TEST 2 Flashcards

1
Q

inability to repeat certain phrases, word finding difficulty, multiple paraphasic errors; naming sometimes impaired, auditory comprehension intact

A

conduction aphasia (lesion to arcuate fasiculus b/w broac’s and wernicke’s)

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2
Q

rapidly correcting hyponatremia leading to central pontine myelinolisis leads to

A

locked in syndrome (dissection of pons)

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3
Q

advocacy group made up of families of mentally ill; can work locally or state wide or federal

A

National alliance for the mentally ill (NAMI)

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4
Q

time window for TPA

A

within 3-4.5 hours of stroke (not later)

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5
Q

ipsilateral Horner’s syndrome, ipsilateral loss of fine touch in face + contralateral loss pain/temp in body, cerebellar ataxia, vocal cord weakness; dx and localize lesion

A

lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg syndrome)

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6
Q

What does NE do to aggressioN?

A

inhibit (like serotonin)

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7
Q

metochromatic leukodystrophy (mode of inheritance, and what is deficient)

A

autosomal recessive, deficiency in arylsulfatase A (ASA)
causes accumulation of sulfatides -> demyelination -> gait disorder with hypotonia with lower limb areflexia

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8
Q

biopsy finindgs metachroatic leukodystrophy

A

metachromatic inclusions within Schwann cells/macrophages; abnormal ASA enzyme assay in luekyocytes and increased sulfatide excretion

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9
Q

which primitive reflex keeps going after 6 months sometimes?

A

parachute reflex (grasp rooting, Moro, tonic neck reflex all should be gone before 6 months)

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10
Q

most commo cause of visual deficits in AIDS pt

A

CMV

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11
Q

difficulty recognizing one’s emotions

A

alexithymia

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12
Q

risperidone affinity to D2 receptor

A

just as much as haldol = also has risk for EPS

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13
Q

treatment of choice for urinary retention

A

bethanecol

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14
Q

which mood stabilizer has the most general/broad coverage for multiple seizures (general tonic clonic, absence, myclonic, etc)

A

VPA

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15
Q

anticholinergic side effects

A

dry mouth, blurry vision, sweating, orthostatic hypotension, sedation, lethargy, agitation, slowed cardiac conduction

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16
Q

nerve for foot flexion/dorsiflexion

A

L5; lesion causes foot drop

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17
Q

foot extension nerve

A

S1

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18
Q

nerve for leg extension

A

L3/L4

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19
Q

hip flexion nerve

A

L1, L2, L3

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20
Q

nerve for achilles/ankle jerk motor reflex

A

S1

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21
Q

which antidepressant can be used to treat gastic ulcers and why?

A

amitriptyline; due to antihistaminic effect

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22
Q

brown sequard syndrome involves what findings (spinal cord hemisection)

A

IPSILATERAL loss of motor+posterior column (proprioception, fine touch, vibration) to and below level of lesion
CONTRALATERAL loss of pain and temp a few dermatomes below lesion

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23
Q

poor performance on cube drawing deficiency in what area

A

right parietal lobe, inferior temporal lobe (deficits in spatial perception and attention)

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24
Q

Alzheimer’s and LBD performance on clcok drawing and delayed recall

A

clocko drawing - LBD worse, Alz better
delayed recall - Alz worse

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25
poor letter F fluency on MOCA, lesion?
frontal lobe
26
overall scores of initial MOCA for Alz comapred to LBD or FTD?
WORSE overall
27
MOCA < 26; what to brain
chronic reduction of cerebral blood flow
28
MOCA results in depression
global cognitive slowing; tend to be < 26 even with no dementia
29
MOCA deficits in brain mets?
defiits in delayed recall, language, visual/spatial executive function
30
pt speaks in nonsens sayin g"thar szing is phrumper zu stalking"; normal intonation but nobody can understand him;
wernicke's aphasia/fluent aphasia
31
pt presents with inability to write, calculate, do arithmetic, inability to dstinguish fingers on hand; where is lesion
left parietal (gerstmann syndrome)
32
CSF findings in HSV
lymphcytic pleocytosis (increased WBCs)
33
up to down (order of brainstem)
midbrain pons medulla
34
fmidbrain lesions cause what kind of symptoms (CN 3-5)
"eyeballs" abnormality in eye ovements and face sensation
35
lesions to pons cause what (CN 5-9)
"middle face" abnormalities in facial movement, chewing, saliva, hearing/balance
36
Damge to medulla causes what
"neck stuff" CN9-12 tongue movement, taste, swalloing, neck movement
37
lesions to what part of brain stem can cause ataxia?
all of them! cerebellum has projections to all parts of brainstem
38
pt presents with hiccups, left sided facenumbness, nystagmus, hoarseness,, deficits in pain temp on RIGHT side of body, ataxia, vertigo, nausea, vomiting; what blood vessel invovled?
lateral medullary syndrome/wallengerg occlusion of POSTERIOR INFERIOR CEREBELLAR ARTERY
39
treatment bell's palsy
steroids OR antivirals if caused by HSV
40
suspected cause of trigeminal neuralgia?
susuperior ceberallar artery compressiong CNV near connection to pons
41
how to differentiate alcoholic cereballar degeneration from wernicke's encephalopathy?
ACD doens't cause eye movement issues or eye pain
42
treatment for Huntington's
symptomatic treatment can also uses haldol or high potency antipsychotics
43
activity of subthalamic nucleus and globus pallidus in parkinson's
INCREASED (leads to DA inhibition and movement disorders like bradykinesia)
44
what mood stabilizer can be helpful in pseudotumor cerebri?
topamax (inhibits carbonic anhydrase leading to decerased cSF production and lowers ICP)
45
CSF MS
oligoclonal bands, elevated protein, nucleated cells
46
what can trigger MS flares?
infections (common cold, URI), heat, pregnancy, emotional stress
47
how to differentiate ALS from cervical spondylosis and transverse myelitis
ALS doesn't present with SENSORY issues; only motor
48
stocking glove sensory deifict
GBS
49
most helpful test for ALS
EMG (w/ fibrilations)
50
parkinson symptoms (gait issues, bradykinesia, rigidity) with difficulties with vertical gaze?
progressive supranuclear palsy
51
pupils in botulism
DILATED (causes blurred vision)
52
autoantibodies taret what in lambert eaton
PRESYNAPTIC CALCIUM (prevents release of Ach)
53
pupils in MG
NORMAL, reactive
54
antibodies target in MG
POST SYNAPTIC Ach receptors (so Ach production is normal just blocked)
55
site of Ach production
nucleus basalis of Meynert
56
introns or exons geneticall y active?
EXONS; introns are spliced out
57
DNA methylation does what to transcription
represses (DNA Methylation Masks)
58
Histone methylation vs histone acetylation
methylation - REPRESSES DNA transcription most of the time; "Methylation Mostly Mutes" acetylation - relaexes chromatin coils and ACTIVATES transcription; "Acetylation ACTivates"
59
single gene affecting multiple phenotypes
pleiotropy (PKU)
60
Same genotype yielding varying phenotypes/clinical features/disease severity
variable expressivity (NF-1, MS)
61
imprinting on chromosome 15
angelman - Paternal imprinting (lmom's chromosome deleted/silent) Prader Willi - maternal imprinting; (father's chromosome 15 deleted)
62
chromsomal translocation occuring on pairs of acrocentric chromosomes leading to long and short arms
robertsonian translocations (downs, Patau, miscarriage, stillbirth)
63
transitional object; "good enough mother"
Winnicott
64
"ego splitting", infant/mother relationship; "depressive/paranoid/schizoid positions
Melanie Klein
65
"mirroring", narcissim
Kohut (Self psychology)
66
who developed modern, short-term therapy by shortening sessions/decreasing frequency
Franz Alexander
67
who developed/utilized interpersonal therapy
developed by Klerman, uutilized by Harry Stack Sullivan
68
who developed therapy that reduces overt behaviors/symptoms of mental illness, uses conditioning and modeling
John Watson (developed behavioral therapy)
69
counterconditioning to decrease maladaptive anxiety; decreases response to anxiety provoking stimuli
systematic desensitization; good for phobias
70
what is like systematic desensitization but nore extreme and with no hierarchy
flooding (intead of slowly exposing someone to increasing heights, just tell them to go to tallest building and sit there until fear subsides)
71
who designed biofeedback
Miller
72
unearthing repressed emotoins and reliving them to increase insight
abreaction
73
expression of an emotion in one member elicits expression of emotion in another
contagion
74
idea that an individual is not alone with their problems
universalization
75
what type of therapy involves neutraility, circular interaction between family/therapists, circular questions
Milan system; type of family therapy
76
mechanism carbidopa-levodopa
carbidopa - inhibits DOPA decarboxylase and prevents metabolism of levodopa to dopa before it can cross BBB
77
defense mechanism most often seen in psychosis and paranoid personality disorder
projection
78
seizures, hemiparesis, facial cutaneous angioma (PORT WINE NEVUS), ID; toddler
Sturge Weber
79
retinal+CNS hemangioblastomas, visercal cyssts, tumors; most often in cerebellum and kidneys
Von Hippel Landau
80
early onset ataxia with small dilated bruising
ataxia telangectasia
81
sweating/cool/blue skin after constant pain after injury/trauma
COOL SKIN AFTER PAIN? reflex sympathetic dystrophy
82
carbamazepine inducer at what?
2C19 3A4
83
clozapine substrate of what
1A2
84
if pt loses capacity and no surrogate decision maker can be found...what does the state do?
takes steps to make a decision that PRESERVES AND PROTECTS HUMAN LIFE
85
tobacco smoking lowers levels of which meds?
CLOZAPINE OLANZAPINE HALDOL AMITRIPTYLINE IMIPRAMINE