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Phlebotomy 1 > Test > Flashcards

Test Flashcards

1
Q

what temperature should a semen sample be transported?
a. 36-38 degrees
b. 40 degrees
c. 25 degrees
d. none

A

a. 36-38 degrees C

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2
Q

Which of the following would result in a grossly hemolyzed specimen?
a. butterfly adapter
b. incorrect needle gauge
c. centrifugate before 2 hours
d. not inverting the tubes 8 times

A

b. Incorrect needle gauge

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3
Q

Which of the following is proper procedure after collecting ammonia specimen?
a. Place in a biohazard bag
b. Place specimen in ice water slurry (or cup of ice)
c. Keep at room temperature
d. none

A

b. Place specimen in ice water slurry (or cup of ice)

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4
Q

A phlebotomist is preparing to draw blood from a patient in the hospital. The patient extend his arm and turns head away- Which consent does this indicate?
a. consent
b. Implied consent
c. no consent
d. none

A

b. Implied consent

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5
Q

Why should a phlebotomist document volume of blood drawn from a patient?
a. osteochondritis due to blood taken
b. Iatrogenic anemia could be a result of too much blood taken
c. only a and b
d. none

A

b. Iatrogenic anemia could be a result of too much blood taken

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6
Q

A 69 year old unconscious patient is brought to the ER. Several blood test are ordered. The phlebotomist collects blood under
a. complied consent
b. no consent
c. Implied consent
d. none

A

c. Implied consent

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7
Q

Which of the following actions are appropriate when labeling specimens
a. Label the specimens when the patient leaves
b. Label the specimens at the time of collection in front of the patient
c. Label the specimens before goes to the lab
d. none

A

b. Label the specimens at the time of collection in front of the patient

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8
Q

Before collecting blood on a patient, the phlebotomist notices there is not wrist band on wrist. There is one on the IV pole. what do you do?
a. Don’t draw until nurse puts an arm wrist on the patient
b. Draw the blood and wait for the nurse to put the arme wrist
c. leave the patient and come back later
d. none

A

a. Don’t draw until nurse puts an arm wrist on the patient

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9
Q

Which is the appropriate form of identification in a patient setting?
a. Picture ID and verbal
b. Wrist band only
c. Verbal and wrist band
d. none

A

c. Verbal and wrist band

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10
Q

A blood specimen is rejected by lab with QNS as the reason. Why?
a. The specimen was insufficient not enough blood
b. The specimen was cold
c. The specimen had more blood than needed
d. none

A

a. The specimen was insufficient not enough blood

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11
Q

Which of the following is the best method to prevent internal or external bleeding from venipuncture site after needle is removed?
a. Apply pressure to prevent leakage of blood into the tissues
b. Apply pressure bending the arm
c. Apply pressure with a gauze for 2 minutes
d. none

A

a. Apply pressure to prevent leakage of blood into the tissues

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12
Q

A physician orders a STAT but phlebotomists forget to fill out the patient ID number. What is appropriate procedure for an improperly labeled specimen when received in the lab?
a. Lab cancelled the test
b. Lab rejects the mislabeled specimen
c. Lab rejects the specimen and request a new draw
d. None

A

b. Lab rejects the mislabeled specimen

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13
Q

A phlebotomist is performing venipuncture and the patient begins to seize . what is the correct action?
a. continue the draw and ask for help
b. discontinue the draw
c. only a and b
d. none

A

b. Discontinue the draw

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14
Q

Which is the best method to collect a blood specimen from an older adult patient who has fragile, easy to collapse veins?
a. Use the buterfly assembly
b. Choose a syringe and butterfly assembly
c. Choose the butterfly assembly and the ETS tubes
d. none

A

b. Choose a syringe and butterfly assembly

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15
Q

The order of draw for capillary collections is different than venipuncture because
a. it is for small veins
b. Increased risk of coagulation - platelets start to form
c. can obtain minimum blood to prevent iatrogenic anemia
d. none

A

b. Increased risk of coagulation - platelets start to form

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16
Q

Upon entering a patients room for routine blood draw , the phlebotomist notices a clergy member is with the patient. What should you do?
a. draw the blood while the clergy is there
b. Return later after drawing other patients
c. leave the requisition form with the nurse
d. none

A

b. Return later after drawing other patients

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17
Q

A phlebotomist notices a hematoma developing at the site of venipuncture. The phlebotomist should ?
a. Stop the draw
b. Release the tourniquet and stop the draw
c. Release the tourniquet and continue with the draw
d. none

A

b. Release the tourniquet and stop the draw

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18
Q

A phlebotomist working in an infertility clinic and the patient is to submit a semen specimen. The phlebotomist should tell the patient..
a. as soon as you collect the specimen, keep it close to your body and bring it right away
b. as soon as you collect the specimen, bring it to the lab
c. you need to provide the specimen in the lab

A

a. as soon as you collect the specimen, keep it close to your body and bring it right away

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19
Q

After placing the tourniquet on a patients arm, the phlebotomist notices small red spots below the tourniquet.
a. hematoma
b. hemolysis
c. petechiae
d. none

A

c. Petechiae

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20
Q

The phlebotomist should examine the antecubital veins of both arms because
a. The median cubital may not be accessible
b. The median cubital may be more accessible on one side than the other
c. The median cubital may be bigger in one side than the other
d. none

A

b. The median cubital may be more accessible on one side than the other

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21
Q

What is the appropriate cleanser to clean the meatus for a clean catch urine specimen?
a. Isopropyl 70%
b. Benzalkonium chloride
c. Idoine povidone
d. none

A

b. Benzalkonium chloride

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22
Q

which of the following is appropriate to use when collecting for a chemistry test that requires serum?
a. Red tube
b. Lavender/red
c. Tiger tubes
d. SST / red gel tube

A

d. SST / red gel tube

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23
Q

Which is the best tube for collecting an ethanol specimen?
a. Sodium heparin
b. Sodium fluoride
c. Sodium citrate
d. Potassium oxalate

A

b. Sodium fluoride

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24
Q

A group of tests collected as one unit
a. Unit
b. Profile
c. Compound
d. none

A

b. Profile

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25
Q

what is the normal span of an RBC?
a. 120 days
b. 150 days
c. 100 days
d. none

A

a. 120 days

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26
Q

The internal space of a blood vessel
a. endothelium
b. Adventitia
c. lumen
d. none

A

c. lumen

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27
Q

what is another name for winged infusion sets?
a. vacutainer
b. butterfly
c. ETS
d. none

A

b. butterfly

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28
Q

The left ventricle delivers oxygenated blood to the aorta
a. true
b. false

A

a. True

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29
Q

Tiny red spots on the skin cause from the rupture of capillaries are called
a. eczema
b. phlebitis
c. petechiae
d. cancer

A

c. Petechiae

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30
Q

The hormone detected in a positive pregnancy test is
a. HCG
b. UCG
c. AKG
d. none

A

a. HCG

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31
Q

The proper order of donning PPE
a. goggles, mask, gloves
b. gown, mask, gloves
c. gloves, mask, gown
d. none

A

b. Gown, mask, gloves,

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32
Q

Which fluid is obtained by lumbar puncture
a. synovial fluid
b. Cerebrospinal fluid
c. secretion fluid
d. spinal fluid

A

b. Cerebrospinal fluid

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33
Q

The most common source of carry over problem is EDTA
a. true
b. false

A

a. True

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34
Q

Arteries have valves that prevent the blood from flowing back
a. true
b. false

A

b. False

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35
Q

A drug known to interfere with urine tests should be discontinued 48-72 hours prior to the test?
a. true
b. false

A

a. True

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36
Q

Which of the following is the best definition of destruction of red blood cells?
a. hematoma
b. hemoconcentration
c. hemolysis
d. none

A

c. Hemolysis

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37
Q

The purpose of an antiglycolytic agent is
a. inhibit the glucose
b. increase the glucose
c. preserve the glucose
d. none

A

c. Preserve glucose

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38
Q

What additive is usually in the lavender tube?
a. SPS
b. Sodium citrate
c. EDTA
d. ACD

A

c. EDTA

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39
Q

Where the blood cells originate?
a. Blood stream
b. bone marrow
c. spine
d. none

A

b. Bone marrow

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40
Q

Which WBC carries histamine?
a. Eosinophils
b. Basophils
c. Neutrophils
d. none

A

b. Basophils

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41
Q

which of the following veins in the arm are most subjected to venipuncture
a. basilic
b cephalic
c. median cubital
d. radial

A

c. Median cubital

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42
Q

If someone is cyanotic their skin may appear
a. reddish
b. bluish
c. greenish
d. yellowish

A

b. Bluish

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43
Q

An example of nosocomial infection is
a. Catheter site of ICU patient becomes lose
b. Catheter site of ICU patient becomes infected
c. Catheter site of ICU patient becomes cleaned
d. none

A

b. Catheter site of ICU patient becomes infected

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44
Q

The relaxing phase of the cardiac cycle is Bradycardia
a. Systole
b. Diastole
c. Mitral
d. Cardiac

A

b. Diastole

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45
Q

The left ventricle delivers oxygenated blood to the aorta.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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46
Q

Ammonia chemical test would be done with a _____________ tube?
a. Light blue
b. Green
c. Lavender
d. Gray

A

b. Green

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47
Q

Cortisol peaks late in the afternoon
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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48
Q

POC testing is done where?
a. At the hospital
b. In the doctors office
c. The patients bed
d. At the laboratory

A

c. The patients bed

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49
Q

Which tube is sometimes called a serum separator tube?
a. Lavender/Pink
b. Red/Gray
c. Green/Grey
d. Red/yellow

A

b. Red/Gray

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50
Q

Blood cultures are collected in ____________ tube
a. Light blue
b. Green
c. Yellow
d. Red

A

c. Yellow

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51
Q

Which is a test of the urinary system?
a. BUN
b. Creatinine clearance
c. CBC
d. Urine analysis

A

b. Creatinine clearance

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52
Q

According to CLSI which tube is filled last when using a syringe?
a. Sodium citrate
b. EDTA
c. Heparin
d. SPS

A

b. EDTA

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53
Q

Which is not a reason for failure to collect blood?
a. Patient fasted
b. Patient is under blood thinners
c. Patient drank too much liquid
d. Patient is in the hospital

A

c. Patient drank too much liquid

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54
Q

The first phase of hemostasis is
a. Phlebitis
b. Vascular stage
c. Hemolysis
d. Hematoma

A

b. Vascular stage

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55
Q

Glass particle in serum separator tubes
a. Enhance clotting
b. Stop clotting
c. Clear clotting
d. Anticoagulate

A

a. Enhance clotting

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56
Q

Which layer of the heart is the epicardium?
a. Inner
b. Outer
c. Middle
d. None

A

b. Outer

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57
Q

Test for this dept are usually collected in a light blue tube
a. Coagulation
b. Chemistry
c. Immunology
d. None

A

a. Coagulation

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58
Q

An NP culture swab is collected to help diagnose…
a. Brucellosis
b. COVID 19
c. Whooping cough
d. None

A

c. Whooping cough

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59
Q

Which would be considered a pre analytical error?

a. Improper time of collection
b. Short draw of specimen
c. Test the specimen in the morning
d. None

A

a. Improper time of collection

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60
Q

At what intervals should blood be bottled during bleeding time test?
a. 60 seconds
b. 30 seconds
c. 45 seconds
d. 60 seconds

A

b. 30 seconds

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61
Q

Latex sensitivity is an allergic reaction
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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62
Q

Repeated venipuncture in the same vein can cause
a. Tachycardia
b. Phlebitis
c. Hematoma
d. None

A

b. Phlebitis

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63
Q

Which body plane divides the body in equal portions?
a. Transverse
b. Frontal
c. Mid sagital
d. Sagital

A

c. Midsagital

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64
Q

A urine C & S is ordered to detect
a. Presence of bacteria
b. Prescence of UTI
c. Prescence of vaginal infections
d. none

A

b. Prescence of UTI

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65
Q

Fluid aspirated from the peritoneal cavity
a. Monocites
b. Ascites
c. peritoneal
d. none

A

b. Ascites

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66
Q

Which test is not light sensitive test?
a. bilirubin
b. BAC
c. Ammonia
d. none

A

c. Ammonia

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67
Q

Invert a tiger top tube _________ times
a. 8 times
b. 10 times
c. 12 times
d. none

A

a. 8

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68
Q

A green top tube usually contains
a. EDTA
b. Potassium oxalate
c. Sodium citrate
d. Heparin, sodium lithium

A

d. Heparin, sodium lithium

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69
Q

Veins have thinner walls than arteries
a. true
b. false

A

a. true

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70
Q

The test used to evaluate intrinsic pathway is called
a. PT
b. PTT
c. APTT
d. PT and PTT

A

c. APTT

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71
Q

A patient state she is a difficult draw and requests a skin puncture, the test is a PTT. What should you do?
a. use a capillary tube
b. use the dermal puncture and put in light blue tube
c. use a syringe and transfer to a light blue tube
d. use a butterfly and transfer to light blue

A

c. Use a syringe and transfer to a light blue tube

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72
Q

Which of the following procedural steps for a finger stick should the phlebotomist do first?
a. ask the patient for their ID
b. confirm the patients ID
c. verify the patient ID with the wristband
d. none

A

b. Confirm the patient ID

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73
Q

A phlebotomist is drawing blood from a patient and observes red spots, which of the following is an appropriate action for the phlebotomist to take?
a. Apply pressure while collecting blood
b. Stop the draw
c. Apply pressure after collecting the specimen
d. Apply pressure once the tourniquet is on

A

c. Apply pressure after collecting the specimen

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74
Q

Which of the following is appropriate to use when collecting for a chemistry test that requires serum?
a. green
b. sst
c. gray
d. none

A

b. SST

75
Q

Which of the following test results are affected when povidone iodine is used to cleanse the site for a dermal procedure?
a. chemistry studies
b. coagulation studies
c. immunology studies
d. hematology studies

A

b. Coagulation studies

76
Q

Blood cultures have been ordered on a patient in the ICU. The nurse calls the phlebotomist to bring the appropriate materials. Which of the following should the phlebotomist bring?
a. A sterilized tubes with SPS anti coagulant
b. A large needle and butterfly assembly
c. Aerobic bottle and edta tubes
d. An aerobic ad anaerobic bottle

A

d. An aerobic ad anaerobic bottle

77
Q

Which is an example of acceptable reporting of routine lab results?
a. send the results to the patient
b. send the results to the doctor
c. send the results to the patients email
d. send the results in a marked envelope

A

d. Send the results in a marked envelope

78
Q

The phlebotomist should use a tube with which of the following anticoagulants to collect PT/PTT test?
a. Potassium oxalate
b. Sodium fluoride
c. sodium citrate
d. ACD

A

c. Sodium citrate

79
Q

Heel stick are performed on which patients?
a. Infants more than 1 year old
b. Infants that are hard to draw blood in the arm
c. Infants less than 1 year old
d. none

A

c. Infants less than 1 year old

80
Q

Common test for Lavender EDTA tubes
a. BUN, Troponin, electrolytes
b. Glucose, GTT, Thyroid
c. HGB, PTT, APTT
d. CBC, CBC with differential, ESR, sickle cell screening

A

d. CBC, CBC with differential, ESR, sickle cell screening

81
Q

System in which air pressure transports tubes carrying supplies, requisitions or some lab specimens from one hospital unit or department to another
a. biohazard bags
b. pneumatic tube system
c. personal carrier
d. none

A

b. Pneumatic tube system

82
Q

What is the prefer site for venipuncture?
a. basilic
b. cephalic
c. median
d. cubital

A

c. Median

83
Q

What additive does the light blue tube contain?
a. sodium fluoride
b. sodium oxalate
c. sodium citrate
d. sodium sulfate

A

c. Sodium citrate

84
Q

What additive does the gray tube contain?
a. SPS / sodium oxalate
b. Sodium citrate / potassium oxalate
c. Sodium fluoride / Potassium oxalate
d. Sodium fluoride / Sodium heparin

A

c. Sodium fluoride / Potassium oxalate

85
Q

What’s the order of draw for WBC, PTT and blood glucose?
a. Ligh blue, gray and red
b. Light blue, lavender and red
c. Light blue, gray and red
d. Light blue, lavender and gray

A

d. Light blue, lavender and gray

86
Q

Which non blood specimen is light sensitive?
a. semen
b. urine
c. stool
d. sputum

A

d. Sputum

87
Q

Why do we draw blood in a particular order?
a. To obtain enough blood
b. To make it easier to collect
c. To avoid cross contamination
d. To obtain more blood

A

c. To avoid cross contamination

88
Q

What blood specimen should be put in an ice bath witin 30 minutes after drawing?
a, Platelet studies
b. Ammonia studies
c. Lactic Acid studies
d. Arterial blood gas studies

A

d. Arterial blood gas

89
Q

If someone is allergic to alcohol, what should you use to clean the site?
a. isopropyl alcohol
b. povidone iodine
c. benzaldehyde
d. chlorhexidine

A

d. Chlorhexidine

90
Q

How often do you wash your hands with soap and water?
a. After every blood taken
b. After every 5th use of hand sanitizer
c. After every 3rd use of hand sanitizer
d. After every 4th use of hand sanitizer

A

c. After every 3rd use of hand sanitizer

91
Q

If the tourniquet is on too long, what can happen?
a. Hematoma, hemoconcentration, hemolysis
b. Hemolysis, anemia, syncope
c. hemoconcentration, hemolysis, petechiae
d. none

A

c. Hemoconcentration, hemolysis, petechiae

92
Q

How long do you apply pressure on the site especially if they are on blood thinners?
a. Up to 1 minute
b. Up to 2 minutes
c. Up to 3 minutes
d. Up to 4 minutes

A

b. up to 2 minutes

93
Q

What is the blood composed of ?
a. plasma and serum
b. RBC, WBC, platelets, plasma
c. RBC, platelets and plasma
d. RBC, WBC

A

b. RBC, WBC, Platelets, plasma

94
Q

The muscle most commonly used for injection of the influenzas vaccine is the
a. algoid
b. deltoid
c. intramuscular
d. none

A

b. Deltoid

95
Q

Intradermal means
a. outside skin
b. inside skin
c. within skin
d. side skin

A

c. Within skin

96
Q

What cleansing solution is used for a venipuncture?
a. 50% isopropyl alcohol
b. 75% isopropyl alcohol
c. 10% isopropyl alcohol
d. 70% isopropyl alcohol

A

d. 70% isopropyl alcohol

97
Q

What is the liquid portion of the whole blood called?
a. water
b. lymph
c. plasma
d. serum

A

c. plasma

98
Q

What blood draw technique should be used based on blood disorder patients?
a. butterfly
b. micro sampling
c. hand draw
d. vacutainer

A

b. micro sampling

99
Q

What does petechia refer to?
a. small black spots on the skin
b. small red spots on the skin
c. loss of skin in the elderly
d. loss of fat in the elderly

A

b. small red spots on the skin

100
Q

Why must adhesive tape to be avoided with the elderly?
a. will not stick to their skin
b. may tear the skin when removed
c. may cause hemolysis
d. may cause an hematoma

A

b. may tear the skin when removed

101
Q

What type of needle should be used on an elderly patient?
a. syringe
b. vacutainer
c. butterfly
d. depends on the vein

A

d. depends on the vein

102
Q

The elderly usually have what type of skin?
a. thick
b. stretchy
c. thin
d. muscular

A

c. thin

103
Q

Who should help holding an infant during a blood draw?
a. phlebotomist
b. parent
c. child
d. anyone

A

b. parent

104
Q

How long must the blood culture sample be observed?
a. 2 days
b. 3-5 days
c. doesn’t matter
d. 4 days

A

b. 3-5 days

105
Q

When is Chlorhexidine used?
a. never
b. if patient is allergic to iodine
c. both b & d
d. different timed intervals

A

b. if patient is allergic to iodine

106
Q

When are blood cultures drawn?
a. no intervals
b. equal intervals
c. time does not matter
d. different timed intervals

A

b. equal intervals

107
Q

Micro organism that do not like air are referred to as?
a. anaerobic
b. aerobic
c. arobic
d. airborne

A

a. anaerobic

108
Q

Which blood culture is drawn first?
a. Anaerobic
b. aerobic
c. it does not matter
d. both are drawn at the same time

A

b. aerobic

109
Q

How is the site cleansed for a blood culture drawn?
a. alcohol/alcohol
b. iodine/iodine
c. iodine/alcohol
d. alcohol/iodine

A

d. alcohol/iodine

110
Q

When is Chlorhexidine used?
a. never
b. if the PT is allergic to alcohol
c. if the PT is allergic to iodine
d. both b & c

A

c. if the PT is allergic to iodine

111
Q

What needle is used with a short necked bottle culture?
a. butterfly with no adapter
b. vacutainer with an adapter
c. winged infusion device with special adapter
d. winged infusion device with no adapter

A

c. winged infusion device with special adapter

112
Q

What kind of test can be performed at the POCT?
a. CLIA waived
b. HIPPA waived
c. CDC waived
d. both a & c

A

a. CLIA waived

113
Q

How many blood culture bottles are used per sample?
a. 2 bottles
b. 3 bottles
c. 4 bottles
d. 5 bottles

A

a. 2 bottles

114
Q

What is another name for Clinical Laboratory Scientist?
a. clinical technician
b. laboratory technician
c. medical technician
d. none of the above

A

d. none of the above

115
Q

What does FUO Stands for?
a. Fever of unknown object
b. Fever of unknown origin
c. Fever of unknown organ
d. Fever of unknown oracle

A

b. Fever of unknown origin

116
Q

What common tests are performed as POCT?
a. Hemoglobin
b. Blood typing
c. Platelet
d. PT, PTT, ACT

A

a. Hemoglobin

117
Q

What is the advantage of POCT?
a. easier to use
b. can save space
c. faster test results
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

118
Q

A PKU is used to test for?
a. out born errors of metabolism
b. upborn error of metabolism
c. inborn error of metabolism
d. downborn error of metabolism

A

c. inborn error of metabolism

119
Q

what does POCT stands for?
a. Precise option care testing
b. Point of capillary testing
c. point of cellular testing
d. point of care testing

A

d. point of care testing

120
Q

What can be used to re stimulate bleeding on a capillary stick?
a. clean alcohol pad
b. clean gauze
c. clean iodine pad
d. nothing

A

a. clean alcohol pad

121
Q

PKU blood tests are collected on a ?
a. Gutherie slide
b. Gutherie card
c. Gutherie sample
d. Gutherie badge

A

b. Gutherie card

122
Q

Which hand is a finger stick performed on?
a. dominate
b. both
c. non dominate
d. writing

A

c. non dominate

123
Q

Who is a PKU es performed on?
a. adults
b. children
c. newborns
d. animals

A

c. newborns

124
Q

how many pieces of information should be on the micro collection tube?
a. 5
b. 6
c. 4
d. 3

A

a. 5

125
Q

What is the anticoagulant in the lavender tube?
a. Sodium heparin
b. EDTA
c. Sodium citrate
d. None

A

b. EDTA

126
Q

How many times should the micro collection lavender tube be mixed?
a. 5-6
b. 20
c. 10
d. 3-4

A

b. 20

127
Q

The order of draw for a micro collection is?
a. yellow/green/lavender
b. lavender/green/yellow
c. red/green/yellow
d. green/lavender/red

A

b. lavender/green/yellow

128
Q

How many minutes should the heel be warmed?
a. 3-6
b. 5-6
c. 4-5
d. 3-5

A

d. 3-5

129
Q

The selected sites for a heel draw are?
a. lateral and top of the heel
b. medial and lateral part of the heel
c. medial and bottom of the heel
d. medial and top part of the heel

A

b. medial and lateral part of the heel

130
Q

Heel warmer temperatures should not exceed?
a. 40 degrees centigrade
b. 30 degrees centigrade
c. 50 degrees centigrade
d. 45 degrees centigrade

A

a. 40 degrees centigrade

131
Q

What is the maximum number of sticks allowed for a phlebotomist to draw blood?
a. 3
b. 4
c. 1
d. 2

A

d. 2

132
Q

The blade depth on an infant lancet should be=
a. more than 2
b. 3
c. 1
d. less than 2

A

d. less than 2

133
Q

What kind of blood are micro samples composed of?
a. arterial
b. capillary
c. homogenized
d. venous

A

b. capillary

134
Q

Micro sampling blood is prone to?
a. more RBCs
b. is heavier than serum
c. is a different color
d. does not contain clotting factors

A

a. more RBCs

135
Q

If drawing for blood alcohol test, what is the appropriate cleaner?
a. 70% isopropyl alcohol
b. iodine
c. peroxide
d. all of the above

A

b. iodine

136
Q

Alcohol can lyse?
a. RBCs
b. not clotting
c. WBCs
d. clotting

A

a. RBCs

137
Q

Blood traveling in the arteries is known as?
a. red blood
b. venous blood
c. arterial blood
d. capillary blood

A

c. arterial blood

138
Q

What type of consent do you need before drawing blood?
a. secure
b. informed
c. informal
d. final

A

b. informed

139
Q

What needle is used for a pediatric blood draw?
a. butterfly
b. winged infusion set
c. vacutainer
d. both a and b

A

d. both a and b

140
Q

What is the correct order of draw?
a. lavender/pink/green/light blue
b. light blue/ green/ lavender/pink
c. green/light blue/ lavender/pink
d. light blue/lavender/pink/green

A

b. light blue/ green/ lavender/pink

141
Q

what color tubes contain EDTA?
a. lavender and pink
b. light blue
c. green
d. gray

A

a. lavender and pink

142
Q

What anticoagulant does the green tube contains?
a. sodium heparin
b. ammonium heparin
c. lithium heparin
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

143
Q

The major difference between plasma and serum is plasma..
a. does not contain clotting factors
b. is a different color
c. is heavier than serum
d. does contain clotting factors

A

d. does contain clotting factors

144
Q

What is the reason a differential smear is performed?
a. kill bacteria
b. clot blood
c. count RBCs
d. count WBCs

A

d. count WBCs

145
Q

What vessels return blood back to the heart?
a. arteries
b. cells
c. veins
d. capillaries

A

c. veins

146
Q

What is the systolic phase of blood pressure?
a. resting phase
b. thrombocyte
c. pushing phase
d. upper phase

A

c. pushing phase

147
Q

What test measures the percent of cells in blood?
a. hemoglobin
b. glucose
c. hematocrit
d. hemoglobulin

A

c. hematocrit

148
Q

Blood is composed of what percentages?
a. 45% formed elements / 65% liquid
b. 65% formed elements / 45 % liquid
c. 55% formed elements / 45% liquid
d. 45% formed elements / 55% liquid

A

d. 45% formed elements / 55% liquid

149
Q

What is the angle of the needle in a venipuncture?
a. 10-15
b. 15-25
c. 15-30
d. 20-30

A

c. 15-30

150
Q

What anticoagulant does the light blue tube contain?
a. Na citrate
b. Sodium citrate
c. EDTA
d. Both a & b

A

d. Both a & b

151
Q

What cardiovascular consists of ?
a. heart
b. lungs
c. blood vessels
d. both a & c

A

d. both a & c

152
Q

Type and crossmatch determines?
a. match of blood type
b. amounts of RBCs
c. type of blood bank
c. amount of WBCs

A

a. match of blood type

153
Q

what’s another name for thrombocyte?
a. red blood cell
b. white blood cell
c. plasma
d. platelet

A

d. platelet

154
Q

What is another name for RBC?
a. leukocyte
b. thrombocyte
c. monocyte
d. erythrocyte

A

d. erythrocyte

155
Q

What is another name for WBC?
a. neutrophil
b. platelet
c. leukocyte
d. thrombocyte

A

c. leukocyte

156
Q

What is another name for immunology testing?
a. immunization
b. immunoglobulin
c. serology
d. hematology

A

c. serology

157
Q

What is the function of the platelets?
a. carry oxygen
b. start clotting process
c. start cleansing process
d. stop clotting process

A

b. start clotting process

158
Q

What color tube is used for a PT, PTT test?
a. green
b. gray
c. light blue
d. red

A

c. light blue

159
Q

What is the clotting agent?
a. fibrosis
b. fibroma
c. fibrinogest
d. fibrinogen

A

d. fibrinogen

160
Q

What are the most common coagulation tests?
a. PT, PTP
b. PT, PTT
c. PTT, PTP
d. PTT, TPT

A

b. PT, PTT

161
Q

If a patient has an IV in the right hand, where can you draw blood?
a. above the IV
b. Left antecubital
c. left hand
d. b&c are acceptable

A

d. b&c are acceptable

162
Q

What is the third vein of choice when drawing blood?
a. median
b. cephalic
c. basilic
d. antecubital

A

c. basilic

163
Q

What anticoagulant does the gray tube contain?
a. EDTA
b. Acid citrate dextrose
c. Na citrate
d. k oxalate

A

d. k oxalate

164
Q

CBC stands for complete …..
a. blood clot
b. blood cost
c. blood count
d. nothing

A

c. blood count

165
Q

What does chemistry panel test for?
a. drugs, electrolytes
b. WBCs and drugs
c. bacteria, rbcs
d. viral infections

A

a. drugs, electrolytes

166
Q

What PPE do you wear for strict isolation?
a. gown and gloves
b. mask and gloves
c. gown, mask and gloves
d. mask and gown

A

c. gown, mask and gloves

167
Q

Who is responsible for the pre analytical phase?
a. lab technician
b. nurse
c. doctor
d. phlebotomist

A

d. phlebotomist

168
Q

What patient should be kept in blood and body fluid isolation?
a. low wbc
b. salmonella food poisoning
c. high wbc
d. TB tuberculosis

A

d. TB tuberculosis

169
Q

Blue tubes must be filled?
a. half way
b. part of the way
c. as much as you can get
d. all the way

A

d. all the way

170
Q

A blood culture tube is drawn?
a. 2nd
b. 3rd
c. last
d. first

A

d. first

171
Q

What is the study of the body structure?
a. bones
b. physiology
c. physics
d. anatomy

A

d. anatomy

172
Q

What does a virology test look for?
a. bacteria
b. parasites
c. viral infection
d. tuberculosis

A

c. viral infection

173
Q

What does OSHA stand for?
a. occupational services and health administration
b. occupational system and health administration
c. occupational safety and health administration
d. occupational service and health administration

A

c. occupational safety and health administration

174
Q

What is NSSPA?
a. Needle stick safety prenatal act
b. Needle stick safety and prevent act
c. Needle stick safety and prevention act
d. Needle safety stick and prevention act

A

c. Needle stick safety and prevention act

175
Q

What services are often found in the major sections of the anatomic pathology?
a. cytology, histology
b. autopsy services, embalming
c. cytogenetics, autopsy services
d. both a and c

A

d. both a and c

176
Q

Who is responsible for clinical pathology performance?
a. CMS
b. the joint commission
c. CLIA
d. CLSI

A

c. CLIA

177
Q

What is the definition of hemolysis?
a. ruptured RBCs
b. ruptured WBCs
c. too many RBCs
d. RBCs turn white

A

a. ruptured RBCs

178
Q

What test can hemolysis influence?
a. vitamin A and B
b. vitamin E
c. vitamin C
d. vitamin K

A

d. vitamin K

179
Q

How is the chain of infection broken?
a. isolation
b. insulting
c. insulation
d. innovation

A

a. isolation

180
Q

How do we fight the spread of infection of nosocomial infections?
a. break the links of the germ
b. break the link of the infection
c. break the link of the chain
d. none of the above

A

c. break the link of the chain

181
Q

what is the correct order of draw?
a. Yellow, light blue, green, red, lavender, gray, yellow
b. Yellow, lavender, light blue, red, green, gray, yellow
c. Yellow, light blue, red, green, lavender, gray, yellow
d. Yellow, light blue, red. gray, lavender, green, yellow

A

c. Yellow, light blue, red, green, lavender, gray, yellow

182
Q

what is the capillary order of draw?
a. lavender, green, red
b. lavender, green, gray
c. lavender, grey, red
d. lavender, red, green

A

a. lavender, green, red

183
Q

The yellow tube with ACD is for?
a. GTT and Ethanol
b. crossmatch and ammonia
c. Genetic, DNA, platelet
d. platelet, WBC and RBC

A

c. Genetic, DNA, platelet

Phlebotomy 1 (4 decks)

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