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Phlebotomy 1 > Phlebotomy 1 > Flashcards

Phlebotomy 1 Flashcards

1
Q

As today’s health care system is evolving, some phlebotomists may be trained to perform additional duties, such as which of the following?
a. Specimen transport
b. Dermal puncture
c. Taking vital signs
d. Selecting specimen containers

A

c. Taking vital signs

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2
Q

Communicating effectively involves which of the following?
a. Tone of voice
b. Listening skills
c. Gestures
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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3
Q

Consent is implied for an adult patient for blood extraction under which of the following conditions?
a. They sign the consent form
b. They extend their left arm
c. They nod in agreement
d. There is a witness present

A

b. They extend their left arm

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4
Q

Being sensitive to cultural diversity is a desirable professional trait in the health care staff. A phlebotomist can respond appropriately by doing which of the following?
a. Stereotyping patients
b. Noticing the patients’ reactions and accommodating them
c. Examining the patients arm very quickly
d. Invading the patient’s personal space

A

b. Noticing the patients’ reactions and accommodating them

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5
Q

Which of the following is federal law that stipulates the confidentiality of patient information?
a. CLIA
b. CLSI
c. TJC
d. HIPPA

A

d. HIPPA

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6
Q

Agents of infections are described as linked together to form a chain. A susceptible host may, in turn, becomes which of the following?
a. Portal of exit
b. Mode of transmission
c. Reservoir
d. Infectious agent

A

c. Reservoir

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7
Q

You are assigned to collect dermal punctures for newborn spot tests. Before you enter the neonatal ICU, which of the following is your priority?
a. Greeting the nurses
b. Washing your hands
c. Donning a gown and gloves
d. Putting on a mask

A

b. Washing your hands

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8
Q

Which of the following is the proper sequence for removing PPE?
a. The most contaminated items are removed first
b. The least contaminated items are removed first
c. The first PPE work is removed first
d. The last PPE worn is removed first

A

a. The most contaminated items are removed first

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9
Q

Before meeting any patient, which of the following is the routine policy OSHA encourages for controlling the spread of infection?
a. Emergency precautions
b. Standard precautions
c. Universal precautions
d. Blood born pathogen

A

b. Standard precautions

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10
Q

Which of the following types of waste refers to objects that may cut or puncture?
a. Pathological/anatomical
b. Recyclable
c. Chemical
d. Sharp

A

d. Sharp

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11
Q

To correctly don PPEs, all except which of the following equipment must be available?
a. Waste bin
b. Mask
c. Face shield
d. Size appropriate gloves

A

a. Waste bin

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12
Q

Which of the following is specialized tissue that provides a scaffold for the organs?
a. Epithelial
b. Connective
c. Muscular
d. Nervous

A

b. Connective

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13
Q

The elbow lies proximal to the hand. This means that the elbow is which of the following?
a. Nearer to the center of the body than the hand
b. Farther to the center of the body than the hand
c. Toward the midline of the hand
d. On the side of the hand

A

a. Nearer to the center of the body than the hand

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14
Q

Which of the following planes cuts the body into an anterior and posterior section?
a. Frontal
b. Sagittal
c. Midsagittal
d. Transverse

A

a. Frontal

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15
Q

The ventral cavities contain all except which of the following organs and sub cavities?
a. Thoracic
b. Abdominal
c. Cranial
d. Pelvic

A

c. Cranial

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16
Q

Which of the following is a large artery branching near the aorta and is often used as a site for identifying pulse in the event of an emergency?
a. Radial
b. Carotid
c. Superior vena cava
d. Pulmonary

A

b. Carotid

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17
Q

Which of the following occurs when the body uses up a lot of clotting factors as a result of coagulation happening everywhere In the body due several infected injuries?
a. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
b. Hemophilia
c. Deep vein thrombosis
d. Clot lysis

A

a. Disseminated intravascular coagulation

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18
Q

Where is the pulse commonly felt?
a. The neck, elbow crease, and wrists
b. The chest, neck, and thigh
c. The forearm, hands, and knee
d. The neck, below the thumb, and the sides of the forehead

A

a. The neck, elbow crease, and wrists

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19
Q

Which of the following are considered the most common leucocyte found in the body?
a. Lymphocytes
b. Neutrophils
c. Monocytes
d. Basophils

A

b. Neutrophils

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20
Q

Which of the following is a term attributed to the pain and swelling of a vein that develops as a result of carelessness when doing phlebotomy work?
a. Phlebitis
b. Thrombosis
c. Aneurysm
d. Arteriosclerosis

A

a. Phlebitis

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21
Q

Which of the following tests is used to evaluate the function of the extrinsic coagulation pathway?
a. Activated partial Thromboplastin time
b. Prothrombin time
c. Thrombin time
d. D-dimer

A

b. Prothrombin time

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22
Q

Blood pressure determines the pressure subjected to the blood vessel was during the systole and diastole: It is reported as two reading in millimeters of mercury. Which of the following is the number written above?
a. Systolic blood pressure
b. Diastolic blood pressure
c. Pulse rate
d. Pulse pressure

A

a. Systolic blood pressure

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23
Q

Which of the following blood vessels carries deoxygenated blood?
a. Pulmonary vein
b. Carotid vein
c. Pulmonary artery
d. Aorta

A

c. Pulmonary artery

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24
Q

The contents of a phlebotomy tray include all except which of the following?
a. ETS
b. Tourniquet
c. Urine cups
d. Syringe

A

c. Urine cups

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25
Q

EDTA prevents blood from clotting through which of the following actions?
a. Releasing heparin
b. Binding calcium
c. Biding Thrombin
d. Binding fibrinogen

A

b. Binding calcium

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26
Q

Which of the following evacuated tubes is coated with an additive that inhibits thrombin?
a. Lavender
b. Green
c. Black
d. Yellow

A

b. Green

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27
Q

Which of the following chemicals is added to tubes to prevent glycolysis?
a. Na heparin
b. Na fluoride
c. Na polyanethol sulfate
d. Na citrate

A

b. Na fluoride

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28
Q

A requisition form is valid if received through which of the following?
a. The patient
b. The pneumatic tube system
c. The hospital information
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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29
Q

Before proceeding with venipuncture, you must do which of the following?
a. Read out the patient’s name; check if the nod or say yes
b. Ask every patient to verbally state their first and last names and birth date
c. Check only the patients ID band with the requisition form
d. Check only the ID numbers, since is reliable

A

b. Ask every patient to verbally state their first and last names and birth date

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30
Q

You find out that a patient has not complied with fasting requirements for a blood cholesterol determination. You inform the nurse. She days to go ahead with the procedure. You should do which of the following?
a. Argue with the nurse
b. Report the nurse to your supervisor
c. Draw the blood as instructed and make sure to note “not fasting” on the requisition form
d. Wait to hear the instructions directly from the physician

A

c. Draw the blood as instructed and make sure to note “not fasting” on the requisition form

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31
Q

The butterfly system preferred for use in venipuncture on which of the following patients?
a. A 70-year old active man
b. A 24-year old undergoing chemotherapy
c. A 30-year old businesswoman
d. A 15-year-old boy

A

b. A 24-year old undergoing chemotherapy

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32
Q

When necessary, small veins on the dorsum of the hand can be used for venipuncture. Which of the following blood collection systems is the best for this area?
a. Winged collection system
b. Syringe system
c. ETS
d. Never be used

A

a. Winged collection system

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33
Q

A tourniquet was used to find the vein. How long is the interval before it can be reapplied to draw the blood?
a. 60 seconds
b. 120 seconds
c. 180 seconds
d. 5 minutes

A

b. 120 seconds

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34
Q

Where is the proper position of the tourniquet on the patient’s arm?
a. At least 2 inches above the elbow crease
b. At least 1 or 2 inches superior to the antecubital fossa
c. At least 3 or 4 inches superior to the antecubital fossa
d. Applied securely around a joint or bony area

A

c. At least 3 or 4 inches superior to the antecubital fossa

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35
Q

What happens when the patient is allowed to pump their fist while you are extracting blood?
a. Hemolysis
b. Hemoconcentration
c. Hematoma
d. Skin blanching

A

b. Hemoconcentration

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36
Q

As blood flows down the tube, the phlebotomist should do which of the following?
a. Instruct the patient to pump their fist
b. Instruct the patient to open their fist
c. Tighten the tourniquet
d. Loosen the tourniquet

A

b. Instruct the patient to open their fist

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37
Q

When the patient’s elbow is allowed to bend over the site without applying adequate pressure, which of the following happens?
a. Hemolysis
b. Hemoconcentration
c. Hematoma
d. Skin blanching

A

c. Hematoma

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38
Q

Which of the following are important data to write on the specimen labels?
a. Patient ID number
b. The requesting physicians name and signature
c. Test(s) requested
d. Special handling requirements for the tests requested

A

a. Patient ID number

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39
Q

Which of the following statements on the consequences of improper transport is true?
a. Glycolysis causes falsely high blood glucose values
b. Hemolysis causes falsely low serum potassium values
c. Coagulation factors are increased at room temperature
d. Bilirubin is photosensitive; the tube must be wrapped in foil during transport

A

d. Bilirubin is photosensitive; the tube must be wrapped in foil during transport

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40
Q

You are asked to do a venipuncture on a comatose patient. There is no ID band on the patient. Which of the following actions is appropriate?
a. Ask the other patients in the ward to identify the patient
b. Postpone the procedure; leave the requisition with the nurses
c. Wait for a family member
d. Find the nurse to attach and ID band to the patient

A

d. Find the nurse to attach and ID band to the patient

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41
Q

Is it acceptable to have another person verify a patient’s identity when a patient is which of the following?
a. A teenager
b. Elderly
c. Cognitively impaired
d. Combative

A

c. Cognitively impaired

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42
Q

Why are most routine venipunctures often collected early in the morning?
a. The physicians make rounds in the morning and need these results early
b. The patient is well-rested and fasting
c. The patient will have already had breakfast
d. Fewer adverse reactions (i.e., nausea, fainting) are encountered

A

b. The patient is well-rested and fasting

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43
Q

Pre examination variables are those that affect the integrity of the specimens and alter tests results. Which of the following statements are correct?
a. When a patient has not complied with fasting, you must cancel the venipuncture
b. Patients should lie down for 30 minutes before drawing blood for aldosterone tests
c. Following short term exercise, test results are unaffected
d. At higher altitudes, oxygen and hemoglobin levels are lower

A

b. Patients should lie down for 30 minutes before drawing blood for aldosterone tests

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44
Q

Your patient suddenly starts to have a seizure while you are collecting blood. Which of the following should you do first?
a. Remove the tourniquet and needle, apply pressure to the site, and summon help
b. Forcibly restrain the patient
c. Run to the nurse station to summon help
d. Turn the patients head to one side and insert a tongue depressor in the mouth

A

a. Remove the tourniquet and needle, apply pressure to the site, and summon help

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45
Q

Hemoconcentration is produced by which of the following?
a. Performing venipuncture on sclerotic veins
b. Removing the tourniquet before 1 minute
c. Failing to instruct the patient to pump their fist
d. Inverting the evacuated tubes

A

a. Performing venipuncture on sclerotic veins

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46
Q

Which of the following areas are suitable for venipuncture?
a. Below a hematoma
b. Above a hematoma
c. Sclerosed veins
d. Healed burns or scars

A

a. Below a hematoma

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47
Q

When attempting venipuncture on a dialysis patient with and AV graft, you should do which of the following?
a. Appy the tourniquet 3 inches below the AV graft
b. Collect blood from the AV graft
c. Collect blood from the other arm
d. Only A and B

A

c. Collect blood from the other arm

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48
Q

Which of the following needle positions causes hematoma by puncturing the veins through the tissue?
a. Bevel too close to the vessel wall
b. Needle advanced too deep into the vein
c. Needle angle too narrow
d. Needle not inside the vein

A

b. Needle advanced too deep into the vein

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49
Q

Which of the following technical errors leads to a hematoma formation?
a. Releasing the tourniquet before withdrawing the needle
b. Applying pressure to the site
c. Using a large needle on a small vein
d. All of the above

A

c. Using a large needle on a small vein

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50
Q

Which of the following can cause a specimen to be rejected?
a. Clotted red tubes
b. Using a partial-draw tube
c. Incompletely filling an SST
d. Clotted lavender tubes

A

d. Clotted lavender tubes

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51
Q

On which patient population is a dermal puncture appropriate?
a. Cancer patients on chemotherapy
b. Elderly patients
c. Patients on glucose monitoring
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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52
Q

Which of the following tests may be run on capillary blood?
a. ESR
b. Blood culture
c. Coagulation tests
d. Newborn screening test

A

d. Newborn screening test

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53
Q

Capillary blood contains higher levels of which of the following analysis?
a. Potassium
b. Albumin
c. Glucose
d. Calcium

A

c. Glucose

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54
Q

An improper dermal puncture, which fails to cut perpendicular to the fingerprint, will do which of the following?
a. Cause significant discomfort to the patient
b. Cause blood to collect and flow in the grooves
c. Contaminate the sample
d. Hemolyze the sample

A

b. Cause blood to collect and flow in the grooves

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55
Q

Which of the following is a correct practice when performing dermal punctures?
a. Restrain every pediatric patient, as they may be uncooperative
b. Promise that the procedure will be quick and painless
c. Make a note of agitation and crying in the requisition form
d. It is unnecessary to document consent when a child is simply wrapped in a blanket for the dermal puncture

A

c. Make a note of agitation and crying in the requisition form

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56
Q

Why is warming the site recommended in a dermal puncture?
a. It prevents hemolysis
b. It increases blood flow
c. It prevents the formation of micro clots
d. It is soothing for the patient

A

b. It increases blood flow

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57
Q

Why do most tests require wiping off the first drop when collecting dermal puncture specimens?
a. It avoids contamination
b. It increases blood flow
c. It prevents the formation of a round drop of blood
d. It prevents blood bone infections

A

a. It avoids contamination

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58
Q

Which of the following is a condition caused by the lack of an enzyme to break down a sugar found in milk and results in an accumulation in the blood?
a. Phenylketonuria
b. Galactosemia
c. Cystic fibrosis
d. Congenital hypothyroidism

A

b. Galactosemia

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59
Q

Which of the following statements describes a properly collected newborn screen sample?
a. Using one drop of blood from a heel puncture to fill and soak one circle
b. Using multiple drops of blood to fill and soak one circle
c. Using a capillary pipette to apply a uniform drop of blood on each circle
d. Applying one drop of blood to each side of the filter paper

A

a. Using one drop of blood from a heel puncture to fill and soak one circle

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60
Q

On which area should you view the slide under the microscope to ensure that your sample is representative of the patients’ blood?
a. On the feathered edge
b. Around the holes
c. At the thickest area
d. At the creases

A

a. On the feathered edge

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61
Q

Which of the following refers to the bacteria in the bloodstream causing symptoms of fever and tachycardia?
a. Sepsis
b. Bacteremia
c. Meningitis
d. Allergy

A

a. Sepsis

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62
Q

Which of the following is the ideal time for collecting a blood culture?
a. After the height of fever
b. Just before the height of fever
c. After giving antibiotics
d. During a patient’s basal state

A

b. Just before the height of fever

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63
Q

When is necessary to take a blood culture sample from patients who are already taking antibiotics, you must do which of the following?
a. Ask the nurse to discontinue the patients’ antibiotics for 24 hours
b. Collect the sample in special bottles containing activated charcoal
c. Ensure that the patient has taken activated charcoal first
d. Ask the nurse to skip the patients’ antibiotics right before your collection

A

b. Collect the sample in special bottles containing activated charcoal

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64
Q

Which of the following is a suitable cleanser for clearing bacteria off the skin in a newborn?
a. Chlorhexidine gluconate
b. 70% isopropyl alcohol
c. 40% isopropyl alcohol
d. Chlora Prep swabs

A

b. 70% isopropyl alcohol

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65
Q

Which of the following is the correct blood culture volume requirement for infants weighing less than 5 kilograms?
a. 1 to 3 ml of blood per pediatric bottle
b. 0.5 ml of blood per pediatric bottle
c. 1 ml in only one pediatric bottle
d. Only 0.5 ml per kilogram

A

c. 1 ml in only one pediatric bottle

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66
Q

A chilled specimen should not be used for which of the following tests?
a. Arterial blood gases
b. Serum potassium
c. ACTH
d. PTH

A

b. Serum potassium

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67
Q

Which of the following is true when collecting forensic samples for use in legal proceedings?
a. The specimen must be collected in front of two witnesses
b. Only the physician may draw the blood
c. You should document your name and the date and time on the chain of custody form
d. You will be asked to identify the patient in court

A

c. You should document your name and the date and time on the chain of custody form

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68
Q

Which of the following may cause a falsely low blood alcohol level?
a. Using 70% isopropyl alcohol as a skin cleanser
b. Underfilling the gray tube
c. Overfilling the gray tube
d. Using Zephiran chloride as a skin cleanser

A

b. Underfilling the gray tube

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69
Q

Which of the following characteristics would make a volunteer eligible to donate blood?
a. 16 years old
b. Weigh of 48 kg
c. Blood pressure of 180/110 mmHg
d. Hemoglobin count of 13 g/dL

A

d. Hemoglobin count of 13 g/dL

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70
Q

Donor units are routinely tested for the presence of which of the following blood borne pathogens?
a. Human immunodeficiency virus
b. Treponema pallidum
c. HLTV
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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71
Q

The gauge of the needle to collect blood should be which of the following?
a. 16 or 17 gauge
b. 17 or 18 gauge
c. 23 gauge
d. 25 gauge

A

a. 16 or 17 gauge

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72
Q

Which of the following procedures allows a person to preemptively donate a unit of their blood to be transfused during or after the operation?
a. Autologous donation
b. Heterologous donation
c. Homologous donation
d. Self-donation

A

a. Autologous donation

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73
Q

Following successful blood donation, volunteers should be instructed to do all except which of the following?
a. Drink plenty of fluids
b. Avoid strenuous activities
c. Lie down if they feel dizzy or nauseous
d. Return to work involving lifting heavy objects

A

d. Return to work involving lifting heavy objects

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74
Q

Which of the following is a method of obtaining a sterile urine sample for bacterial cultures from patients who are bedridden or unable to void?
a. Catheter collection
b. Use of a collection bag
c. Midstream clean-catch sample
d. First morning void

A

a. Catheter collection

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75
Q

The correct method of collecting a nasopharyngeal swab involves which of the following?
a. Immersing the swab in saline and mixing it vigorously
b. Crushing the contents of the ampule of transport media
c. Disposing of the swab, along with excess liquid
d. Transporting the swab to the laboratory on an ice slurry

A

a. Immersing the swab in saline and mixing it vigorously

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76
Q

When using a pneumatic tube system all except which of the following is correct?
a. Tubes must be properly cushioned
b. Keep specimens in leak poof biohazard containers
c. Tubes may be used to transport specimens collected through invasive means
d. All of the above

A

c. Tubes may be used to transport specimens collected through invasive means

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77
Q

Which of the following specimens may be used to investigate the organisms or crystals in the joints?
a. Amniotic fluid
b. Synovial fluid
c. Cerebrospinal fluid
d. Serous fluid

A

b. Synovial fluid

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78
Q

Which of the following CSF tube is correctly paired with its intended department?
a. Tube 1 for chemistry
b. Tube 2 for microbiology
c. Tube 3 for hematology
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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79
Q

Which of the following types of serous fluid is located between the membranes of the abdominal cavities?
a. Pleural
b. Pericardial
c. Parietal
d. Peritoneal

A

d. Peritoneal

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80
Q

Malabsorption of lactose can be detected in the breath through which of the following tests?
a. C-urea breath test
b. Hydrogen breath test
c. Alcohol breath test
d. Carbon dioxide breath test

A

b. Hydrogen breath test

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81
Q

Which of the following is the correct instruction for patients before collecting sputum specimens?
a. Do not eat or drink
b. Smoking is allowed
c. Swallow a glass of water right before expectorating
d. Take a sample right before going to bed

A

a. Do not eat or drink

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82
Q

The ideal time to centrifugate a specimen is which of the following?
a. 2 hours after refrigeration
b. 2 hours after receiving
c. 4 hours after refrigeration
d. 4 hours after receiving

A

b. 2 hours after receiving

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83
Q

Which of the following is avoided by not rimming a clot from the sides of a tube?
a. Hemolysis
b. Hemoconcentration
c. Hematoma
d. Blood borne pathogen exposure

A

a. Hemolysis

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84
Q

How long can prothrombin time specimen remain at room temperature?
a. 2 hours
b. 4 hours
c. 8 hours
d. 24 hours

A

d. 24 hours

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85
Q

How long can ERS specimens in EDTA tubes be refrigerated?
a. 12 hours
b. 24 hours
c. 48 hours
d. 72 hours

A

a. 12 hours

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86
Q

Which of the following categories of infectious substances do newborn screening cards belong to?
a. Category A
b. Category B
c. Category C
d. Category D

A

b. Category B

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87
Q

When you are receiving a 24 hour urine sample from a patient, he mentions that he forgot to collect a small amount when he went to urinate at night. You should do which of the following?
a. Immediately refrigerate the specimen
b. Dilute the sample with a preservative
c. Ask the patient to submit a new one
d. Accept the specimen

A

c. Ask the patient to submit a new one

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88
Q

Your new colleague has forgotten his password to the LIS and is asking you to lend your password so he can print out requisition forms. You should do which of the following?
a. Give him your password
b. Print out the requisition forms yourself
c. Give him your password, but immediately change it after he uses your account
d. All of the above

A

b. Print out the requisition forms yourself

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89
Q

Which of the following is ideal temperature for storing serum or plasma, which cannot be tested after 48 hours?
a. 27⁰ C
b. 10⁰ C
c. -20⁰ C
d. 7⁰ C

A

c. -20⁰ C

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90
Q

Which of the following tests have a relatively lower risk of false results and no training requirement?
a. Waived test
b. Provider performed microscopy
c. Moderate complexity
d. High complexity

A

a. Waived test

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91
Q

Performance of which of the following tests is subject to proficiency testing?
a. Waived test
b. Provider performed microscopy
c. High complexity
d. Moderate complexity

A

c. High complexity

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92
Q

Which of the following stipulates the standards that every laboratory must follow in the course of diagnostic procedures, professional qualifications, quality management systems, and handling complaints?
a. CLIA
b. HIPPA
c. OSHA
d. CAP

A

a. CLIA

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93
Q

Waived testing sites are not regularly inspected. Under which of the following circumstances will CMS inspect these sites?
a. When a compliant has raised
b. To ascertain whether these sites are performing only tests they are permitted to
c. To gather data on waived tests
d. All of above

A

d. All of above

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94
Q

Certain situations may allow modifications of test kits for purposes other than what is intended. This is referred to as which of the following?
a. Waived testing
b. Under the table testing
c. Off label testing
d. Uncertified testing

A

c. Off label testing

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95
Q

An external control determines which of the following?
a. Whether the test is working properly
b. Whether the results fall within the expected range
c. Whether the sample is adequate
d. All of the above

A

b. Whether the results fall within the expected range

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96
Q

When the results of a quality control test are incorrect, which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
a. Withhold reporting all patient test results from this batch
b. Complete the patient tests as these are timebound and cannot be withheld
c. Contact the manufacturer immediately and demand a refund
d. All of the above

A

a. Withhold reporting all patient test results from this batch

97
Q

Which of the following statements is correct regarding waived tests?
a. Swabs included in the test kits are interchangeable with sterile swabs
b. Only dermal puncture blood can be used on waived testing
c. Do not mark the test strips or cassettes
d. A phlebotomist may be assigned to perform a waived test

A

d. A phlebotomist may be assigned to perform a waived test

98
Q

When the result is invalid, which of the following is the next best step?
a. Report the results now and repeat the test; report the repeated results
b. Do not report the results. Repeat the test and report both results
c. Do not report the results. Repeat the test and report only the repeated results
d. Do not report the results. Correct the problem. Repeat the test and report only the repeated result

A

d. Do not report the results. Correct the problem. Repeat the test and report only the repeated result

99
Q

Which of the following are correct actions when reporting results over the telephone?
a. Provide the results to any caller
b. Document the call and mark the copy of the test results as “reported”
c. Document the call and promptly provide a written report
d. All of the above

A

c. Document the call and promptly provide a written report

100
Q

Whom among the following performs an internal quality assessment?
a. Staff member
b. A consultant
c. Proficiency testing program
d. All of the above

A

a. Staff member

101
Q

You are assigned to venipuncture for 12 patients in the ward. The patient in bed 8 does not wake up when you call his name. You should do which of the following first?
a. Pinch the patient
b. Move on the other patients
c. Perform a sternal rub
d. Inform the nurse, then move on to the other patients

A

a. Pinch the patient

102
Q

The depth of the chest compressions in adults should be which of the following?
a. 1.5 inches
b. 1.5 cm
c. 2 inches
d. 2 cm

A

c. 2 inches

103
Q

The rate of chest compressions should be which of the following?
a. 100 to 120 per minute in adults
b. 100 to 120 per minute in children
c. 100 to 120 per minute in infants
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

104
Q

Which of the following refers to how facilities adhere to laboratory standards, and evaluate the systems to prevent problems and resolve issues?
a. Quality management
b. Quality assessment
c. Quality systems essentials
d. Quality control

A

a. Quality management

105
Q

Which of the following organizations oversees quality management systems?
a. The Joint Commission
b. CLSI
c. CLIA
d. CAP

A

a. The Joint Commission

106
Q

Which of the following quality assessment documents providers a description of the principles and purpose for each test, specimen and collection requirements, a list of materials needed, special precautions (if any), procedure instructions, corrective actions, quality control methods, and reference ranges?
a. Procedural manuals
b. Policies
c. Reference manuals
d. Competency assessment

A

a. Procedural manuals

107
Q

A phlebotomist erroneously inserted a test report in the wrong patient’s chart. This is an example of which of the following?
a. Pre examination variables
b. Examination variables
c. Post examination variables
d. None of the above

A

c. Post examination variables

108
Q

Which of the following is correct when documenting on the patient’s chart?
a. Use black ink
b. Utilize only standardized abbreviations
c. When correcting errors, strike it out with a single and sign your initials
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

109
Q

Which of the following refers to the length of time that transpires from the moment a test is requisitioned up to the time results are generated and reported?
a. Waiting period
b. Turnaround time
c. STAT
d. Lead generation time

A

b. Turnaround time

110
Q

The Lean system includes which of the following steps?
a. Sorting, straightening, scrubbing, safety, standardizing, sustaining
b. Scrubbing, safety, standardizing, sorting, straightening
c. Safety, sustaining, standardizing, straightening, scrubbing, sorting
d. Straightening, safety, scrubbing, sustaining, standardizing, sorting

A

a. Sorting, straightening, scrubbing, safety, standardizing, sustaining

111
Q

A misidentified patient has a hemolytic transfusion reaction. This is an example of which of the following?
a. Sentinel event
b. Incident event
c. Critical event
d. Nonconforming event

A

a. Sentinel event

112
Q

Which of the following documents is written by a witness and outlines the details of an incident and the actions taken to correct these?
a. Sentinel event report
b. Incident report
c. Critical event report
d. Nonconforming event report

A

b. Incident report

113
Q

Where can you find warning signs alerting you to corresponding transmission based precautions for each patient?
a. On the requisition form
b. In the patient charts
c. On the patients ID bands
d. On the doors of patient room

A

d. On the doors of patient room

114
Q

When a second venipuncture attempt is unsuccessful, which of the following is the most appropriate action?
a. Attempt a third venipuncture on another site
b. Have the nurse perform the venipuncture
c. Notify the nurse and request another phlebotomist
d. Scold the patient for being uncooperative

A

c. Notify the nurse and request another phlebotomist

115
Q

Which of the following is hypertrophic scar resulting from excess collagen produced during skin healing?
a. Keloid
b. Impetigo
c. Eczema
d. Dermatitis

A

a. Keloid

116
Q

A phlebotomist is not allowed to remain at work until they are out of the infectious stage of all except which of the following?
a. Conjunctivitis
b. Covid 19
c. Acute gastroenteritis
d. Herpes zoster

A

c. Acute gastroenteritis

117
Q

Which of the following pathogens commonly encountered in healthcare facilities is highly associated with antibiotic resistance?
a. MRSA
b. Enterococcus
c. Clostridium difficile
d. All of above

A

d. All of above

118
Q

Where are most releasing hormones produced?
a. Endocrine organs
b. Hypothalamus
c. Anterior pituitary gland
d. Posterior pituitary gland

A

b. Hypothalamus

119
Q

Which of the following laboratory tests is paired with is correct clinical correlation?
a. Amylase and infections
b. GGT and fat absorption
c. Sweat chloride test and cystic fibrosis
d. Cold agglutinin and organ failure

A

c. Sweat chloride test and cystic fibrosis

120
Q

Which of the following medical terms is used to refer to the outpouching of a blood vessel wall layer due to weakness?
a. Aneurism
b. Arteriosclerosis
c. Atherosclerosis
d. Embolism

A

a. Aneurism

121
Q

As a phlebotomist, you can display professional behavior in the facility by doing which of the following?
a. Keeping your workstation neat and organized
b. Wearing a lot of cologne
c. Slouching and not maintaining eye contact when you enter the patients room
d. Wearing a dirty lab coat

A

a. Keeping your workstation neat and organized

122
Q

A phlebotomist can display empathy and make patients feel reassured by doing which of the following?
a. Taking a phone call during the procedure
b. Avoiding eye contact
c. Crossing their arms
d. Walking tall as they enter a patient room

A

d. Walking tall as they enter a patient room

123
Q

Which statement is correct regarding procedures In reverse isolation areas?
a. When phlebotomy is completed, you must take all equipment out with you
b. In reverse isolation areas, all PPE must be sterile
c. Remove PPE only after leaving the room
d. All of above

A

d. All of above

124
Q

A phlebotomist has not been trained with arterial blood extraction, but he proceeds to do so. The patient ends up with a nerve injury. The phlebotomist is committing which of the following?
a. Negligence
b. Defamation
c. Malpractice
d. Assault

A

c. Malpractice

125
Q

Obtaining consent for HIV screening is which of the following?
a. A requirement of the laws of your state
b. An op-out procedure
c. An opt-in procedure
d. A service that requires express consent in writing

A

a. A requirement of the laws of your state

126
Q

The correct sequence of doffing PPE is which of the following?
a. Gloves, googles, mask, gown
b. Googles, gloves, gown, mask
c. Mask, gloves, goggles, gown
d. Gloves, googles, gown, mask

A

d. Gloves, googles, gown, mask

127
Q

Which of the following is not true of PPE in a medical setting as specified by OSHA?
a. It is designed to limit exposure to hazardous materials
b. It usually consists of a gown, facial protection, and gloves
c. It may include a waste bin or biohazard container
d. It usually consists of hard hats and reflective gear

A

d. It usually consists of hard hats and reflective gear

128
Q

Preventing transmission of pathogens includes which of the following precautions?
a. Proper donning of personal protective equipment
b. Incomplete vaccinations
c. Reusing needles
d. Improper sharps disposal

A

a. Proper donning of personal protective equipment

129
Q

Blood borne pathogens may be transmitted through which of the following exposure modes?
a. Mucous membranes around the eyes
b. Intact skin
c. Properly sheathed needle
d. All of above

A

a. Mucous membranes around the eyes

130
Q

Alcohol disinfectant is not recommended in cases of contact with which organisms?
a. Clostridium tetani
b. MRSA
c. Herpes simplex
d. Trichomonas virginal’s

A

a. Clostridium tetani

131
Q

For healthcare workers, which of the following is not recommended?
a. Having tattoos on either hand
b. Wearing jewelry
c. Wearing artificial nails
d. Having clean and short nails

A

c. Wearing artificial nails

132
Q

Which of the following precautions categories is employed to avoid respiratory hazards and infections, such as adenovirus, mumps, and tuberculosis?
a. Emergency precautions
b. Standard precautions
c. Droplet precautions
d. Airborne precautions

A

d. Airborne precautions

133
Q

Contaminated equipment and used PPE and bandages belong to which of the following waste categories
a. Radioactive waste
b. Deadly waste
c. Biological waste
d. Exogenous waste

A

c. Biological waste

134
Q

Body systems are made up of a few organs that coordinate to perform interrelated functions. One example of body system in which of the following?
a. Brain
b. Erythrocytes
c. Endocrine
d. Epithelium

A

c. Endocrine

135
Q

Which of the following planes cuts the body horizontally into upper and lower sections?
a. Frontal
b. Sagittal
c. Midsagittal
d. Transverse

A

d. Transverse

136
Q

Which of the following arteries is a common site for arterial blood extraction and may be located in the inguinal canal?
a. Radial
b. Carotid
c. Branchial
d. Femoral

A

d. Femoral

137
Q

Which of the following describes the correct way of determining an irregular pulse rate?
a. Count the beats again for 5 minutes, then divide it by 5
b. Count the beats again for 30 seconds, then multiply by 2
c. Count the beats again for 1 full minute
d. Count the beats gain for 2 full minutes

A

c. Count the beats again for 1 full minute

138
Q

How many liters of blood does the average human adult body contain?
a. 0-1 liter
b. 2- 3 liter
c. 4-5 liter
d. 5-6 liter

A

d. 5-6 liter

139
Q

It may or may not be present in the red blood cells. When a negative mother is sensitized by her fetus, the reaction is called the hemolytic disease f the newborn- Which of the following blood antigens is described?
a. ABO
b. D antigen
c. RhD
d. Anti-D

A

b. D antigen

140
Q

When a monocyte is found in the lung tissues, it is often referred to as which of the following?
a. Alveolar macrophage
b. Osteoclast
c. Microglia
d. Kupffer cell

A

a. Alveolar macrophage

141
Q

Which of the following stages of hemostasis is evaluated by a thrombin time?
a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Fibrin clot
d. Clot lysis

A

c. Fibrin clot

142
Q

Which of the following gives information on the time for one cardiac cycle to complete and the regularity of the cardiac rhythm?
a. Pulse rate
b. Electrocardiogram
c. Blood pressure
d. Echocardiogram

A

b. Electrocardiogram

143
Q

Which of the following kinds of blood vessels carry oxygenated blood?
a. Pulmonary vein
b. Great saphenous vein
c. Pulmonary artery
d. Median cubital vein

A

a. Pulmonary vein

144
Q

An expired collection tube causes which of the following problems?
a. Short draw
b. Clotted serum samples
c. Completely filled tubes
d. None

A

a. Short draw

145
Q

The phlebotomist should do which of the following before disposing of a used needle?
a. Wipe the blood off
b. Recap the needle
c. Remove the needle from the ETS
d. Activate the needles safety device

A

d. Activate the needles safety device

146
Q

Which of the following evacuated tubes is explicitly used for crossmatching sample?
a. Lavender top
b. Red top
c. Pink top
d. Green top

A

c. Pink top

147
Q

Which of the following kinds of information is not found on the requirement form?
a. Patient ID number
b. The requesting physicians name and signature
c. Test(s) requested
d. Special handling requirements for the tests requested

A

d. Special handling requirements for the tests requested

148
Q

Before proceeding with a venipuncture, which of the following should be done?
a. Use two identifiers to identify the correct patient
b. Obtain consent
c. Compare the patients ID band with the requisition form
d. All of above

A

d. All of above

149
Q

How should you position the patient’s arm to facilitate proper venipuncture?
a. Hyperextend the forearm
b. Position the arm so the wrist through the shoulder can be traced with a straight line
c. Bend the elbow at a 90⁰ angle
d. Make sure the arms remain at the side, with the patient standing up

A

b. Position the arm so the wrist through the shoulder can be traced with a straight line

150
Q

Which of the following is important to consider when choosing the blood collection system?
a. Patients age
b. Blood volume to be extracted
c. Conditions of the veins
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

151
Q

When both arms have no accessible median cubital veins, which of the following veins can be a second choice?
a. Median cubital veins
b. Basilic vein
c. Cephalic vein
d. Axillary vein

A

c. Cephalic vein

152
Q

How long can a tourniquet be allowed to compress a vein?
a. 60 seconds
b. 120 seconds
c. 180 seconds
d. 5 minutes

A

a. 60 seconds

153
Q

How can a vein be properly palpated?
a. Using the thumb
b. Using a tourniquet
c. Using the palms
d. Using the index finger

A

d. Using the index finger

154
Q

To ensure the maximal bacteriostatic action of isopropyl alcohol, it is important to do which of the following?
a. Wait 1 minute for the alcohol to dry
b. Puncture the site while it is still wet
c. Fan the site to dry
d. Wipe the site with a cotton pad

A

a. Wait 1 minute for the alcohol to dry

155
Q

The angle of the needle for venipuncture should be which of the following?
a. At a 15 ⁰ to 30⁰ angle with the bevel facing up
b. At a 45⁰ to 60⁰ angle with the bevel facing up
c. At a 15⁰ to 30⁰ angle with the bevel facing down
d. At a 45⁰ to 60⁰ angle with the bevel facing down

A

a. At a 15 ⁰ to 30⁰ angle with the bevel facing up

156
Q

The ideal time to invert the evacuate tubes with additives is which of the following?
a. Immediately after is removed from the ETS holder
b. On your way to the laboratory
c. When you have filled all the tubes
d. While you label each specimen

A

a. Immediately after is removed from the ETS holder

157
Q

Which of the following is the maximum time to centrifugate a coagulation assay specimen after receiving it?
a. 2 hours
b. 1 hour
c. 45 minutes
d. 30 minutes

A

a. 2 hours

158
Q

Before releasing an outpatient, the phlebotomist should do which of the following?
a. Thank the patient
b. Bandage their arm
c. Remind them to eat if they have no other procedures
d. All the above

A

d. All the above

159
Q

You must do what of the following before performing venipuncture in the outpatient setting?
a. Read out the patient’s name; check if they nod or say yes
b. Call out the patients name from the waiting room and see who approaches you
c. Compare the patients ID band with the requisition form
d. Verify their information with their photo ID card and see if these match the requisition slip

A

d. Verify their information with their photo ID card and see if these match the requisition slip

160
Q

You arrive at the patient’s ward, but she is still sleeping. Which of the following actions is appropriate?
a. Wake her gently, identify yourself, and wait for her to be oriented
b. Postpone the procedure, leave the requisition form with the nurses
c. Wait for her family member
d. Find the nurse to wake her

A

a. Wake her gently, identify yourself, and wait for her to be oriented

161
Q

When encountering an unidentified patient in the emergency department, which of the following actions is recommended by the American Association of Blood Banks?
a. Do not draw blood from the patients
b. Cross reference their temporary ID number with their permanent number
c. Put a temporary ID band on the patient
d. Wait until their identity is confirmed before you can do venipuncture

A

b. Cross reference their temporary ID number with their permanent number

162
Q

Pre-examination variables affect the integrity of the specimens and alter test results
a. Alcohol intake increases blood testosterone levels
b. Prolonged fasting does not affect blood tests
c. Venipuncture may proceed regardless of the patients position
d. In crying children, white cell count may be elevated

A

d. In crying children, white cell count may be elevated

163
Q

Your patient appears pale, cold, and clammy while you are about to perform venipuncture. Which of the following adverse reactions may develop?
a. Syncope
b. Prolonged bleeding
c. Hematoma
d. Allergies

A

a. Syncope

164
Q

Hemoconcentration is produced by which of the following actions?
a. Probing the needle vigorously
b. Removing the tourniquet before 1 minute
c. Asking the patient to clench their fist
d. Inverting the evacuation tubes

A

a. Probing the needle vigorously

165
Q

Which of the following areas is suitable for venipuncture?
a. Hematoma
b. Edematous limbs
c. Sclerosed veins
d. Hand veins

A

d. Hand veins

166
Q

When attempting venipuncture on obese patients, which of the following can be their veins more prominent?
a. Using a bariatric tourniquet
b. Using a syringe system with a longer needle
c. Blind probing to locate the vein
d. Only A and B

A

d. Only A and B

167
Q

Which of the following needle positions fills the tube too slowly and causes a hematoma to form?
a. Bevel too close to the vessel wall
b. Needle advanced too deep into the vein
c. Needle angle too narrow
d. Needle is not inside the vein

A

c. Needle angle too narrow

168
Q

When a patient complains of tingling, shock like sensations, overt pain, or numbness in the area, you suspect which of the following?
a. Arterial injury
b. Nerve damage
c. Syncope
d. Vein collapse

A

b. Nerve damage

169
Q

Which of the following technical errors leads to hemolysis?
a. Inserting the needle through the vein
b. Using a 21 gauge needle
c. Drawing blood below a hematoma
d. Drawing blood from a sclerosed vein

A

d. Drawing blood from a sclerosed vein

170
Q

Dermal punctures would be inappropriate in which of the following instances?
a. Severely dehydrated patients
b. Patients with edematous fingers
c. Blood culture tests
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

171
Q

Which of the following statements is correct?
a. Capillary blood and venipuncture samples uses the same set of reference values
b. Dermal puncture collects fluid from the tissues as well
c. Milking the area during a dermal puncture increases blood circulation
d. Cooling the site increases blood circulation

A

b. Dermal puncture collects fluid from the tissues as well

172
Q

The most important factor to consider in choosing a dermal puncture device is which of the following?
a. Number of drops of blood needed
b. Depth of the puncture
c. Width of the incision
d. The blood volume needed

A

b. Depth of the puncture

173
Q

On which of the following sites can a dermal puncture be safely performed?
a. Third or fourth finger
b. Index finger
c. Toes
d. Back of the heel

A

a. Third or fourth finger

174
Q

A phlebotomist performing dermal puncture can cause infections in the patient by doing which of the following?
a. Accidentally puncturing the bone
b. Repeating the puncture on a previous site
c. Reusing a lancet
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

175
Q

Which of the following happens when a dermal puncture is performed while alcohol is still wet?
a. It can cause microclots
b. It causes platelet aggregation
c. It prevents the formation of a round drop of blood
d. It is soothing for the patient

A

c. It prevents the formation of a round drop of blood

176
Q

Which of the following is the correct order of draw for the following tests on dermal puncture: malarial smear, compete blood count, and bilirubin?
a. Blood smears, complete blood count, bilirubin
b. Complete blood count, bilirubin, blood smears
c. Blood smears, bilirubin, complete blood count
d. Bilirubin, blood smears, complete blood count

A

a. Blood smears, complete blood count, bilirubin

177
Q

Which of the following is the best time to perform a new born screening test?
a. 24 hours after birth
b. 48 hours after discharge
c. 1 week after birth
d. 1 month after birth

A

a. 24 hours after birth

178
Q

Which of the following is the ideal angle of the spreader slide when preparing a thin blood smear?
a. 5 degrees
b. 15 degrees
c. 30 degrees
d. 45 degrees

A

c. 30 degrees

179
Q

Which of the following is the use of a thick smear?
a. To concentrate the sample to find and detect malarial parasites
b. To identify the morphology of malarial parasites
c. To prevent transmission of blood borne pathogens
d. To use as a medium to grow parasites

A

a. To concentrate the sample to find and detect malarial parasites

180
Q

Which of the following test is ordered to identify and detect pathogens causing bacteremia?
a. Blood culture
b. Complete blood count
c. Thick blood smear
d. Lumbar puncture

A

a. Blood culture

181
Q

When no blood culture bottles are available, how should you collect the specimen?
a. Postpone the test as it cannot be performed without equipment
b. Use sterile yellow (SPS) evacuated tubes
c. Use sterile yellow (ACD) evacuated tubes
d. Use sterile red (plain) evacuated tubes

A

b. Use sterile yellow (SPS) evacuated tubes

182
Q

Which of the following is true when you are using a winged (butterfly) collection system?
a. The anaerobic bottle is filled first
b. The aerobic bottle is filled first
c. The volume of the blood collected is increased
d. Either bottle can be filled first

A

b. The aerobic bottle is filled first

183
Q

To ensure adequate asepsis with a ChloraPrep swab, how long must you wait before venipuncture?
a. 30 seconds
b. 1 minute
c. 2 minutes
d. It is not necessary to wait

A

a. 30 seconds

184
Q

Why are blood volume requirements important to blood culture collection?
a. To collect the least amount of blood while maintaining the proper blood to culture medium ratio
b. To prevent contamination of the sample with tissue fluid
c. To ensure adequate concentration of bacteria is collected
d. To prevent iatrogenic anemia

A

a. To collect the least amount of blood while maintaining the proper blood to culture medium ratio

185
Q

Which of the following tests should be kept chilled?
a. Arterial blood gases to be tested in 30 minutes
b. Ammonia
c. Cold agglutinin
d. Bilirubin

A

b. Ammonia

186
Q

Which of the following test should be collected in amber colored bottles?
a. Porphyrins
b. Potassium
c. Glucose
d. Phosphorus

A

a. Porphyrins

187
Q

Which of the following test may be collected in a yellow (ACD) tube?
a. Paternity testing samples
b. Blood alcohol testing
c. Blood cultures
d. Ammonia

A

a. Paternity testing samples

188
Q

Which of the following characteristics would make a volunteer not eligible to donate blood?
a. They received a vaccine for varicella 2 days ago
b. They took the last antibiotic pill for a complete course a few hours ago
c. They previously donated blood 10 weeks ago
d. They inject insulin before every meal

A

a. They received a vaccine for varicella 2 days ago

189
Q

Which of the following additives should be present in a blood bag to preserve the blood and prevent clots?
a. Sodium polyanethol sulfonate
b. Citrate Phosphate Dextrose
c. Acid citrate dextrose
d. Ethylenediaminentraacet acid

A

b. Citrate Phosphate Dextrose

190
Q

During the donor blood collection, which of the following actions is appropriate for the donor?
a. Pump their fist to allow hemoconcentration of the blood
b. Shake their hands for a faster blood flow
c. Elevate their hands above their head for faster blood flow
d. Stand for the duration of the collection

A

a. Pump their fist to allow hemoconcentration of the blood

191
Q

You are the receiving phlebotomist when you notice that a urine sample was collected over 2 hours before being delivered to the laboratory. You should do which of the following?
a. Immediately refrigerate the specimen
b. Dilute the sample with a preservative
c. Ask the patient to submit a new one
d. Accept the specimen

A

c. Ask the patient to submit a new one

192
Q

In performing a urine drug test, which of the following indicated urine sample tampering?
a. pH of 9.5
b. The specific gravity of 1.005
c. Temperature is between 32.5⁰C and 37.7⁰C
d. All of the above

A

a. pH of 9.5

193
Q

Which of the following is an appropriate instruction for semen collection?
a. Refrain from sexual activity for 3 days
b. Collect the sample in a sterile cup
c. Keep the sample warm
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

194
Q

Nasopharyngeal swabs are requested for the detection of which of the following organisms?
a. SARSCOV-2
b. RSV
c. Parainfluenza virus
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

195
Q

Which of the following needles is used for bone marrow aspiration?
a. 23 gauge needle
b. Large bone, thin diameter needle
c. Jamshidi needle
d. Guthrie needle

A

c. Jamshidi needle

196
Q

Which of the following specimens may be used to investigate the organism responsible for meningitis and other neurological pathologies?
a. Amniotic fluid
b. Synovial fluid
c. Cerebrospinal fluid
d. Serous fluid

A

c. Cerebrospinal fluid

197
Q

Which of the following CSF tube numbers is correctly paired with its intended department?
a. Tube 1 hematology
b. Tube 2 microbiology
c. Tube 3 chemistry
d. All of the above

A

b. Tube 2 microbiology

198
Q

Which of the following anticoagulants is appropriate for microbiologic cultures of synovial fluid?
a. Heparin
b. EDTA
c. Sodium Fluoride
d. None

A

a. Heparin

199
Q

Ascites refers to the increase in which of the following serous fluids?
a. Pleural
b. Pericardial
c. Parietal
d. Peritoneal

A

d. Peritoneal

200
Q

Helicobacter pylori can be detected in the breath through which of the following tests?
a. C-Urea breath test
b. Hydrogen breath test
c. Alcohol breath test
d. Carbon dioxide breath test

A

a. C-Urea breath test

201
Q

Which of the following is the default setting for centrifugation?
a. 850 to 1000 gravity for 10 minutes
b. 850 to 1000 gravity for 20 minutes
c. 250 to 500 gravity for 10 minutes
d. 250 to 500 gravity for 20 minutes

A

a. 850 to 1000 gravity for 10 minutes

202
Q

Which of the following is obtained after centrifugation of anticoagulated blood?
a. Serum
b. Plasma
c. Buffy coat
d. Aliquot

A

b. Plasma

203
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding centrifugation?
a. Keep all tubes closed and balance the rotor equally
b. Keep the centrifuge covered when operating
c. Observe the centrifuge for any excessive vibration before leaving the area
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

204
Q

For how long can serum or plasma be adequately kept in a refrigerator?
a. 8 hours
b. 24 hours
c. 48 hours
d. 72 hours

A

c. 48 hours

205
Q

For how long can CBC in EDTA microtainers remain at room temperature?
a. 2 hours
b. 4 hours
c. 8 hours
d. 24 hours

A

b. 4 hours

206
Q

Which of the following categories of infectious substances is correctly paired?
a. Category A is life threatening only to animals
b. Category B is life threatening to human and animals
c. Category A is generally not life threatening
d. Category B is generally not life threatening

A

d. Category B is generally not life threatening

207
Q

When shipping laboratory specimens, how should the containers be marked?
a. UN 2814 Biological Substance Category A
b. UN 3373 Biological Substance Category B
c. Class 9 miscellaneous
d. Class 10 miscellaneous

A

b. UN 3373 Biological Substance Category B

208
Q

The laboratory Information systems is capable of which of the following functions?
a. Identifying the patient
b. Automatically informing the nurse and physicians of patient complications
c. Storing archive of a patient’s health records
d. All of the above

A

c. Storing archive of a patient’s health records

209
Q

Which of the following tests requires training, an understanding of the principles and knowledge of instrument calibration?
a. Waived test
b. Provider performed microscopy
c. Moderate complexity
d. High complexity

A

c. Moderate complexity

210
Q

Which of the following is a moderate complexity test?
a. Urine pregnancy test
b. Glycosylated hemoglobin test
c. Capillary blood glucose
d. All of the above

A

b. Glycosylated hemoglobin test

211
Q

CMS may perform inspection and evaluate phlebotomists performance in accordance with which of the following standards?
a. CLIA
b. HIPPA
c. OSHA
d. CAP

A

a. CLIA

212
Q

Waived testing sites are not regularly inspected. Under which of the following circumstances will CMS inspect these sites?
a. To conduct proficiency testing
b. To scout for phlebotomists to be prompted to a moderate complexity site
c. To gather data on waived tests
d. All of the above

A

c. To gather data on waived tests

213
Q

A patient with anemia requires blood glucose testing. You use a glucometer on capillary blood despite the manufacturer’s instructions to test only on patients with normal range hematocrit. This is referred to as which of the following?
a. Negligence
b. Malpractice
c. Off label testing
d. Uncertified testing

A

c. Off label testing

214
Q

An external control determines which of the following?
a. Whether a test is performed properly
b. Whether the electronic functions of the equipment are in working properly
c. Whether the sample size is adequate
d. All of the above

A

a. Whether a test is performed properly

215
Q

Which of the following are ways to troubleshoot an incorrect quality control test?
a. Recheck compliance with manufacturer instructions
b. Visualize the reagent and controls for contamination
c. Check the expiration date
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

216
Q

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding waived testing?
a. Swabs included in the test kits should be used for testing
b. Either dermal puncture or venipuncture whole blood is an appropriate sample
c. Label the test device (strip or cassette) when it requires directly applying the sample
d. A phlebotomist is not authorized to perform a waived test

A

d. A phlebotomist is not authorized to perform a waived test

217
Q

When is a result considered invalid?
a. It does not coincide with the patients clinical presentation
b. Quantitative values are beyond the reference range
c. Test equipment displays high or low
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

218
Q

Which of the following is the next best step when a waived test result is equivocal?
a. Do not report the results. Repeat the test
b. Order a confirmatory test
c. Report the results as is
d. Perform a quality control test

A

b. Order a confirmatory test

219
Q

Whom among the following perform an external quality assessment?
a. Colleages
b. A consultant
c. Proficiency testing program
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

220
Q

You are assigned to collect blood samples for 12 patients in the ward. The patient in bed 8 is unconscious and does not rouse even after a sternal rub. You should do which pf the following?
a. Call for help
b. Begin chest compressions
c. Check their airway for obstruction
d. Check if they are breathing

A

a. Call for help

221
Q

How deep should chest compressions in children be?
a. 1.5 inches
b. 1.5 cm
c. 2 inches
d. 2 cm

A

c. 2 inches

222
Q

The rate of chest compressions should be which of the following?
a. 90 to 100 per minute in adults
b. 100 to 120 per minute in children
c. 110 to 160 per minute in infants
d. All of the above

A

b. 100 to 120 per minute in children

223
Q

Which of the following refers to the laboratory practices designed to guarantee quality patient care?
a. Quality management
b. Quality assessment
c. Quality systems essentials
d. Quality control

A

b. Quality assessment

224
Q

Which of the following organizations develops a set of standards by which every laboratory procedure is measured?
a. The Joint Commission
b. CLSI
c. CLIA
d. CAP

A

b. CLSI

225
Q

Which of the following quality assessment procedures compares a patient’s old test results with current ones?
a. Reference range
b. Critical values
c. Delta check
d. Competency assessment

A

c. Delta check

226
Q

Procedural variables are classified accordingly. Which of the following would a phlebotomist be least involved in?
a. Pre examination variables
b. Examination variables
c. Post examination variables
d. Requisition errors

A

b. Examination variables

227
Q

A description of the principles and purpose for each test can be found in which of the following?
a. Requisition form
b. Electronic hospital records
c. Laboratory reports
d. Procedural manuals

A

d. Procedural manuals

228
Q

Which of the following documents the laboratory’s overall performance?
a. Quality management systems
b. Quality assessment
c. Quality systems essentials
d. Quality control

A

a. Quality management systems

229
Q

Which of the following systems involved in quality management is designed to decrease costs and eliminate wastes to allow the laboratory to perform better with less and increase customer and staff satisfaction?
a. Lean system
b. Six sigma
c. Root cause analysis
d. Nonconforming events

A

a. Lean system

230
Q

A misidentified patient has a hemolytic transfusion reaction. Which of the following should be the laboratory’s next actions?
a. Fire the phlebotomist who extracted the wrong crossmatch sample
b. Fire the nurse who transfused the wrong blood
c. Perform a root cause analysis
d. Report a nonconforming event

A

c. Perform a root cause analysis

231
Q

Which of the following is the deepest layer of the skin?
a. Epidermis
b. Dermis
c. Subcutaneous layer
d. Pericardium

A

c. Subcutaneous layer

232
Q

Which of the following conditions refers to an allergic reaction to irritant substances, like soap, cosmetics, or certain plants?
a. Keloid
b. Impetigo
c. Eczema
d. Dermatitis

A

d. Dermatitis

233
Q

Which of the following is the appropriate remedy when a phlebotomist suffers from allergic contact dermatitis to gloves?
a. They should choose another profession
b. They should use a cotton glove liner
c. They are exempt from using gloves when performing venipuncture
d. They should use powered gloves

A

b. They should use a cotton glove liner

234
Q

Which of the following conditions refers to a pus filled skin infection?
a. Keloid
b. Impetigo
c. Eczema
d. Dermatitis

A

b. Impetigo

235
Q

Which of the following laboratory tests is ordered to determine the extent of muscular damage?
a. Myoglobin
b. Creatinine kinase
c. Lactate dehydrogenase
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

236
Q

Which of the following components of the peripheral nervous system controls involuntary body functions, such as heart rate, breathing, and digestion?
a. Autonomic nervous system
b. Sympathetic nervous system
c. Parasympathetic nervous system
d. Afferent nervous system

A

a. Autonomic nervous system

237
Q

Which of the following laboratory tests is ordered to measure the body pH in a patient with respiratory failure?
a. Arterial blood gas
b. Bronchoalveolar lavage
c. Serum chloride test
d. Complete blood count

A

a. Arterial blood gas

238
Q

Which of the following laboratory tests is paired with its correct clinical correlation?
a. Alkaline phosphate and multiple myeloma
b. Antinuclear antibody and sickle cell disease
c. Vitamin D and cystic fibrosis
d. Lactate dehydrogenase and CNS disorders

A

a. Alkaline phosphate and multiple myeloma

239
Q

Which of the following laboratory tests is used to estimate the kidneys’ function?
a. Glomerular filtration rate
b. Renin
c. Erythropoietin
d. Creatinine

A

d. Creatinine

Phlebotomy 1 (4 decks)

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