Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

finals > Test > Flashcards

Test Flashcards

1
Q

What is rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Chronic autoimmune inflammation of synovial joints

It can affect individuals of any age, with a higher prevalence in middle-aged women.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the risk factors for rheumatoid arthritis?

A
  • Smoking
  • Obesity
  • Family history (HLA DR4)

These factors increase the likelihood of developing the condition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the pathophysiology of rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Inflammation of synovial lining of joints, tendon sheaths, and bursae leading to thickening and infiltration by inflammatory cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the typical presentation of rheumatoid arthritis?

A
  • Joint pain
  • Stiffness worse in morning (>30 mins)
  • Inflammation (red, hot, swollen)
  • General fatigue, malaise, weight loss, myalgia

Symmetrical distal polyarthritis is common.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are some characteristic hand symptoms associated with rheumatoid arthritis?

A
  • Swan neck deformity
  • Boutonniere deformity
  • Z thumb
  • Ulnar deviation
  • Subluxation

These deformities affect the fingers and wrists.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is palindromic rheumatism?

A

Self-limiting episodes of inflammatory arthritis that last a few days and may resolve.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are extra-articular symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis?

A
  • Pulmonary fibrosis
  • Felty’s syndrome
  • Sjogren’s syndrome
  • Anemia of chronic disease
  • Cardiovascular disease
  • Rheumatoid nodules
  • Lymphadenopathy
  • Carpal tunnel syndrome
  • Amyloidosis
  • Bronchiolitis obliterans
  • Caplan syndrome

These symptoms can affect various organ systems beyond the joints.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the key laboratory findings in rheumatoid arthritis?

A
  • Anemia
  • Thrombocytosis
  • Raised CRP
  • Raised ESR
  • Positive rheumatoid factor
  • Positive anti-CCP

These tests help in diagnosing the disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the significance of the Health Assessment Questionnaire (HAQ)?

A

Measures functional ability in patients with rheumatoid arthritis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the first-line treatment for rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (DMARDs) such as methotrexate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are common side effects of methotrexate?

A
  • Mouth ulcers
  • Liver toxicity
  • Bone marrow suppression
  • Leukopenia
  • Teratogenic effects

Regular monitoring of FBC and LFTs is crucial.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are biological therapies used for in rheumatoid arthritis?

A

To interact with the immune system and reduce inflammation when there is an inadequate response to DMARDs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the role of TNF inhibitors in rheumatoid arthritis treatment?

A

They are used when there is an inadequate response to two or more DMARDs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is psoriatic arthritis?

A

Inflammatory arthritis associated with psoriasis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the five patterns of psoriatic arthritis?

A
  • Asymmetrical oligoarthritis
  • Symmetrical polyarthritis
  • DIP predominant pattern
  • Spondylitis
  • Arthritis mutilans

These patterns describe the various ways the disease can manifest.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the typical presentation of ankylosing spondylitis?

A
  • Lower back pain
  • Stiffness in buttocks
  • Pain worse at night, improves with movement

May progress to a kyphotic posture.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the extra-articular features of ankylosing spondylitis?

A
  • Anterior uveitis
  • Amyloidosis
  • Aortic regurgitation
  • AV node block
  • Sausage digit (dactylitis)
  • Inflammatory back pain
  • Crohn’s disease

These features may accompany the joint symptoms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is osteomalacia?

A

Soft bones due to decreased bone mineral content and low vitamin D.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are common causes of osteomalacia?

A
  • Vitamin D deficiency
  • Malabsorption
  • Chronic kidney disease

These factors impair the body’s ability to properly mineralize bones.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is osteoporosis?

A

Low bone mass leading to fragile bones and increased fracture risk.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the common risk factors for osteoporosis?

A
  • Older age
  • Female gender
  • Post-menopausal status
  • Reduced mobility
  • Low BMI
  • Low calcium/vitamin D intake

These factors contribute to the development of osteoporosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What does a DEXA scan measure?

A

Bone mineral density at the femoral neck.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the first-line treatment for osteoporosis?

A

Bisphosphonates, such as Alendronate or Risedronate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the side effects of bisphosphonate therapy?

A

Reflux, oesophageal erosions, atypical fractures, osteonecrosis of jaw, external auditory canal

These side effects necessitate reassessment of bisphosphonate treatment after 3-5 years.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is Denosumab and how does it function?

A

Monoclonal antibody against osteoclasts, administered subcutaneously twice yearly, inhibits RANK ligand

This inhibition prevents the maturation of osteoclasts, which are responsible for bone resorption.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How does Teriparatide affect bone health?

A

Acts as parathyroid hormone, increases bone formation

Teriparatide is used in the treatment of osteoporosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is Raloxifene and its mechanism of action?

A

Selective oestrogen receptor modulator that stimulates oestrogen receptors in bones

Raloxifene is used in the treatment of osteoporosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is Strontium ranelate’s effect on bone?

A

Stimulates osteoblasts and blocks osteoclasts

It is used to treat osteoporosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What characterizes Paget’s disease of bone?

A

Focal bone remodeling due to increased bone turnover

It has a prevalence of about 5%.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the primary pathophysiology of Paget’s disease?

A

Cause is unknown, involves increased osteoclast and osteoblast activity

New bone formed is weaker, leading to deformities and fractures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are common risk factors for Paget’s disease?

A

Older age, male sex, Northern latitude, family history

These factors increase the likelihood of developing the disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are typical symptoms of Paget’s disease?

A

Asymptomatic in 60-80%, bone pain, untreated can lead to bowing of tibia and bossing of skull

Symptoms may vary in severity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What laboratory findings are associated with Paget’s disease?

A

Raised alkaline phosphatase, normal calcium and phosphate, raised urinary hydroxyproline

Alkaline phosphatase is a marker of bone turnover.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What imaging findings are characteristic of Paget’s disease?

A

Localized bony enlargement, sclerotic changes, osteolytic areas, thickened skull vault

X-rays may show a cotton wool appearance in the skull.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the primary treatment for Paget’s disease?

A

Bisphosphonates, calcitonin if bisphosphonates are unsuitable, analgesia, calcium and vitamin D supplementation

Surgery may be needed for fractures or deformities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is gout?

A

Joint inflammation due to deposition of monosodium urate (MSU) crystals in joints

It is classified as a type of crystal arthritis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What causes gout?

A

High serum uric acid levels, decreased excretion, increased production, dietary factors

Renal dysfunction and certain medications can also contribute.

38
Q

What are the classic symptoms of gout?

A

Pain, swelling, erythema, typically affecting the 1st MTP joint

Gouty tophi may also develop in chronic cases.

39
Q

What laboratory tests are used to diagnose gout?

A

Raised serum uric acid during acute flare, synovial fluid analysis, X-ray findings

Polarised light microscopy can identify needle-shaped negatively birefringent crystals.

40
Q

What is the first-line treatment for acute gout flares?

A

NSAIDs and a PPI, colchicine as a second option, oral steroids as a third option

Treatment should be initiated promptly to relieve symptoms.

41
Q

What is pseudogout?

A

Deposition of calcium pyrophosphate (CPP) crystals on joint surfaces, leading to inflammation

Also known as calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystal deposition disease (CPPD).

42
Q

What are the common symptoms of pseudogout?

A

Pain, stiffness, swelling, typically in the knee, shoulder, hip, or wrist

Symptoms can be acute or chronic.

43
Q

What findings support a diagnosis of fibromyalgia?

A

Widespread chronic pain, specific tenderness at 11 of 18 tender points

Associated symptoms include fatigue, cognitive impairment, and sleep disturbances.

44
Q

What is systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)?

A

Inflammatory autoimmune multi-system disorder, more common in females aged 20-40

Characterized by anti-nuclear antibodies and relapsing-remitting course.

45
Q

What are common clinical features of SLE?

A

Fatigue, weight loss, fever, lymphadenopathy, malar rash, arthritis

Symptoms can involve multiple systems including skin, joints, and kidneys.

46
Q

What laboratory tests are used to diagnose SLE?

A

85% ANA positive, anti-dsDNA specific for SLE, anti-Sm specific but not sensitive

Other auto-antibodies may indicate associated conditions.

47
Q

What is the primary treatment for SLE?

A

Hydroxychloroquine, NSAIDs, steroids, DMARDs

Treatment is tailored based on the severity and organ involvement.

48
Q

What is discoid lupus erythematosus?

A

Autoimmune chronic skin condition with follicular keratin plugs, characterized by raised erythematous rashes

Less than 5% progress to SLE.

49
Q

What is systemic sclerosis?

A

Autoimmune disorder involving inflammation and fibrosis of connective tissues and skin

It can lead to significant complications including pulmonary hypertension.

50
Q

What are the hallmark features of limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis?

A

CREST syndrome: Calcinosis, Raynaud’s, esophageal dysmotility, sclerodactyly, telangiectasia

This form is more common and has a better prognosis than diffuse systemic sclerosis.

51
Q

What is Raynaud’s phenomenon?

A

Episodic vasospasm in fingers or toes in response to cold or stress

It can be primary (Raynaud’s disease) or secondary to other conditions.

52
Q

What are the primary symptoms of Sjogren’s syndrome?

A

Dry eyes, dry mouth, parotid swelling, systemic signs like fatigue and polyarthritis

It involves autoimmune destruction of exocrine glands.

53
Q

What is the treatment for myositis?

A

Corticosteroids, immunosuppressants, physical therapy

Treatment aims to reduce inflammation and improve muscle strength.

54
Q

What is polymyositis?

A

A condition characterized by symmetrical progressive proximal muscle weakness affecting shoulders and hips

Symptoms include difficulty squatting, climbing stairs, and raising hands, along with fatigue and muscle cramps.

55
Q

What are common symptoms of dermatomyositis?

A

Heliotrope rash, Gottron’s sign, photosensitive erythematous rash, and extra-muscular symptoms such as fever and arthralgia

Heliotrope rash is a purple discoloration of the eyelids, while Gottron’s sign presents as scaly erythematous plaques over knuckles.

56
Q

What laboratory findings are typically elevated in polymyositis and dermatomyositis?

A

CK, LDH, aldolase, AST, ALT

Autoantibodies such as anti-Jo-1 are also commonly present.

57
Q

What is Behçet’s disease?

A

A complex autoimmune inflammatory condition affecting blood vessels and tissues

It is characterized by a classic triad of oral ulcers, genital ulcers, and anterior uveitis.

58
Q

What is the classic triad of Behçet’s disease?

A

Oral ulcers, genital ulcers, anterior uveitis

The ulcers are painful and can heal in 2-4 weeks.

59
Q

What are common symptoms of chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS)?

A

Disabling fatigue, sleep problems, muscle/joint pains, headaches, cognitive dysfunction

Symptoms worsen with physical or mental exertion.

60
Q

What is the pathophysiology of vasculitis?

A

Inflammation and necrosis of blood vessel walls, leading to vessel wall destruction and potential complications like aneurysm and thrombosis

Conditions associated with vasculitis include rheumatoid arthritis (RA), systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), and goodpasture syndrome.

61
Q

What are the classifications of vasculitis based on vessel size?

A

Large vessel, medium vessel, small vessel

Examples include giant cell arteritis for large vessel and microscopic polyangiitis for small vessel.

62
Q

What is the hallmark symptom of polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR)?

A

Pain and stiffness in the shoulders, pelvic girdle, and neck

Symptoms typically worsen in the morning and improve with activity.

63
Q

What is the first-line treatment for polymyalgia rheumatica?

A

Oral prednisolone

A dramatic improvement in symptoms is expected within days.

64
Q

What is the primary symptom of temporal arteritis (giant cell arteritis)?

A

Unilateral headache

Other symptoms include jaw claudication and potential vision loss.

65
Q

What is the treatment for Takayasu’s arteritis?

A

Steroids

This condition affects large vessels, particularly the aorta and its branches.

66
Q

What are the key features of polyarteritis nodosa (PAN)?

A

Medium-vessel vasculitis leading to necrotizing inflammation and aneurysms

Symptoms include fever, malaise, and mononeuritis multiplex.

67
Q

What characterizes ANCA-associated vasculitis?

A

Presence of anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCA)

Includes microscopic polyangiitis and granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Wegener’s granulomatosis).

68
Q

What are the types of hypersensitivity reactions?

A

Type 1: anaphylactic, Type 2: cell-bound, Type 3: immune complex, Type 4: delayed hypersensitivity

Type 5 involves antibodies binding to cell receptors.

69
Q

What is McArdle’s disease?

A

An autosomal recessive glycogen storage disease caused by myophosphorylase deficiency

Symptoms include muscle pain and stiffness after exercise.

70
Q

What is the role of methotrexate in treatment?

A

It inhibits the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines to diminish immune response

Indicated for inflammatory arthritis.

71
Q

What is McArdle’s disease?

A

Autosomal recessive type V glycogen storage disease caused by myophosphorylase deficiency

72
Q

What are the common symptoms of McArdle’s disease?

A

Muscle pain, stiffness after exercise, muscle cramps, myoglobinuria, low lactate during exercise

73
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Methotrexate?

A

Inhibits enzyme in synthesis of purines/pyrimidines, diminishing immune response

74
Q

List three indications for Methotrexate.

A
  • Inflammatory arthritis, especially RA
  • Psoriasis
  • Some chemotherapy for ALL
75
Q

What are the side effects of Methotrexate?

A
  • Mucositis
  • Myelosuppression
  • Pneumonitis
  • Pulmonary fibrosis
  • Liver fibrosis
76
Q

How long should pregnancy be avoided after stopping Methotrexate?

A

More than 6 months

77
Q

What is the recommended starting dose of Methotrexate?

A

7.5 mg

78
Q

True or False: Methotrexate toxicity can be treated with folinic acid.

A

True

79
Q

What is Azathioprine metabolized to?

A

Mercaptopurine, a purine analogue that inhibits purine synthesis

80
Q

List two side effects of Azathioprine.

A
  • Bone marrow depression
  • Nausea and vomiting
81
Q

What is Hydroxychloroquine used for?

A

Management of SLE and RA

82
Q

What is a serious side effect of Hydroxychloroquine?

A

Bull’s eye retinopathy leading to permanent visual loss

83
Q

What is Sulfasalazine used for?

A

A DMARD used in RA and IBD

84
Q

What is a prodrug for 5-ASA?

A

Sulfasalazine

85
Q

List two side effects of Sulfasalazine.

A
  • Oligospermia
  • Stevens-Johnson syndrome (SJS)
86
Q

What is Still’s disease characterized by?

A

Bimodal age distribution and salmon-pink maculopapular rash

87
Q

What are the symptoms of Still’s disease?

A
  • Arthralgia
  • Fever that rises in late afternoon/evening
  • Lymphadenopathy
88
Q

What laboratory finding is elevated in Still’s disease?

A

Elevated serum ferritin

89
Q

What criteria are used to diagnose Still’s disease?

A

Yamaguchi criteria

90
Q

List two treatments for Still’s disease.

A
  • NSAIDs
  • Steroids

finals (21 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions