Test Flashcards

1
Q

what temperature should a semen sample be transported?
a. 36-38 degrees
b. 40 degrees
c. 25 degrees
d. none

A

a. 36-38 degrees C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which of the following would result in a grossly hemolyzed specimen?
a. butterfly adapter
b. incorrect needle gauge
c. centrifugate before 2 hours
d. not inverting the tubes 8 times

A

b. Incorrect needle gauge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following is proper procedure after collecting ammonia specimen?
a. Place in a biohazard bag
b. Place specimen in ice water slurry (or cup of ice)
c. Keep at room temperature
d. none

A

b. Place specimen in ice water slurry (or cup of ice)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A phlebotomist is preparing to draw blood from a patient in the hospital. The patient extend his arm and turns head away- Which consent does this indicate?
a. consent
b. Implied consent
c. no consent
d. none

A

b. Implied consent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Why should a phlebotomist document volume of blood drawn from a patient?
a. osteochondritis due to blood taken
b. Iatrogenic anemia could be a result of too much blood taken
c. only a and b
d. none

A

b. Iatrogenic anemia could be a result of too much blood taken

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A 69 year old unconscious patient is brought to the ER. Several blood test are ordered. The phlebotomist collects blood under
a. complied consent
b. no consent
c. Implied consent
d. none

A

c. Implied consent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following actions are appropriate when labeling specimens
a. Label the specimens when the patient leaves
b. Label the specimens at the time of collection in front of the patient
c. Label the specimens before goes to the lab
d. none

A

b. Label the specimens at the time of collection in front of the patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Before collecting blood on a patient, the phlebotomist notices there is not wrist band on wrist. There is one on the IV pole. what do you do?
a. Don’t draw until nurse puts an arm wrist on the patient
b. Draw the blood and wait for the nurse to put the arme wrist
c. leave the patient and come back later
d. none

A

a. Don’t draw until nurse puts an arm wrist on the patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which is the appropriate form of identification in a patient setting?
a. Picture ID and verbal
b. Wrist band only
c. Verbal and wrist band
d. none

A

c. Verbal and wrist band

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A blood specimen is rejected by lab with QNS as the reason. Why?
a. The specimen was insufficient not enough blood
b. The specimen was cold
c. The specimen had more blood than needed
d. none

A

a. The specimen was insufficient not enough blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the following is the best method to prevent internal or external bleeding from venipuncture site after needle is removed?
a. Apply pressure to prevent leakage of blood into the tissues
b. Apply pressure bending the arm
c. Apply pressure with a gauze for 2 minutes
d. none

A

a. Apply pressure to prevent leakage of blood into the tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A physician orders a STAT but phlebotomists forget to fill out the patient ID number. What is appropriate procedure for an improperly labeled specimen when received in the lab?
a. Lab cancelled the test
b. Lab rejects the mislabeled specimen
c. Lab rejects the specimen and request a new draw
d. None

A

b. Lab rejects the mislabeled specimen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A phlebotomist is performing venipuncture and the patient begins to seize . what is the correct action?
a. continue the draw and ask for help
b. discontinue the draw
c. only a and b
d. none

A

b. Discontinue the draw

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which is the best method to collect a blood specimen from an older adult patient who has fragile, easy to collapse veins?
a. Use the buterfly assembly
b. Choose a syringe and butterfly assembly
c. Choose the butterfly assembly and the ETS tubes
d. none

A

b. Choose a syringe and butterfly assembly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The order of draw for capillary collections is different than venipuncture because
a. it is for small veins
b. Increased risk of coagulation - platelets start to form
c. can obtain minimum blood to prevent iatrogenic anemia
d. none

A

b. Increased risk of coagulation - platelets start to form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Upon entering a patients room for routine blood draw , the phlebotomist notices a clergy member is with the patient. What should you do?
a. draw the blood while the clergy is there
b. Return later after drawing other patients
c. leave the requisition form with the nurse
d. none

A

b. Return later after drawing other patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A phlebotomist notices a hematoma developing at the site of venipuncture. The phlebotomist should ?
a. Stop the draw
b. Release the tourniquet and stop the draw
c. Release the tourniquet and continue with the draw
d. none

A

b. Release the tourniquet and stop the draw

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A phlebotomist working in an infertility clinic and the patient is to submit a semen specimen. The phlebotomist should tell the patient..
a. as soon as you collect the specimen, keep it close to your body and bring it right away
b. as soon as you collect the specimen, bring it to the lab
c. you need to provide the specimen in the lab

A

a. as soon as you collect the specimen, keep it close to your body and bring it right away

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

After placing the tourniquet on a patients arm, the phlebotomist notices small red spots below the tourniquet.
a. hematoma
b. hemolysis
c. petechiae
d. none

A

c. Petechiae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The phlebotomist should examine the antecubital veins of both arms because
a. The median cubital may not be accessible
b. The median cubital may be more accessible on one side than the other
c. The median cubital may be bigger in one side than the other
d. none

A

b. The median cubital may be more accessible on one side than the other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the appropriate cleanser to clean the meatus for a clean catch urine specimen?
a. Isopropyl 70%
b. Benzalkonium chloride
c. Idoine povidone
d. none

A

b. Benzalkonium chloride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

which of the following is appropriate to use when collecting for a chemistry test that requires serum?
a. Red tube
b. Lavender/red
c. Tiger tubes
d. SST / red gel tube

A

d. SST / red gel tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which is the best tube for collecting an ethanol specimen?
a. Sodium heparin
b. Sodium fluoride
c. Sodium citrate
d. Potassium oxalate

A

b. Sodium fluoride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A group of tests collected as one unit
a. Unit
b. Profile
c. Compound
d. none

A

b. Profile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
what is the normal span of an RBC? a. 120 days b. 150 days c. 100 days d. none
a. 120 days
26
The internal space of a blood vessel a. endothelium b. Adventitia c. lumen d. none
c. lumen
27
what is another name for winged infusion sets? a. vacutainer b. butterfly c. ETS d. none
b. butterfly
28
The left ventricle delivers oxygenated blood to the aorta a. true b. false
a. True
29
Tiny red spots on the skin cause from the rupture of capillaries are called a. eczema b. phlebitis c. petechiae d. cancer
c. Petechiae
30
The hormone detected in a positive pregnancy test is a. HCG b. UCG c. AKG d. none
a. HCG
31
The proper order of donning PPE a. goggles, mask, gloves b. gown, mask, gloves c. gloves, mask, gown d. none
b. Gown, mask, gloves,
32
Which fluid is obtained by lumbar puncture a. synovial fluid b. Cerebrospinal fluid c. secretion fluid d. spinal fluid
b. Cerebrospinal fluid
33
The most common source of carry over problem is EDTA a. true b. false
a. True
34
Arteries have valves that prevent the blood from flowing back a. true b. false
b. False
35
A drug known to interfere with urine tests should be discontinued 48-72 hours prior to the test? a. true b. false
a. True
36
Which of the following is the best definition of destruction of red blood cells? a. hematoma b. hemoconcentration c. hemolysis d. none
c. Hemolysis
37
The purpose of an antiglycolytic agent is a. inhibit the glucose b. increase the glucose c. preserve the glucose d. none
c. Preserve glucose
38
What additive is usually in the lavender tube? a. SPS b. Sodium citrate c. EDTA d. ACD
c. EDTA
39
Where the blood cells originate? a. Blood stream b. bone marrow c. spine d. none
b. Bone marrow
40
Which WBC carries histamine? a. Eosinophils b. Basophils c. Neutrophils d. none
b. Basophils
41
which of the following veins in the arm are most subjected to venipuncture a. basilic b cephalic c. median cubital d. radial
c. Median cubital
42
If someone is cyanotic their skin may appear a. reddish b. bluish c. greenish d. yellowish
b. Bluish
43
An example of nosocomial infection is a. Catheter site of ICU patient becomes lose b. Catheter site of ICU patient becomes infected c. Catheter site of ICU patient becomes cleaned d. none
b. Catheter site of ICU patient becomes infected
44
The relaxing phase of the cardiac cycle is Bradycardia a. Systole b. Diastole c. Mitral d. Cardiac
b. Diastole
45
The left ventricle delivers oxygenated blood to the aorta. a. True b. False
a. True
46
Ammonia chemical test would be done with a _____________ tube? a. Light blue b. Green c. Lavender d. Gray
b. Green
47
Cortisol peaks late in the afternoon a. True b. False
b. False
48
POC testing is done where? a. At the hospital b. In the doctors office c. The patients bed d. At the laboratory
c. The patients bed
49
Which tube is sometimes called a serum separator tube? a. Lavender/Pink b. Red/Gray c. Green/Grey d. Red/yellow
b. Red/Gray
50
Blood cultures are collected in ____________ tube a. Light blue b. Green c. Yellow d. Red
c. Yellow
51
Which is a test of the urinary system? a. BUN b. Creatinine clearance c. CBC d. Urine analysis
b. Creatinine clearance
52
According to CLSI which tube is filled last when using a syringe? a. Sodium citrate b. EDTA c. Heparin d. SPS
b. EDTA
53
Which is not a reason for failure to collect blood? a. Patient fasted b. Patient is under blood thinners c. Patient drank too much liquid d. Patient is in the hospital
c. Patient drank too much liquid
54
The first phase of hemostasis is a. Phlebitis b. Vascular stage c. Hemolysis d. Hematoma
b. Vascular stage
55
Glass particle in serum separator tubes a. Enhance clotting b. Stop clotting c. Clear clotting d. Anticoagulate
a. Enhance clotting
56
Which layer of the heart is the epicardium? a. Inner b. Outer c. Middle d. None
b. Outer
57
Test for this dept are usually collected in a light blue tube a. Coagulation b. Chemistry c. Immunology d. None
a. Coagulation
58
An NP culture swab is collected to help diagnose… a. Brucellosis b. COVID 19 c. Whooping cough d. None
c. Whooping cough
59
Which would be considered a pre analytical error? a. Improper time of collection b. Short draw of specimen c. Test the specimen in the morning d. None
a. Improper time of collection
60
At what intervals should blood be bottled during bleeding time test? a. 60 seconds b. 30 seconds c. 45 seconds d. 60 seconds
b. 30 seconds
61
Latex sensitivity is an allergic reaction a. True b. False
a. True
62
Repeated venipuncture in the same vein can cause a. Tachycardia b. Phlebitis c. Hematoma d. None
b. Phlebitis
63
Which body plane divides the body in equal portions? a. Transverse b. Frontal c. Mid sagital d. Sagital
c. Midsagital
64
A urine C & S is ordered to detect a. Presence of bacteria b. Prescence of UTI c. Prescence of vaginal infections d. none
b. Prescence of UTI
65
Fluid aspirated from the peritoneal cavity a. Monocites b. Ascites c. peritoneal d. none
b. Ascites
66
Which test is not light sensitive test? a. bilirubin b. BAC c. Ammonia d. none
c. Ammonia
67
Invert a tiger top tube _________ times a. 8 times b. 10 times c. 12 times d. none
a. 8
68
A green top tube usually contains a. EDTA b. Potassium oxalate c. Sodium citrate d. Heparin, sodium lithium
d. Heparin, sodium lithium
69
Veins have thinner walls than arteries a. true b. false
a. true
70
The test used to evaluate intrinsic pathway is called a. PT b. PTT c. APTT d. PT and PTT
c. APTT
71
A patient state she is a difficult draw and requests a skin puncture, the test is a PTT. What should you do? a. use a capillary tube b. use the dermal puncture and put in light blue tube c. use a syringe and transfer to a light blue tube d. use a butterfly and transfer to light blue
c. Use a syringe and transfer to a light blue tube
72
Which of the following procedural steps for a finger stick should the phlebotomist do first? a. ask the patient for their ID b. confirm the patients ID c. verify the patient ID with the wristband d. none
b. Confirm the patient ID
73
A phlebotomist is drawing blood from a patient and observes red spots, which of the following is an appropriate action for the phlebotomist to take? a. Apply pressure while collecting blood b. Stop the draw c. Apply pressure after collecting the specimen d. Apply pressure once the tourniquet is on
c. Apply pressure after collecting the specimen
74
Which of the following is appropriate to use when collecting for a chemistry test that requires serum? a. green b. sst c. gray d. none
b. SST
75
Which of the following test results are affected when povidone iodine is used to cleanse the site for a dermal procedure? a. chemistry studies b. coagulation studies c. immunology studies d. hematology studies
b. Coagulation studies
76
Blood cultures have been ordered on a patient in the ICU. The nurse calls the phlebotomist to bring the appropriate materials. Which of the following should the phlebotomist bring? a. A sterilized tubes with SPS anti coagulant b. A large needle and butterfly assembly c. Aerobic bottle and edta tubes d. An aerobic ad anaerobic bottle
d. An aerobic ad anaerobic bottle
77
Which is an example of acceptable reporting of routine lab results? a. send the results to the patient b. send the results to the doctor c. send the results to the patients email d. send the results in a marked envelope
d. Send the results in a marked envelope
78
The phlebotomist should use a tube with which of the following anticoagulants to collect PT/PTT test? a. Potassium oxalate b. Sodium fluoride c. sodium citrate d. ACD
c. Sodium citrate
79
Heel stick are performed on which patients? a. Infants more than 1 year old b. Infants that are hard to draw blood in the arm c. Infants less than 1 year old d. none
c. Infants less than 1 year old
80
Common test for Lavender EDTA tubes a. BUN, Troponin, electrolytes b. Glucose, GTT, Thyroid c. HGB, PTT, APTT d. CBC, CBC with differential, ESR, sickle cell screening
d. CBC, CBC with differential, ESR, sickle cell screening
81
System in which air pressure transports tubes carrying supplies, requisitions or some lab specimens from one hospital unit or department to another a. biohazard bags b. pneumatic tube system c. personal carrier d. none
b. Pneumatic tube system
82
What is the prefer site for venipuncture? a. basilic b. cephalic c. median d. cubital
c. Median
83
What additive does the light blue tube contain? a. sodium fluoride b. sodium oxalate c. sodium citrate d. sodium sulfate
c. Sodium citrate
84
What additive does the gray tube contain? a. SPS / sodium oxalate b. Sodium citrate / potassium oxalate c. Sodium fluoride / Potassium oxalate d. Sodium fluoride / Sodium heparin
c. Sodium fluoride / Potassium oxalate
85
What's the order of draw for WBC, PTT and blood glucose? a. Ligh blue, gray and red b. Light blue, lavender and red c. Light blue, gray and red d. Light blue, lavender and gray
d. Light blue, lavender and gray
86
Which non blood specimen is light sensitive? a. semen b. urine c. stool d. sputum
d. Sputum
87
Why do we draw blood in a particular order? a. To obtain enough blood b. To make it easier to collect c. To avoid cross contamination d. To obtain more blood
c. To avoid cross contamination
88
What blood specimen should be put in an ice bath witin 30 minutes after drawing? a, Platelet studies b. Ammonia studies c. Lactic Acid studies d. Arterial blood gas studies
d. Arterial blood gas
89
If someone is allergic to alcohol, what should you use to clean the site? a. isopropyl alcohol b. povidone iodine c. benzaldehyde d. chlorhexidine
d. Chlorhexidine
90
How often do you wash your hands with soap and water? a. After every blood taken b. After every 5th use of hand sanitizer c. After every 3rd use of hand sanitizer d. After every 4th use of hand sanitizer
c. After every 3rd use of hand sanitizer
91
If the tourniquet is on too long, what can happen? a. Hematoma, hemoconcentration, hemolysis b. Hemolysis, anemia, syncope c. hemoconcentration, hemolysis, petechiae d. none
c. Hemoconcentration, hemolysis, petechiae
92
How long do you apply pressure on the site especially if they are on blood thinners? a. Up to 1 minute b. Up to 2 minutes c. Up to 3 minutes d. Up to 4 minutes
b. up to 2 minutes
93
What is the blood composed of ? a. plasma and serum b. RBC, WBC, platelets, plasma c. RBC, platelets and plasma d. RBC, WBC
b. RBC, WBC, Platelets, plasma
94
The muscle most commonly used for injection of the influenzas vaccine is the a. algoid b. deltoid c. intramuscular d. none
b. Deltoid
95
Intradermal means a. outside skin b. inside skin c. within skin d. side skin
c. Within skin
96
What cleansing solution is used for a venipuncture? a. 50% isopropyl alcohol b. 75% isopropyl alcohol c. 10% isopropyl alcohol d. 70% isopropyl alcohol
d. 70% isopropyl alcohol
97
What is the liquid portion of the whole blood called? a. water b. lymph c. plasma d. serum
c. plasma
98
What blood draw technique should be used based on blood disorder patients? a. butterfly b. micro sampling c. hand draw d. vacutainer
b. micro sampling
99
What does petechia refer to? a. small black spots on the skin b. small red spots on the skin c. loss of skin in the elderly d. loss of fat in the elderly
b. small red spots on the skin
100
Why must adhesive tape to be avoided with the elderly? a. will not stick to their skin b. may tear the skin when removed c. may cause hemolysis d. may cause an hematoma
b. may tear the skin when removed
101
What type of needle should be used on an elderly patient? a. syringe b. vacutainer c. butterfly d. depends on the vein
d. depends on the vein
102
The elderly usually have what type of skin? a. thick b. stretchy c. thin d. muscular
c. thin
103
Who should help holding an infant during a blood draw? a. phlebotomist b. parent c. child d. anyone
b. parent
104
How long must the blood culture sample be observed? a. 2 days b. 3-5 days c. doesn't matter d. 4 days
b. 3-5 days
105
When is Chlorhexidine used? a. never b. if patient is allergic to iodine c. both b & d d. different timed intervals
b. if patient is allergic to iodine
106
When are blood cultures drawn? a. no intervals b. equal intervals c. time does not matter d. different timed intervals
b. equal intervals
107
Micro organism that do not like air are referred to as? a. anaerobic b. aerobic c. arobic d. airborne
a. anaerobic
108
Which blood culture is drawn first? a. Anaerobic b. aerobic c. it does not matter d. both are drawn at the same time
b. aerobic
109
How is the site cleansed for a blood culture drawn? a. alcohol/alcohol b. iodine/iodine c. iodine/alcohol d. alcohol/iodine
d. alcohol/iodine
110
When is Chlorhexidine used? a. never b. if the PT is allergic to alcohol c. if the PT is allergic to iodine d. both b & c
c. if the PT is allergic to iodine
111
What needle is used with a short necked bottle culture? a. butterfly with no adapter b. vacutainer with an adapter c. winged infusion device with special adapter d. winged infusion device with no adapter
c. winged infusion device with special adapter
112
What kind of test can be performed at the POCT? a. CLIA waived b. HIPPA waived c. CDC waived d. both a & c
a. CLIA waived
113
How many blood culture bottles are used per sample? a. 2 bottles b. 3 bottles c. 4 bottles d. 5 bottles
a. 2 bottles
114
What is another name for Clinical Laboratory Scientist? a. clinical technician b. laboratory technician c. medical technician d. none of the above
d. none of the above
115
What does FUO Stands for? a. Fever of unknown object b. Fever of unknown origin c. Fever of unknown organ d. Fever of unknown oracle
b. Fever of unknown origin
116
What common tests are performed as POCT? a. Hemoglobin b. Blood typing c. Platelet d. PT, PTT, ACT
a. Hemoglobin
117
What is the advantage of POCT? a. easier to use b. can save space c. faster test results d. all of the above
d. all of the above
118
A PKU is used to test for? a. out born errors of metabolism b. upborn error of metabolism c. inborn error of metabolism d. downborn error of metabolism
c. inborn error of metabolism
119
what does POCT stands for? a. Precise option care testing b. Point of capillary testing c. point of cellular testing d. point of care testing
d. point of care testing
120
What can be used to re stimulate bleeding on a capillary stick? a. clean alcohol pad b. clean gauze c. clean iodine pad d. nothing
a. clean alcohol pad
121
PKU blood tests are collected on a ? a. Gutherie slide b. Gutherie card c. Gutherie sample d. Gutherie badge
b. Gutherie card
122
Which hand is a finger stick performed on? a. dominate b. both c. non dominate d. writing
c. non dominate
123
Who is a PKU es performed on? a. adults b. children c. newborns d. animals
c. newborns
124
how many pieces of information should be on the micro collection tube? a. 5 b. 6 c. 4 d. 3
a. 5
125
What is the anticoagulant in the lavender tube? a. Sodium heparin b. EDTA c. Sodium citrate d. None
b. EDTA
126
How many times should the micro collection lavender tube be mixed? a. 5-6 b. 20 c. 10 d. 3-4
b. 20
127
The order of draw for a micro collection is? a. yellow/green/lavender b. lavender/green/yellow c. red/green/yellow d. green/lavender/red
b. lavender/green/yellow
128
How many minutes should the heel be warmed? a. 3-6 b. 5-6 c. 4-5 d. 3-5
d. 3-5
129
The selected sites for a heel draw are? a. lateral and top of the heel b. medial and lateral part of the heel c. medial and bottom of the heel d. medial and top part of the heel
b. medial and lateral part of the heel
130
Heel warmer temperatures should not exceed? a. 40 degrees centigrade b. 30 degrees centigrade c. 50 degrees centigrade d. 45 degrees centigrade
a. 40 degrees centigrade
131
What is the maximum number of sticks allowed for a phlebotomist to draw blood? a. 3 b. 4 c. 1 d. 2
d. 2
132
The blade depth on an infant lancet should be= a. more than 2 b. 3 c. 1 d. less than 2
d. less than 2
133
What kind of blood are micro samples composed of? a. arterial b. capillary c. homogenized d. venous
b. capillary
134
Micro sampling blood is prone to? a. more RBCs b. is heavier than serum c. is a different color d. does not contain clotting factors
a. more RBCs
135
If drawing for blood alcohol test, what is the appropriate cleaner? a. 70% isopropyl alcohol b. iodine c. peroxide d. all of the above
b. iodine
136
Alcohol can lyse? a. RBCs b. not clotting c. WBCs d. clotting
a. RBCs
137
Blood traveling in the arteries is known as? a. red blood b. venous blood c. arterial blood d. capillary blood
c. arterial blood
138
What type of consent do you need before drawing blood? a. secure b. informed c. informal d. final
b. informed
139
What needle is used for a pediatric blood draw? a. butterfly b. winged infusion set c. vacutainer d. both a and b
d. both a and b
140
What is the correct order of draw? a. lavender/pink/green/light blue b. light blue/ green/ lavender/pink c. green/light blue/ lavender/pink d. light blue/lavender/pink/green
b. light blue/ green/ lavender/pink
141
what color tubes contain EDTA? a. lavender and pink b. light blue c. green d. gray
a. lavender and pink
142
What anticoagulant does the green tube contains? a. sodium heparin b. ammonium heparin c. lithium heparin d. all of the above
d. all of the above
143
The major difference between plasma and serum is plasma.. a. does not contain clotting factors b. is a different color c. is heavier than serum d. does contain clotting factors
d. does contain clotting factors
144
What is the reason a differential smear is performed? a. kill bacteria b. clot blood c. count RBCs d. count WBCs
d. count WBCs
145
What vessels return blood back to the heart? a. arteries b. cells c. veins d. capillaries
c. veins
146
What is the systolic phase of blood pressure? a. resting phase b. thrombocyte c. pushing phase d. upper phase
c. pushing phase
147
What test measures the percent of cells in blood? a. hemoglobin b. glucose c. hematocrit d. hemoglobulin
c. hematocrit
148
Blood is composed of what percentages? a. 45% formed elements / 65% liquid b. 65% formed elements / 45 % liquid c. 55% formed elements / 45% liquid d. 45% formed elements / 55% liquid
d. 45% formed elements / 55% liquid
149
What is the angle of the needle in a venipuncture? a. 10-15 b. 15-25 c. 15-30 d. 20-30
c. 15-30
150
What anticoagulant does the light blue tube contain? a. Na citrate b. Sodium citrate c. EDTA d. Both a & b
d. Both a & b
151
What cardiovascular consists of ? a. heart b. lungs c. blood vessels d. both a & c
d. both a & c
152
Type and crossmatch determines? a. match of blood type b. amounts of RBCs c. type of blood bank c. amount of WBCs
a. match of blood type
153
what's another name for thrombocyte? a. red blood cell b. white blood cell c. plasma d. platelet
d. platelet
154
What is another name for RBC? a. leukocyte b. thrombocyte c. monocyte d. erythrocyte
d. erythrocyte
155
What is another name for WBC? a. neutrophil b. platelet c. leukocyte d. thrombocyte
c. leukocyte
156
What is another name for immunology testing? a. immunization b. immunoglobulin c. serology d. hematology
c. serology
157
What is the function of the platelets? a. carry oxygen b. start clotting process c. start cleansing process d. stop clotting process
b. start clotting process
158
What color tube is used for a PT, PTT test? a. green b. gray c. light blue d. red
c. light blue
159
What is the clotting agent? a. fibrosis b. fibroma c. fibrinogest d. fibrinogen
d. fibrinogen
160
What are the most common coagulation tests? a. PT, PTP b. PT, PTT c. PTT, PTP d. PTT, TPT
b. PT, PTT
161
If a patient has an IV in the right hand, where can you draw blood? a. above the IV b. Left antecubital c. left hand d. b&c are acceptable
d. b&c are acceptable
162
What is the third vein of choice when drawing blood? a. median b. cephalic c. basilic d. antecubital
c. basilic
163
What anticoagulant does the gray tube contain? a. EDTA b. Acid citrate dextrose c. Na citrate d. k oxalate
d. k oxalate
164
CBC stands for complete ..... a. blood clot b. blood cost c. blood count d. nothing
c. blood count
165
What does chemistry panel test for? a. drugs, electrolytes b. WBCs and drugs c. bacteria, rbcs d. viral infections
a. drugs, electrolytes
166
What PPE do you wear for strict isolation? a. gown and gloves b. mask and gloves c. gown, mask and gloves d. mask and gown
c. gown, mask and gloves
167
Who is responsible for the pre analytical phase? a. lab technician b. nurse c. doctor d. phlebotomist
d. phlebotomist
168
What patient should be kept in blood and body fluid isolation? a. low wbc b. salmonella food poisoning c. high wbc d. TB tuberculosis
d. TB tuberculosis
169
Blue tubes must be filled? a. half way b. part of the way c. as much as you can get d. all the way
d. all the way
170
A blood culture tube is drawn? a. 2nd b. 3rd c. last d. first
d. first
171
What is the study of the body structure? a. bones b. physiology c. physics d. anatomy
d. anatomy
172
What does a virology test look for? a. bacteria b. parasites c. viral infection d. tuberculosis
c. viral infection
173
What does OSHA stand for? a. occupational services and health administration b. occupational system and health administration c. occupational safety and health administration d. occupational service and health administration
c. occupational safety and health administration
174
What is NSSPA? a. Needle stick safety prenatal act b. Needle stick safety and prevent act c. Needle stick safety and prevention act d. Needle safety stick and prevention act
c. Needle stick safety and prevention act
175
What services are often found in the major sections of the anatomic pathology? a. cytology, histology b. autopsy services, embalming c. cytogenetics, autopsy services d. both a and c
d. both a and c
176
Who is responsible for clinical pathology performance? a. CMS b. the joint commission c. CLIA d. CLSI
c. CLIA
177
What is the definition of hemolysis? a. ruptured RBCs b. ruptured WBCs c. too many RBCs d. RBCs turn white
a. ruptured RBCs
178
What test can hemolysis influence? a. vitamin A and B b. vitamin E c. vitamin C d. vitamin K
d. vitamin K
179
How is the chain of infection broken? a. isolation b. insulting c. insulation d. innovation
a. isolation
180
How do we fight the spread of infection of nosocomial infections? a. break the links of the germ b. break the link of the infection c. break the link of the chain d. none of the above
c. break the link of the chain
181
what is the correct order of draw? a. Yellow, light blue, green, red, lavender, gray, yellow b. Yellow, lavender, light blue, red, green, gray, yellow c. Yellow, light blue, red, green, lavender, gray, yellow d. Yellow, light blue, red. gray, lavender, green, yellow
c. Yellow, light blue, red, green, lavender, gray, yellow
182
what is the capillary order of draw? a. lavender, green, red b. lavender, green, gray c. lavender, grey, red d. lavender, red, green
a. lavender, green, red
183
The yellow tube with ACD is for? a. GTT and Ethanol b. crossmatch and ammonia c. Genetic, DNA, platelet d. platelet, WBC and RBC
c. Genetic, DNA, platelet