosome failure to digest fat
50
WHAT KIND OF CELL INJURY? | Cells are physically destroyed
Physical and mechanical injury:
51
WHAT KIND OF CELL INJURY? | Extremes of temperature
Physical and mechanical injury:
52
WHAT KIND OF CELL INJURY? | Electrical injuries
Physical and mechanical injury:
53
WHAT KIND OF CELL INJURY? Bumps, bruises, scrapes, abrasions, contusions
Physical and mechanical injury:
54
WHAT KIND OF CELL INJURY? destruction that can destroy a cell or alter the metabolism of cell
chemical
55
WHAT KIND OF CELL INJURY? eg. lead poisoning in children can lead to neurological damage
chemical
56
WHAT KIND OF CELL INJURY? most common form of cell injury
ISCHEMIC
57
WHAT KIND OF CELL INJURY? caused by lack of blood and oxygen
ISCHEMIC
58
WHAT KIND OF CELL INJURY? if oxygen is not restored soon cells will die because of cell vulnerability
ISCHEMIC
59
IN ISCHEMIC CELL INJURY, once oxygen restoration is accomplished, _________ _____________ may occur
reprofusion injury
60
IN ISCHEMIC CELL INJURY, overflow of calcium disrupts mitochondria, results in __________ ____________ formation and ______________
free radical | inflammation
61
free radicals are __________ __________ molecules
unstable oxygen
62
DEFINITION: irreversible natural cell death; necessary to make room for new cells
APOPTOSIS
63
DEFINITION: irreversible premature cell death due to accidental injury
NECROSIS
64
WHAT KIND OF NECROSIS? Tissue made by denatured protein Gone through ischemia
Coagulative Necrosis
65
WHAT KIND OF NECROSIS? Occurs in areas where there is very little connective tissue, caused by ischemia, bacteria, toxins * Eg. Brain, absesses, cysts
Liquefactive Necrosis
66
WHAT KIND OF NECROSIS? Injured tissue secretes lipase which breaks down normal tissue
Fat Necrosis
67
WHAT KIND OF NECROSIS? Combination of liquifactive and coagualitive Cheese-like Typically found in lung tissue * Eg. TB
Caseous
68
DEFINITION: Clinical term for necrosis
GANGRENE
69
WHAT KIND OF GANGRENE: form of coagulative necrosis, usually on an area with a lack of circulation, skin becomes dry and shrivelled, eg. on a foot
DRY
70
WHAT KIND OF GANGRENE: commonly found on internal organs, eg. strangled hernia
WET
71
WHAT KIND OF GANGRENE: necrotic tissue has bubbles on it
GAS
72
Post-surgical patients will have elevated ________ __________ __________
white blood cells
73
ROLE OF BLOOD COMPONENTS? carry oxygen
RBCS
74
ROLE OF BLOOD COMPONENTS? blood clotting
PLATELETS
75
ROLE OF BLOOD COMPONENTS? protect from infection, play a huge role in inflammation (5000-10,000/mm3)
WBCS
76
- WBCs "first responders" | - Made in bone marrow
NEUTROPHILS
77
these are quickly released during acute inflammatory response
NEUTROPHILS
78
Stay in bloodstream for 6 hours
NEUTROPHILS
79
__________ cells are immature neutrophils
Band
80
2nd line | Antibodies
LYMPHOCYTES
81
Circulate in the blood Migrate into tissue and turn into macrophages Have the ability to engulf large bacteria
MONOCYTES
82
Mischief makers in asthma (shed their granules that release chemicals causing allergic reactions)
EOSINOPHILS
83
Contain granules that release chemicals causing inflammation Will be increased in a major trauma
BASOPHILS
84
WHICH STAGE OF INFLAMMATORY RESPONSE? | Inflammatory mediators are released, blood vessels dilate, pores in blood vessels open up, fluid leaks into tissue
1
85
WHICH STAGE OF INFLAMMATORY RESPONSE? | WBCs leave blood vessels and enter into the tissue; diapedesis
2
86
WHICH STAGE OF INFLAMMATORY RESPONSE? | WBCs destroy invading pathogens through phagocytosis
3
87
DEFINITION: WBCs start sticking to the sides of blood vessels
MARGINATION
88
DEFINITION: WBCs sliping out of the blood vessels after margination, and migrate to the site of injury
CHEMOTAXIS
89
Clinical Manifestations of Inflammation: LOCAL INFLAMMATION (6)
* Erythema * Heat * Edema * Pain * Loss of function * Exudate: drainage of dead WBCs
90
Clinical Manifestations of Inflammation: SYSTEMIC INFLAMMATION (4)
* Pyrexia (fever: interleukin 1 acts on hypothalamus to increase body temperature to fight infection * Fatigue * Anorexia * Leukocytosis: increased WBC count
91
DEFINITION: process by which bacteria divide
BINARY FISSION
92
WHICH MICRO-ORGANISM? * will cause infection by colonizing * if the conditions are not right they will destruct * living or non-living media
BACTERIA
93
WHICH BACTERIA? round, berry-shaped spheres
COCCI
94
WHICH BACTERIA? rod-shaped, long and narrow
BACILLI
95
WHICH BACTERIA? spiral-form
SPIROCHETE
96
DEFINITION: protective coat that is critical to bacteria survival
ENDOSPORE
97
DEFINITION: test used to identify bacteria
GRAM STAIN
98
WHICH MICRO-ORGANISM? * mycoses * eurkaryotic * well-developed
FUNGI
99
DEFINITION: disease caused by fungi
Mycoses
100
WHICH MICRO-ORGANISM? * well-developed * eukaryotic * 2 life cycles: * microorganism that lives in water, plants, soil * eg. bever fever
PROTOZOA
101
2 LIFE CYCLES OF PROTOZOA
1. trophozoite | 2. trophozoite turns into a cyst when conditions are too extreme (too hot, or ingested)
102
WHICH MICRO-ORGANISM? * parasites * eukaryotic * mouth that allows them to latch onto things * eg. flatworms, roundworms, tapeworms
HELMINTHS
103
WHICH MICRO-ORGANISM? * smallest of all the infectious agents * not living * cannot reproduce on their own * multiplies by cell invasion * cannot grow in non-living material * may have a long lifespan
VIRUSES
104
5 STAGES OF HEALING
1. INFLMMATION 2. GRANULATION 3. WOUND CONTRACTION 4. REGENERATION 5. REPAIR
105
WHICH STAGE OF HEALING? purpose: cleans up old debris so that tissue cells ready can repair lasts 0-3 days
INFLAMMATION
106
WHICH STAGE OF HEALING? * lasts 0-10 days * increase cell proliferation on both sides of the wound * increase in collagen (to form a bridge between two tissues) * new basement membrane will form underneath healing ridge * angiogenesis
GRANULATION
107
DEFINITION: new blood vessels to supply new tissue
ANGIOGENESIS
108
WHICH STAGE OF HEALING? * lasts 3-30 days * wound starts to shrink and mould * tissue starts to become aligned properly
WOUND CONTRACTION
109
wounds healing by ___________ intention: sutures or staples
first
110
wounds healing by __________ intention: leaving the wound open to heal from the bottom up, allows infection out
second
111
wounds healing by ___________ intention: wound left open until swelling subsides, after which wounds will be resutured
tertiary
112
WHICH STAGE OF HEALING? * new tissue replaces the old * looks and acts like new * some tissues have the ability to regenerate nicely * eg. skin
REGENNERATION
113
WHICH STAGE OF HEALING? * tissue will repair but won't look or act like it did before * eg. scar tissue
REPAIR
114
DEFINITION: when incision splits open
DEHISCENCE
115
DEFINITION: when incision splits apart and organs protrude
EVISCERATION
116
4 processes of nociception:
1. TRANSDUCTION 2. TRANSMISSION 3. PERCEPTION 4. MODULATION
117
2 sets of fibers in transmission
1. fast fibers (a fibers) | 2. slow fibers (c fibers)
118
DEFINITION: alleviates pain by inhibiting substance P and promotes endorphins and enkephalins
MODULATION
119
DEFINITION: the amount of pain a person can tolerate before the person becomes aware of the pain, the point at which a person becomes aware of the pain
PAIN THRESHOLD
120
DEFINITION: the amount of pain a person can bear before they seek relief
PAIN TOLERANCE
121
DEFINITION: when person first becomes aware of the pain
PAIN PERCEPTION
122
EFFECTS OF PAIN: RESPIRATORY
- actelectasis | - pneumonia
123
EFFECTS OF PAIN: MUSCULOSKELETAL
- dvt | - high blood pressure
124
EFFECTS OF PAIN: ENDOCRINE
- stress | - cortisol
125
EFFECTS OF PAIN: IMMUNITY
- cortisol decreases immunity
126
Difference between acute/nociceptive pain and neuropathic pain:
* acute is meant to be protective | * neuropathic pain has abnormal processing
127
TYPE OF PAIN: * Tissues deprived of oxygen * Lactic acid (biproduct of anaerobic) sets off neurotransmitters
ISCHEMIC
128
TYPE OF PAIN: Associated with chronic pain
NEUROPATHIC
129
``` TYPE OF PAIN: Characteristics * May not have high vitals * fatigue * Hyperalgesia * Allodynia ```
NEUROPATHIC
130
DEFINITION: increased sensitivity to pain
HYPERALGESIA
131
DEFINITION: pain is caused by something that doesn’t normally cause pain
ALLODYNIA
132
chronic pain is a _____________
stressor
133
DEFINITION: secreted by adrenal medula; also called epinephrine
ADRENALINE
134
ADRENALINE OR CORTISOL: * Increases heartrate and blood pressure, * dialate pupils, * contract skeletal muscle, * vasodilation to release blood for muscles * vasoconstriction around core and heart
ADRENALINE
135
ADRENALINE OR CORTISOL: - helps epinephrine - breaks down protein - decreases muscle mass - hyperglycemia - decreased protein synthesis - Decreases inflammatory response - Redistribution of fat - Decreased blood flow to gastric mucosa
CORTISOL
136
DEFINITION: Takes amino acids and burns them for energy and converts them into glucose (new glucose)
Gluconeogenesis
137
____ L total body water
42
138
___________ ___________ at greatest risk of dehydration because of a greater ratio of skin surface and kidneys cannot conserve water
premature infants
139
Two broad fluid compartments
1. Intracellular (25 L) | 2. Extracellular (17 L)
140
DEFINITION: movement of water through cell membrane as a result of hydrostatic pressure
FILTRATION
141
DEFINITION: moves water from blood vessels into interstitial space
HYDROSTATIC PRESSURE
142
DEFINITION: movement of water from an area of lesser concentration to one of more concentration
OSMOSIS
143
DEFINITION: pressure that moves water from interstitial space into blood vessels
COLLOID OSMOTIC PRESSURE
144
DEFINITION: protein in blood that affects the movement of water
ALBUMIN
145
Colloid osmotic pressure should __________ hydrostatic pressure
EQUAL
146
DEFINITION: measure of degree of concentration; number of particles per kilogram of solvent.
OSMOLALITY
147
DEFINITION: measures the amount of substance in our blood
SERUM OSMALALITY
148
SERUM OSMOLALITY IS _______-_______!!!
285-295
149
Signs of dehydration (12)
1. Sudden weight loss 2. Lightheadedness, dizziness, or syncope 3. Sunken fontanel (infants) 4. Rapid, thready pulse 5. Low urine output (oliguria) 6. Decreased skin turgor 7. Absence of sweat and tears (infants) 8. Hard stools 9. Soft, sunken eyeballs 10. Thirst 11. Confusion, lethargy 12. Hypovolemic shock
150
Signs of hypovolemia (8)
1. Acites (fluid buildup in the abdomen) 2. Crackles on auscultation 3. Edema (swelling) - particularly hands, feet, and ankles 4. Difficulty breathing while lying down 5. High blood pressure 6. Irritated cough 7. Shortness of breath (dyspnea) 8. Strong, rapid pulse
151
__________ output is the best indicator of fluid status
Urine
152
DEFINITION: when somebody has a collection of fluid in a place where it normally wouldn’t be
THIRD SPACING
153
DEFINITION: Excess water is accumulating in peritoneal space
THIRD SPACING
154
DEFINITION: A collection of fluid in the pleural cavity resulting from a disease process, causing atelectassis
PLEURAL EFFUSION
155
DEFINITION: Fluid that has the same particle concentration (osmolality) as normal body fluid, will not change size of cells.
ISOTONIC
156
DEFINITION: Fluid that has a higher particle concentration (osmolality) than normal body fluid; causes a net flow of water across cell membranes out of cells, causes water to come out of blood and the cells to shrink
HYPERTONIC
157
DEFINITION: Fluid that has a lower particle concentration (osmolality) than normal body fluid; causes a net flow of water across cell membranes into cells., causes water to become more watery and the cells to swell
HYPOTONIC
158
DEFINITION: | too much sodium in the blood, caused by dehydration and eating too much salt
HYPERNATREMIA
159
DEFINITION: too little salt in the blood
HYPONATREMIA
160
clinical manifestations OF HYPERNATREMIA
thirst, lethargy, confusion, seizures, death
161
CLINICAL MANIFESTATIONS OF HYPONATREMIA
Muscle cramps, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, malaise, headache, lethargy, seizures, coma
162
Sodium (Na+) _______–________ mmol/L
136 - 145
163
Potassium (K+) ______-_______ mmol/L
3.5 - 5.0
164
WHICH LYMPHOCYTES? * also known as immunoglobulins * immunoglobulins fit like lock and key mechanism
B
165
B Lymphocytes are also known as ____________ ____________
humoral immunity
166
WHICH IMMUNOGLOBULIN? | antibody that responds in blood transfusions
M
167
WHICH IMMUNOGLOBULIN? | accounts for most antibodies
G
168
WHICH IMMUNOGLOBULIN? respond to bacteria and viruses disease/virus-specific
G
169
WHICH IMMUNOGLOBULIN? | antibodies that mother passes on to infant
G
170
WHICH IMMUNOGLOBULIN? - antibodies found in body secretions - saliva and tears - born with them
A
171
WHICH IMMUNOGLOBULIN? | - normally present in blood in small amounts
E
172
WHICH IMMUNOGLOBULIN? | - elevated when allergic reaction present
E
173
WHICH IMMUNOGLOBULIN? | unsure of role
D
174
_____ Lymphocytes are also known as cell-mediated immunity
T
175
WHICH LYMPHOCYTE? going to mature into either helper cells or cytotoxic cells
T
176
mature cytotoxic t cells is going to kill an invader ____________
directly
177
mature helper t cells helps build ____________
antibodies
178
the HIV attacks t-helper cells because of ______
CD4
179
2 Different Types of Immunity
1. natural | 2. artificial
180
WHICH KIND OF IMMUNITY? | immunity that we get from being exposed
NATURAL
181
WHICH KIND OF IMMUNITY? something was deliberately injected into us
ARTIFICIAL
182
WHICH KIND OF IMMUNITY? active: antibodies made based on exposure (eg. to chicken pox) resulting in immunity
NATURAL
183
WHICH KIND OF IMMUNITY? passive: antibodies that infant receives from mother, resulting in immunity for first 3 months of life
NATURAL
184
WHICH KIND OF IMMUNITY? active: getting vaccinated
ARTIFICIAL
185
WHICH KIND OF IMMUNITY? passive: person has not been previously immunized, has become exposed, and is now receiving immunoglobulins via injections (ImG)
ARTIFICIAL
186
WHICH VIRUS? part of the retrovirus family
HIV
187
WHICH VIRUS? destroy T helper cells which means no antibodies are produced
HIV
188
3 ENZYMES INVOLVED IN HIV
* protease * integrase * reverse transcriptase
189
6 STEPS TO THE HIV PROCESS OF CAUSING DAMAGE
1. uses glycoproteins to latch onto cell 2. fuses to cell 3. injects RNA into the cell 4. reverse transcriptase takes RNA and turns it into DNA 5. integrase takes DNA and puts it with DNA in the nucleus 6. protease takes DNA and rebuilds it into RNA (rebuilds another RNA virus)
190
HIV 3 Modes of Transmission
* sexual contact * blood or blood products * mother to child transmission
191
NAME THE STAGE OF HIV/AIDS Progression - t helper cells are main targets (CD4 Molecules) - rapid replication following exposure
INITIAL INFECTION
192
NAME THE STAGE OF HIV/AIDS Progression - antibodies don't develop until 3 weeks to 6 months - might have general flu-like symptoms (lethargy, sore joints) as body trying to fight off infection
Seroconversion
193
NAME THE STAGE OF HIV/AIDS Progression - symptoms disappear - virus is still active and producing - cytotoxic T cells are still working and trying to kill off virus
CLINICAL LATENCY
194
NAME THE STAGE OF HIV/AIDS Progression - over time cytotoxic T cells are going to diminish - trying to destroy immune system at same time - lasts about 10 years
CLINICAL LATENCY
195
NAME THE STAGE OF HIV/AIDS PROGRESSION - CD count < 200 - recurrent pneumonia - opportunistic infections
AIDS
196
NAME THE STAGE OF HIV/AIDS PROGRESSION - kaposis sarcomma, thrush - wasting syndrome - associated neurological disease
AIDS
197
2 Tests for HIV infection
1. enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) test | 2. Western Blot test
198
WHICH HIV TEST? - looking for antibodies - possible false negatives if taken before antibodies are produced - because of 3 weeks "window period"
ELISA
199
WHICH HIV TEST? - tested on HIV positive person - helps to measure the progression
WESTERN BLOT TEST
200
DEFINITION: immune system is behaving inappropriately
Hypersensitivity
201
WHICH TYPE OF HYPERSENSITIVITY? - allergic reaction, asthma - histamines cause inflammation in the lungs resulting in: * SOB * bronchoconstriction * wheezing * increase in mucus production
1
202
WHICH TYPE OF HYPERSENSITIVITY? - also known as cytotoxic - tissue specific - antibodies (IgG & IgM) attack antigens on the surface of specific cells eg. Graves disease, hemolytic anemia (incompatible blood transfusion)
2
203
WHICH TYPE OF HYPERSENSITIVITY? - not tissue specific - damage ALL blood vessels in any and all tissue - destroys multiple tissues and organs at the same time * eg. lupus
3
204
WHICH TYPE OF HYPERSENSITIVITY? - t cells are culprits - tissue specific
4
205
Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) effects 6 key areas
``` kidneys heart brain lung skin joints ```
206
SYSTEMIC VS. DISCOID LUPUS? * joints: arthritis in the joints * lungs: resp. failure
SYSTEMIC
207
SYSTEMIC VS. DISCOID LUPUS? | skin: butterfly-shaped facial rash
DISCOID
208
CLINICAL MANIFESTATIONS OF LUPUS
- acute or insidious - arthralgia, fever, fatigue, joint deformities - malar rash, lattice like venular skin changes, - alopecia - raynaud's phenomenon - glomerulonephritis renal failure - myocarditis CHF - pleuritis, pleural effusion
209
PEOPLE WHO MOST COMMONLY GET LUPUS?
female 15-40 years, child-bearing age
210
LUPUS TESTS?
positive ANA test is usually present with positive anti-DNA (antibody to native DNA) and anti-Sm (antibody to Smith nuclear antigen)