test 2 Flashcards

1
Q

AFRS fungi (IGE sensitized)

A

Bipolaris, Curvularia, Exserohilum, Drechslera, Fusarium, Helminothosporium

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2
Q
  • type 1 hypersensitivity to fungal antigens
  • nasal polyps
  • characteristic CT findings of high attenuation areas in affected sinuses
  • eosinophilic mucin
  • a positive fungal smear
A

AFRS criteria

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3
Q

increased nasal airflow

A

sympathetic activity, exercise, increased blood CO2, epinephrine

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4
Q

decreased nasal airflow

A

menstruation, puberty, pregnancy

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5
Q

positive methacholine challenge

A

20% fall in FEV1

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6
Q

T cells express to migrate to the skin

A

CLA, CCR4, CCR10, CRTH2

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7
Q

CCR7 expressed on T cells

A

migration of T cells into secondary lymphoid organisms through HEV

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8
Q

Heterozygous, germline, gain-of-function variants in CXCR4 (lymphocyte migration to secondary lymph nodes)

A

warts, hypogammaglobulinemia, infections, and myelokathexis (WHIM) syndrome

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9
Q

dermatitis, low platelets, recurrent infections

A

Wiskott Aldrich syndrome

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10
Q

chronic AD with impetigo, lung infections

A

Hyper IGe syndrome

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11
Q

infant with dermatitis, intractable diarrhea, diabetes, hypothyroid

A

IPEX

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12
Q

difficult to treat viral skin infections

A

Dock 8 deficiency

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13
Q

infant with dermatitis not responsive to steroids, periorificial rash, necrotic areas around the nose, diarrhea

A

zinc deficiency, acrodermatitis enteropathica

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14
Q

chemical preservative found in many water-based products such as sunscreen, cosmetics, hair products, liquid soap, laundry products, premoistened facial wipes and baby wipes.

A

methylisothiazolinone (MI)

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15
Q

sporting goods such as tennis rackets, building construction, and vehicle parts; therefore, favoring the distribution of the rash is on the hand

A

Bisphenol A

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16
Q

shoes and leather so the rash distribution is usually on the dorsum of the feet

A

potassium dichromate

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17
Q

dental implants, artificial joints, and engines

A

cobalt dichloride

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18
Q

contact derm hair products

A
  • Cocamidopropyl betaine
  • Para-phenylenediamine (PPD)
  • Fragrances
  • Preservatives
  • Glycerol thioglycolate
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19
Q

fever, urticarial rash, conjunctival ingestion, arthralgia, attacks start hours after exposure to cold

A

FCAS (familial cold autoinflammatory syndrome)
IL-1 - anti is canakinumab

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20
Q

sudden onset of asthma, typically within minutes to hours after a single high-level exposure to an irritating agent, typically a gas, vapor, or smoke. no history of prior asthma

A

reactive airway dysfunction syndrome

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21
Q

evidence of exposure (history and positive IgG to culprit antigen), chest x-ray or high-resolution CT with reticular, nodular or ground-glass opacities, bronchoalveolar lavage with lymphocytosis > 20% but often >50% with CD4:CD8 ratio < 1, histopathology of lesion with non-caseating granulomas or mononuclear cell infiltrate and symptoms upon reexposure (positive inhalational challenge).

A

hypersensitivity pneumonitis

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22
Q

80-90% maximum heart rate for 8 minutes and 10% drop in FEV1

A

exercise challenge test

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23
Q

hazelnut protein birch pollen

A

cor a 1

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24
Q

components associated with clinical reactivity to hazelnut

A

cor a 8,9,14

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25
biomarker for cytokine release reactions
IL-6
26
SM criteria
bone marrow >15 mast cells in aggregate, >25% mast cells haivng spindle shape or atypical morphology, kit d816v, expression of CD2 or CD25 on CD117+ mast cells, total tryptase >20
27
elevated CD4/CD8 ration
sarcoidosis (decreased in HP)
28
MEFV
FMF
29
NLRP3
CAPS
30
MVK
Hyper IgD syndrome
31
urticarial rash, arthralgia, red eyes, sensorineural hearing loss, trigger: cold teps, NLRP3
Cryopyrin associated periodic fever syndromes
32
1-3 days arthritis, chest pain, abdominal pain
FMF
33
>7 days myalgia, migratory rash, periorbital edema, TNFRSF1A
tumor necrosis factor receptor-associated periodic fever syndrome
34
fever 3-7 days, pain lymphadenopathy, mouth ulcers, after vaccines
MVK/Hyper IgD
35
X-linked, ectodermal dysplasia, increased infections
NEMO (IKBKG)
36
CYBB gene defect
CGD
37
GOF CXCR4
WHIM - warts, hypogam often have lymphopenia too, infections, myelkastehxis neutropenia due to inability of mature granulocytes to leave BM
38
STAT1 GOF
CMC
39
AIRE
CMC plus adrenal failure hypopituarism
40
presents lipid antigens on dendritic cells
CD1
41
receptor involved in IgG transfer across placental membrane
FcRN
42
receptor upregulated by IVIG to reduce autoantibody production
FcgammeRIIB
43
omalizumab MOA
binds to Cepisolon3 portion of heavy chain, prevents binding of FcepsilonR1, forms complex cleared by RES reducing IgE
44
transcritption factor IL-2 stimulation
STAT5
45
ITGB2
LAD1
46
SLC35C1
LAD2
47
Kindlin 3
LAD3
48
CD3+CD25+CD45RO+
effector T cells
49
CD3+CD45RA+CCR7+CD127+
naive T cells
50
CD117
c-kit
51
CD163
macrophage, HLH
52
cytokines that stimulate mast cells
stem cell factor (ligand for CD117), IL-3
53
GATA3 expressed by ILC2s
promotes Th2 response
54
GATA1
eosinophils mature in the bone marrow
55
RANTES (CCL-5) and eotaxin 2(CCL24)
eosinophils migrate to tissues in response to
56
GM-CSF, IL-3, IL-5
eosinophil differentiation, maturation, activation
57
GATA2
promotes growth and differentiation of mast cells
58
RORgammaT
promotes Th17 response
59
ELANE
congenital neutropenia
60
no adjustments for renal failure
loratadine and first generation
61
no adjustment hepatic impairment
fexofenadine
62
chamomile cross reacts wtih
mugwort
63
cardioselective beta blockers
metoprolol, atenolol, bisoprolol (spare lungs)
64
most common method to measure IgG level
nephelometry
65
tryptase anaphylaxi
1.2Xbaseline tryptase +2
66
CD63 and CD203c
basophils
67
nonallergic rhinitis receptor
TRPA1
68
intradermal testing
increased sensitivity, lower specificity
69
CR1
erythrocyte receptor that binds C3b involved in clearing immune complexes
70