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Phlebotomy 1 > Phlebotomy 2 > Flashcards

Phlebotomy 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Barriers to effective communication include all except which of the following?
a. Medial jargon
b. Hearing loss
c. Hand signals
d. the patient speaking only Cantonese

A

c. Hand signals

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2
Q

A patient does not wish to proceed with blood tests. The phlebotomist should do which of the following?
a. Ask the orderly to hold the patient down for the procedure
b. Document this on the requisition form
c. Notify their supervisor immediately
d. Ask their colleague to perform the venipuncture

A

b. Document this on the requisition form

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3
Q

A phlebotomist pretends to be summoned to a celebrity patients room and simply checks on her while recovering from surgery. The phlebotomist could be accused of which of the following?
a. Defamation
b. Invasion of privacy
c. Battey
d. Negligence

A

b. Invasion of privacy

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4
Q

In hand hygiene, alcohol disinfectant is not recommended in case of contact with which bacteria?
a. Clostridium tetani
b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Proteus mirabilis
d. Giardia lamblia

A

a. Clostridium tetani

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5
Q

Which of the following is the proper order for putting PPE?
a. Gloves, face shield, mask
b. Mask, goggles, gloves
c. Face shield, respirator, gown
d. Gown, mask, gloves

A

d. Gown, mask, gloves

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6
Q

According to OSHA guidelines, employers must provide free vaccinations for which of the following conditions?
a. Human papillomavirus
b. HIV
c. HBV
d. HCV

A

c. HBV

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7
Q

Which of the following precaution categories is employed to avoid infections such as influenza, diphtheria, and scarlet fever?
a. Emergency precautions
b. Standard precautions
c. Droplet precautions
d. Airborne precautions

A

c. Droplet precautions

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8
Q

which of the following types of waste refers to parts of the human body that were surgical removed?
a. Pathologic/anatomical
b. Infectious
c. Clinical laboratory
d. Sharp

A

a. Pathologic/anatomical

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9
Q

The human body is organized so that cells group together to perform more complex functions. This structure is called which of the following?
a. Tissue
b. Muscle
c. Organs
d. system

A

a. Tissue

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10
Q

The cornea lies superficially on the eyeball. This means which of the following?
a. The cornea is inside the eyeball
b. The cornea is at the middle of the eyeball
c. The cornea sits directly on the surface of the eyeball
d. The cornea is behind the eyeball

A

c. The cornea sits directly on the surface of the eyeball

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11
Q

Which of the following planes cuts the body into a right and left sections?
a. Frontal
b. Sagittal
c. Midsagittal
d. Transverse

A

b. Sagittal

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12
Q

Which of the following is an artery that goes along the antecubital fossa, with any pulse being felt along the lower edge of the elbow crease?
a. Radial
b. Carotid
c. Brachial
d. Femoral

A

c. Brachial

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13
Q

When the pulse rate is below 60 bpm in adults, it is referred to as which of the following?
a. Bradycardia
b. Tachycardia
c. Arrythmia
d. Bradypnea

A

a. Bradycardia

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14
Q

Which of the following is the term used when the hemoglobin level in the blood is low?
a. Leukemia
b. anemia
c. Leukocytosis
d. Thrombocytosis

A

b. anemia

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15
Q

Which of the following is a condition that happens when the formation of blood clots obstructs the flow of blood vessels?
a. Phlebitis
b. Thrombosis
c. Aneurysm
d. Arteriosclerosis

A

b. Thrombosis

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16
Q

Which of the following blood types is known as the universal donor?
a. A
b. B
c. AB
d. O

A

d. O

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17
Q

Which of the following white blood cells detoxifies foreign proteins and proliferates in response to allergens and parasites?
a. Eosinophil
b. Lymphocyte
c. Monocyte
d. Basophil

A

a. Eosinophil

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18
Q

Which of the following stages of hemostasis is marked by platelet aggregation and the formation of a temporary plug?
a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. fibrin clot
d. Clot lysis

A

a. Primary

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19
Q

When a monocyte is found in the liver tissues, it is often referred to which of the following?
a. Alveolar macrophage
b. Osteoclast
c. Microglia
d. Kupffer cell

A

d. Kupffer cell

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20
Q

Which of the following tests is used to evaluate the function of the intrinsic coagulation pathway?
a. Activated partial thromboplastin time
b. Prothrombin time
c. Thrombin time
d. D-dimer

A

a. Activated partial thromboplastin time

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21
Q

Which of the following tests is used to estimate the extent of fibrinolysis?
a. Activated partial thromboplastin time
b. Prothrombin time
c. Thrombin time
d. D-dimer

A

d. D-dimer

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22
Q

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the difference between arteries and veins?
a. Veins are larger and thicker
b. Arteries are thinner
c. the tunica media of arteries contain less elastic tissue
d. The veins in the lower limbs contain many valves

A

d. The veins in the lower limbs contain many valves

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23
Q

which of the following items are routinely found in a phlebotomist tray?
a. Flashlight
b. Tourniquet
c. Urine cups
d. Dextrose 50% vials

A

b. Tourniquet

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24
Q

When asked to collect blood for a metabolic panel in a patient with small veins, the phlebotomist used a 25 gauge needle, which of the following tests might be affected by this?
a. Serum potassium and magnesium
b. White cell differential counts
c. Blood culture and sensitivity
d. Crossmatching

A

a. Serum potassium and magnesium

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25
Q

which of the following is the advantage of using the ETS?
a. The phlebotomist can control the suction pressure manually
b. It allows the angle of venipuncture to be lower for difficult veins
c. Blood collects directly into the tubes
d. Transfer devices allow for the safe transfer of blood

A

c. Blood collects directly into the tubes

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26
Q

A sample sent to hematology in a lavender top was rejected due to a clot in the tube, which of the following could be the cause of this?
a. The phlebotomist failed to invert the tubes eight times
b. The phlebotomist used an expired tube
c. The phlebotomist had a short draw
d. The phlebotomist did not use a discard tube

A

a. The phlebotomist failed to invert the tubes eight times

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27
Q

which of the following sets of tubes are drawn in the correct order?
a. Red, orange, yellow, green, light blue, lavender
b. Light blue, red, green, lavender, yellow
c. Green, lavender, light blue, orange, red, yellow
d. Lavender, light blue, green, yellow, orange, red

A

b. Light blue, red, green, lavender, yellow

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28
Q

which of the following is the first step of venipuncture?
a. Applying the tourniquet
b. Preparing materials
c. Greeting the patient
d. Obtaining the requisition form

A

d. Obtaining the requisition form

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29
Q

When the patient asks about details of the tests, the phlebotomist should do which of the following?
a. Describe these using medical jargon to impress the patient
b. Tell only the names of the tests to be done
c. Politely inform the patient that this information is best given by their physician
d. Answer all the patients questions about their condition

A

c. Politely inform the patient that this information is best given by their physician

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30
Q

You find out that the patient has not complied with fasting requirements for a blood glucose determination. You should do which of the following?
a. Reprimand the patient
b. Inform the nurse in charge and take the sample
c. Take the sample anyway
d. inform the nurse in charge and stand by for further instructions from the physician

A

d. inform the nurse in charge and stand by for further instructions from the physician

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31
Q

Which of the following is the best time to wear your gloves?
a. In front of the patient
b. Before entering a patients room
c. Only before inserting the needle
d. Only before handling the blood specimen

A

a. In front of the patient

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32
Q

Although this vein is superficial and in the antecubital fossa, it is best to be avoided, It is which of the following veins?
a. Median cubital
b. Basilic
c. Cephalic
d. Axillary

A

b. Basilic

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33
Q

Which of the following happens when the tourniquet is left for longer than one minute?
a. Hemolysis
b. Hemoglobin
c. Hematoma
d. Skin blanching

A

a. Hemolysis

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34
Q

Which of the following is the proper orientation of the tourniquet when properly tied around a patients arm?
a. The free end is facing away from the antecubital fossa
b. The loop touches the antecubital fossa
c. The loop is facing upwards
d. The free end is facing toward the antecubital foss

A

a. The free end is facing away from the antecubital fossa

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35
Q

To ensure the maximal bacteriostatic action of isopropyl alcohol, it is important to do which of the following?
a. wait for 1 minute for the alcohol to dry
b. Puncture the site while it is still wet
c. Fan the site to dry
d. Wipe the site with a cotton pad

A

a. wait for 1 minute for the alcohol to dry

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36
Q

Which of the following gives the phlebotomist the idea that the needle has entered the vein?
a. The resistance on the needle will decrease
b. The resistance on the needle will increase
c. Blood squirts out of the vein
d. A hematoma forms

A

a. The resistance on the needle will decrease

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37
Q

Which of the following is the appropriate way to apply pressure to the puncture site?
a. While the needle is in the vein, use gauze and apply pressure for 1 minutes
b. Ask the patient to hold down the gauze on the site for about 2 to 3 minutes
c. Apply pressure with gauze, then ask the patient to bend their elbow over it
d. Keep pressure on the site for 15 seconds

A

b. Ask the patient to hold down the gauze on the site for about 2 to 3 minutes

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38
Q

when should each specimen be labeled?
a. Immediately after each tube is removed from the ETS holder
b. On your way to the laboratory
c. While you are still with the patient
d. In front of the pneumatic tubes

A

c. While you are still with the patient

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39
Q

Before leaving an admitted patient, the phlebotomist should do which of the following?
a. Thank the patient
b. Return the bed rails
c. Perform hand hygiene
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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40
Q

You are asked to do a venipuncture in the psychiatric ward, Which of the following is a prudent practice in this area?
a. Ask another phlebotomist to accompany you
b. Keep your equipment within the patients reach
c. Ask a nurse to help you reassure these patients
d. wait for a family member to give consent to venipuncture

A

c. Ask a nurse to help you reassure these patients

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41
Q

Is it acceptable to have another person verify the identity of which of the patients?
a. Teenage patient
b. elderly patiente
c. 2 month old patient
d. Combative patient

A

c. 2 month old patient

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42
Q

Pre examination variables affect the integrity of the specimens and alter test results. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. Reference ranges are the same across age and sex
b. Panic attacks may interfere with blood gas levels
c. Following short term exercise, test results are unaffected
d. at higher altitudes, oxygen and hemoglobin levels are lower

A

b. Panic attacks may interfere with blood gas levels

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43
Q

Which of the following is observed when blood is collected too soon after a fatty meal?
a. Hemolysis
b. Lipemia
c. Hemoconcentration
d. Leukemia

A

b. Lipemia

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44
Q

Your patient appears pale, cold and clammy as you are about to perform venipuncture. You should do which of the following?
a. Proceed with the venipuncture
b. Instruct the patient to do distracting actions
c. Allow them to have a sweet drink
d. instruct the patient to close their eyes

A

b. Instruct the patient to do distracting actions

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45
Q

Which of the following tests is affected by prolonged tourniquet application?
a. serum cholesterol
b. Hemoglobin levels
c. Serum potassium
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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46
Q

When a patient has IV fluids in both arms, you can which of the following to ensure a proper specimen?
a. Postpone the venipuncture
b. Ask the nurse to hold the IV infusion and draw blood inferior to this point
c. ask the nurse to hold the IV infusion and draw above this point
d. Use the lower limb veins

A

b. Ask the nurse to hold the IV infusion and draw blood inferior to this point

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47
Q

Which of the following is a suitable method for cleansing the site for an alcohol level blood test?
a. Soap and water
b. Sodium hypochlorite
c. 40% isopropyl alcohol
d. Premoistened tissues

A

a. Soap and water

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48
Q

Which of the following techniques is recommended when no blood collects into the evacuated tubes after puncturing?
a. Retry with a tube requiring a larger volume
b. Remove the needle immediately and reinsert it
c. Probe the needle until there is blood inside the tubes
d. Remove the evacuated tube and pull the needle slowly. When it is already just underneath the skin, rotate the needle about a quarter of a turn

A

d. Remove the evacuated tube and pull the needle slowly. When it is already just underneath the skin, rotate the needle about a quarter of a turn

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49
Q

Nerve damage is the dreaded complication of venipuncture. which of the following are some practices you need to avoid?
a. Probing the needle blindly
b. Sudden movements
c. Inserting in a lateral direction
d. All of above

A

d. All of above

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50
Q

which of the following technical errors leads to a hemolysis formation?
a. Pulling on a syringe plunger
b. Using a 23 gauge needle
c. Inverting the evacuated tubes
c. Applying alcohol cleanser on the site

A

b. Using a 23 gauge needle

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51
Q

On which of the following requested tests would dermal punctures be inappropriate?
a. ESR
b. Blood culture
c. Coagulation tests
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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52
Q

Which of the following statements is correct?
a. Newborn blood inherently resist hemolysis
b. Capillary blood is closer representation of venous sample
c. Warming the area before a dermal puncture increases blood circulation
d. Milking the site increases blood circulation

A

c. Warming the area before a dermal puncture increases blood circulation

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53
Q

All except which of the following equipment is needed for a dermal puncture?
a. Lancets
b. Microtainer tubes
c. Tourniquet
d. All of the above

A

c. Tourniquet

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54
Q

On which sites can a dermal puncture be safely performed on newborns?
a. Third or fourth fingers
b. Earlobes
c. The bottom surface of the heel
d. Back of the heel

A

c. The bottom surface of the heel

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55
Q

A phlebotomist can prevent infections when performing a dermal puncture by doing which of the following?
a. Puncturing too deep to hit the bone
b. Repeating the puncture on a previous site
c. Reusing a lancet
d. Waiting or the alcohol to dry before puncturing

A

d. Waiting or the alcohol to dry before puncturing

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56
Q

For which of the following test is povidone-iodine recommended for cleansing dermal puncture sites?
a. Uric acid
b. Potassium
c. bilirubin
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

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57
Q

Which of the following should be the order of draw to collect for blood smear, complete blood count, and capillary blood glucose?
a. Blood smear, capillary blood glucose, complete blood count
b. capillary blood glucose, blood smear, complete blood count
c. blood smear, complete blood count, capillary blood glucose
d. complete blood count, blood smear, capillary blood glusose

A

b. capillary blood glucose, blood smear, complete blood count

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58
Q

How long must the blood be allowed to air dry before mailing a newborn screening test?
a. 15 minutes
b. 30 minutes
c. 2 hours
d. 3 hours

A

d. 3 hours

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59
Q

Why does the preparation of blood smears take precedence in the order of draw for dermal punctures?
a. To avoid collecting blood with platelet clumps
b. To avoid carry over of additives
c. to avoid hemolysis
d. To ensure the collection of tissue fluid

A

a. To avoid collecting blood with platelet clumps

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60
Q

which of the following is the use of a thin smear for malarial tests?
a. To concentrate the sample to find and detect malarial parasites
b. To identify the morphology of malarial parasites
c. To prevent transmission of blood borne pathogens
d. To use a medium to grow parasites

A

b. To identify the morphology of malarial parasites

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61
Q

The blood culture test results provide the physician with information on which of the following?
a. Positive growth of bacteria
b. Genus and species of bacteria
c. Susceptibility or resistance to antibiotics
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

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62
Q

Which of the following anticoagulants is suitable, as it allows bacteria to grow in blood cultures?
a. EDTA
b. Sodium polyanethol sulfonate
c. Acid citrate dextrose
d. Sodium fluoride

A

b. Sodium polyanethol sulfonate

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63
Q

When is necessary to take a blood culture sample from patients who are already taking antibiotics, special blood culture bottles are available. These can be which of the following?
a. an antimicrobial removal device
b. Fastidious antimicrobial neutralization
c. Polymethylmethacrylate antibiotic beads
d. Only A and B

A

d. Only A and B

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64
Q

which of the following are correct practices before collecting specimens for blood culture?
a. wipe the rubber stoppers with 70% alcohol after uncapping blood culture bottles
b. wipe the rubber stoppers with iodine after uncapping blood culture bottles
c. Do not leave the alcohol pads over these bottles
d. It is unnecessary to cleanse the rubber stoppers of the blood culture bottles

A

a. wipe the rubber stoppers with 70% alcohol after uncapping blood culture bottles

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65
Q

which of the following is the correct blood culture volume requirement for adults?
a. 8 to 10 ml of blood per blood culture tube
b. 1 ml for every 5 kg
c. 1 ml per every 10 lb.
d. 8 to 10 ml of blood, equally divided into two blood culture bottles

A

a. 8 to 10 ml of blood per blood culture tube

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66
Q

A chilled specimen should not be used for which of the following tests?
a. ABG
b. INR
c. ACTH
d. PTH

A

b. INR

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67
Q

Which of the following tests may require a chain of custody form?
a. Blood alcohol
b. Hepatitis panel
c. Serum ammonia
d. newborn screening

A

a. Blood alcohol

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68
Q

Which of the following may cause a falsely high blood alcohol level?
a. Using 70% isopropyl alcohol as skin cleanser
b. Underfilling the grey tube
c. Uncapping the tube before testing
d. Using Zephirin chloride as a skin cleanser

A

a. Using 70% isopropyl alcohol as skin cleanser

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69
Q

Which of the following characteristics would make a volunteer eligible to donate blood?
a. currently taking warfarin
b. currently taking antibiotics
c. previously donated blood 4 weeks ago
d. currently taking antihypertensive medications

A

d. currently taking antihypertensive medications

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70
Q

The blood bag should contain which of the following additives to preserve the blood and prevent clots?
a. Sodium polyanethol sulfonate
b. Citrate phosphate dextrose adenine
c. Acid citrate dextrose
d. Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid

A

b. Citrate phosphate dextrose adenine

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71
Q

which of the following procedures is useful for collecting only platelets from a volunteer?
a. Apheresis
b. venipuncture
c. electrophoresis
d. centrifugation

A

a. Apheresis

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72
Q

A midstream urine specimen is ideal for which of the following tests?
a. Urine culture
b. drug testing
c. urine pregnancy test
d. routine urinalysis

A

a. Urine culture

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73
Q

Which of the following are measures to ensure that urine remains unadulterated for drug testing?
a. adding a blueing agent to the toilet reservoir
b. Removing water sources from the area
c. ensuring the urine temperature i between 32.5⁰C and 37.7⁰C
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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74
Q

The patient is instructed to do which of the following for semen collection?
a. Refrain from sexual activity for 7 days
b. Collect the sample in a condom
c. keep the sample warm
d. bring it to the laboratory 2 hours after collecion

A

c. keep the sample warm

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75
Q

Which of the following statements regarding semen collecting is true?
a. taking note of the time of collection is necessary
b. the patient should refrain from sexual activity for 7 days
c. the sample should be collected only in the laboratory
d. condoms are suitable for semen collection since it is convenient

A

a. taking note of the time of collection is necessary

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76
Q

When assisting with a bone marrow aspiration, which of the following are expected of you?
a. prepare 3 or 4 slides for the core biopsy
b. make 6 to 8 thin smears
c. collect 1-2 ml of bone marrow in EDTA and heparin-containing tubes
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

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77
Q

Amniotic fluid can be used on which of the following test?
a. Alpha-fetoprotein
b. bilirubin
c. all of the above
d. none of the above

A

c. all of the above

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78
Q

Which of the following CSF tubes is correctly paired with its intended department?
a. Tube 1 for microbiology
b. Tube 2 for immunoserology
c. Tube 3 for microbiology
d. Tube 4 for immunoserology

A

c. Tube 3 for microbiology

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79
Q

Synovial fluid should be collected in which of the following tubes to evaluate crystals?
a. Gray tubes
b. Lavender tubes
c. Yellow tubes
d. Red tubes

A

b. Lavender tubes

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80
Q

Which of the following types of serous fluid is increased by heart failure?
a. Pleural
b. Pericardial
c. Parietal
d. Peritoneal

A

b. Pericardial

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81
Q

The breath can be analyzed for the presence of which of the following conditions?
a. Alcohol intoxication
b. Helicobacter pylori
c. Lactose intolerance
d. all of the a above

A

d. all of the a above

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82
Q

which of the following is less invasive specimen for testing HIV antibodies?
a. Saliva
b. Buccal swab
c. Hair
d. Dermal puncture

A

a. Saliva

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83
Q

Diagnosis of lactose intolerance from the breath involves which of the following?
a. An 8 hour fast for a hydrogen breath test
b. Hydrogen level being serially measured every 15 minutes for one hour
c. Decreasing levels of hydrogen in the balloon, indicating lactose intolerance
d. The patient breathing into a balloon device to measure a baseline hydrogen level

A

d. The patient breathing into a balloon device to measure a baseline hydrogen level

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84
Q

Which of the following is obtained after the centrifugation of clotted blood?
a. Serum
b. Plasma
c. Buffy coat
d. Aliquot

A

a. Serum

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85
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding centrifugation?
a. A clotted tube may be rimmed to allow better separation of serum
b. A Specimen may be repeatedly centrifugated only 2 times
c. Specimen for a whole blood analysis should not be centrifugated
d. Centrifugation may be completed 2 hours after receiving the specimen

A

c. Specimen for a whole blood analysis should not be centrifugated

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86
Q

How long can serum or plasma de adequately kept at room temperature?
a. 8 hours
b. 24 hours
c. 48 hours
d. 72 hours

A

a. 8 hours

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87
Q

How long can a CBC in EDTA tubes remain at room temperature?
a. 2 hours
b. 4 hours
c. 8 hours
d. 24 hours

A

d. 24 hours

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88
Q

How long can glucose count specimens in sodium fluoride tubes be refrigerated?
a. 12 hours
b. 24 hours
c. 48 hours
d. 72 hours

A

c. 48 hours

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89
Q

You should package laboratory specimens to be shipped in public transport in which of the following ways?
a. In a pneumatic tube capsule
b. In a triple packaging
c. In a double packaging
d. In a biohazard bag

A

b. In a triple packaging

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90
Q

Which of the following functions is the laboratory information systems capable of?
a. telling you whether a specimen has already been received in the laboratory
b. Viewing the patients results
c. Billing for laboratory services
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

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91
Q

All except which of the following are waived tests according to CLIA?
a. Covid-19 rapid antigen test
b. Glucometer test
c. Urine pregnancy test
d. Blood culture

A

d. Blood culture

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92
Q

which of the following is a provider performed microscopy procedure?
a. Covid 19 antigen test
b. urine microscopy
c. blood culture and sensitivity
d. complete blood count

A

b. urine microscopy

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93
Q

Which of the following organizations implements guidelines to prevent infections?
a. CLIA
b. CMS
c. OSHA
d. CAP

A

c. OSHA

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94
Q

Which of the following are specific rules designed for the conduction of a test kit?
a. manufacturer instructions
b. Manual of procedures.
c. Laboratory policies
d. All of the above

A

a. manufacturer instructions

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95
Q

Quality control ascertains the correctness of test results. Which of the following situations prompts quality control testing?
a. when a test shows a result within the range
b. After receiving a new shipment of test reagents
c. After performing 100 tests of the same lot number
d. every other day

A

b. After receiving a new shipment of test reagents

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96
Q

A waived testing can be performed on which of the following samples?
a. anticoagulated blood
b. serum
c. nasopharyngeal swabs
d. Only A and C

A

d. Only A and C

97
Q

Reading a test kit too early causes an invalid or false negative test because of which of the following?
a. test sample and reagent have not competed their chemical reaction
b. Colors are underdeveloped or faded
c. The reaction moves beyond the visible window
d. Colors overdevelop

A

a. test sample and reagent have not competed their chemical reaction

98
Q

Which of the following statements is correct?
a. qualitative records may be written in symbols (“-“ for negative and “+” for positive)
b. Units may be omitted when recording quantitative values
c. Invalid results are recorded along with the results of the repeat test
d. Copies of test reports may be shared with anyone who requests them

A

d. Copies of test reports may be shared with anyone who requests them

99
Q

Which of the following is a notifiable disease?
a. Covid-19
b. Tuberculosis
c. Bacillus anthracis
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

100
Q

When a patient does not respond to politely waking them up from sleep, the phlebotomist should do which of the following?
a. Immediately perform a sternal rub
b. Immediately give chest compressions
c. Immediately shake the patient or try to rouse them with loud noises
d. Immediately call the nurse for help

A

c. Immediately shake the patient or try to rouse them with loud noises

101
Q

Which of the following is the appropriate time to begin chest compressions?
a. When a patient does not react to sternal rub
b. When a patient is unresponsive and not breathing
c. When a patient has a foreign object lodged in their airway
d. When a patient has no pulse

A

b. When a patient is unresponsive and not breathing

102
Q

The number of rescue breaths if there are multiple responders should be which of the following?
a. One every 5 seconds
b. One every 6 seconds
c. Two breaths per 120 compressions
d. Two breaths per minute

A

b. One every 6 seconds

103
Q

Which of the following statements regarding cardiopulmonary resuscitation in adults is correct?
a. Place both hands interlaced on the patients lower abdomen
b. Using the heel of the hand, push on the sternum to depress it at least 2 inches
c. The rate should be in a range of 110 to 160 per minute
d. All of the above

A

b. Using the heel of the hand, push on the sternum to depress it at least 2 inches

104
Q

Which of the following forms the foundation of a quality management system?
a. Quality management
b. Quality assessment
c. Quality systems essentials
d. Quality Control

A

c. Quality systems essentials

105
Q

The Joint Commission ensures that each laboratory is providing quality care and adhering to which of the following?
a. National Patient Safety Goals
b. Occupational Safety and health Administration standards
c. CLSI Standards
d. CLIA standards

A

a. National Patient Safety Goals

106
Q

which of the following is the most critical error in the laboratory?
a. Short draw
b. Misidentification of a patient
c. Mislabeling of specimen
d. Improper handling of the specimen

A

b. Misidentification of a patient

107
Q

Important components of a laboratory report include all except which of the following?
a. Patient ID number
b. date and time of collection and results
c. type of specimen
d. name of the nurse in charge of the patient

A

d. name of the nurse in charge of the patient

108
Q

Errors in identifying a patient whose serum electrolytes are being monitored every 12 hours can be detected by which of the following?
a. Reference range
b. Critical values
c. Delta Check
d. Auto verification

A

c. Delta Check

109
Q

Maintaining a nonconforming event involves which of the following?
a. Identifying issues within the laboratory workflow processes
b. Implementing changes to these processes and procedures
c. Investigating and removing the causes of these nonconforming events
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

110
Q

Which of the following tools investigates sentinel events?
a. Lean system
b. Six sigma
c. Root cause analysis
d. Nonconforming events

A

c. Root cause analysis

111
Q

which of the following pieces of legislation are you violating by showing the patients diagnosis to her worried son without her consent?
a. CLIA
b. HIPPA
c. OSHA
d. CAP

A

b. HIPPA

112
Q

How many attempts is the phlebotomist allowed when encountering a difficult venipuncture?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. four

A

b. Two

113
Q

Which of the following laboratory tests can detect a complication of renal failure wherein blood contains too much metabolic vessels?
a. Creatinine
b. BUN
c. urianalysis
d. electrolytes

A

b. BUN

114
Q

which of the following laboratory tests is paired with its correct clinical correlations?
a. Creatinine and liver disease
b. Cortisol and Cushings disease
c. Pap smear and pregnancy
d. TSH and acromegaly

A

b. Cortisol and Cushings disease

115
Q

which of the following conditions causes excruciating abdominal pain and may be due to excessive alcohol intake, gallbladder stones, cancer, or complication from surgery?
a. Cholecystitis
b. Cholangitis
c. Gastroenteritis
d. Pancreatitis

A

d. Pancreatitis

116
Q

Which of the following is a contagious, notifiable, chronic infection due to Mycobacteria causing respiratory problems?
a. Pulmonary tuberculosis
b. Pertussis
c. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
d. Cystic fibrosis

A

a. Pulmonary tuberculosis

117
Q

Which of the following hormones produced in the kidneys signals the bone marrows to produce red blood cells?
a. renin
b. aldosterone
c. angiotensin
d. erythropoietin

A

d. erythropoietin

118
Q

Which of the following bacteria is correctly paired with the sexually transmitted disease it can cause?
a. Chlamydia trachomatis (chlamydia)
b. Treponema pallidum (syphilis)
c. Trichomonas vaginalis (trichomoniasis)
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

119
Q

Which of the following forms most of the blood and is mostly water with some dissolved substances?
a. Plasma
b. white blood cells
c. hemoglobin
d. erythrocytes

A

a. Plasma

120
Q

A phlebotomist encounters an irate patient who refuses blood extraction. He threatens the patient that he will have someone hold him down. The phlebotomist is committing which of the following?
a. Negligence
b. Defamation
c. Malpractice
d. Assault

A

d. Assault

121
Q

as a phlebotomist, you should always display professional behavior in the facility, such as which of the following?
a. Keeping requisitions in disarray at the end of your shift; after all, the next shift can take care of it
b. wearing a lot of cologne
c. Announcing your name with a smile as you enter the patients room
d. wearing an unwashed and wrinkled lab coat

A

c. Announcing your name with a smile as you enter the patients room

122
Q

Being sensitive to cultural diversity is a desirable professional trait in the health care staff. A phlebotomist can respond appropriately by doing which of the following?
a. Stereotyping first before proceeding with the venipuncture
b. Asking politely first before proceeding with the venipuncture
c. examining the patients arm very quickly
d. Invading the patient’s personal space

A

b. Asking politely first before proceeding with the venipuncture

123
Q

Risk management is to reduce risks to protect the interests of which of the following?
a. patients
b. employers
c. healthcare staff
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

124
Q

As the Occupational Safety and Health administration prescribes, the phlebotomist must wear which of the following?
a. Dangling jewelry
b. Personal protective equipment
c. Long nail extensions
d. Hard hat and reflective gear

A

b. Personal protective equipment

125
Q

Blood borne pathogens may be transmitted through which of the following modes of exposure?
a. mucous membranes around the eyes
b. Lesions on the skin
c. puncture from a used needle
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

126
Q

The centers for disease control and prevention recommends hand hygiene in which of the following scenarios?
a. Before performing an aseptic procedure (such as insertion of a catheter)
b. Before touching the patient
c. After removing gloves
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

127
Q

which of the following is a disinfecting agent to clean surfaces contaminated with blood?
a. Acetic acid
b. Sodium hypochlorite
c. Salicylic acid
d. Hydrogen peroxide

A

b. Sodium hypochlorite

128
Q

Body systems are made up of a few organs that coordinate perform interrelated functions. One example is which of the following?
a. Integument
b. Muscle
c. heart
d. keratin

A

a. Integument

129
Q

The frontal lobe is located anterior to the parietal lobes of the brain. This means that the frontal lobe is which of the following?
a. Beside the parietal lobes
b. behind the parietal lobes
c. On the surface of the parietal lobes
d. At the front of the parietal lobes

A

d. At the front of the parietal lobes

130
Q

Which of the following planes cuts through vertically into equal right and left sections?
a. frontal
b. sagittal
c. midsagittal
d. transverse

A

c. midsagittal

131
Q

The forearm is located distally from the arm. This means which of the following?
a. The forearm is nearer to the center of the body than the arm
b. The forearm is farther from the center of the body than the arm
c. The forearm sits directly on the surface of the arm
d. The forearm is behind the arm

A

b. The forearm is farther from the center of the body than the arm

132
Q

Which of the following is an artery that runs along the lateral side of the wrist? A specific pulse is felt on the ventral surface of the wrist below the thumb.
a. radial
b. carotid
c. superior vena cava
d. inferiror vena cava

A

a. radial

133
Q

Which of the following is not a vein in the antecubital fossa of the forearm?
a. Median cubital
b. Cephalic
c. Bicipital
d. Basilic

A

c. Bicipital

134
Q

Which of the following is the process describing the formation of blood clots whenever a blood vessel is damaged?
a. Hemostasis
b. Homeostasis
c. Hemophilia
d. Hemostat

A

a. Hemostasis

135
Q

How do we determine the persons blood type?
a. By conducting a blood transfusion procedure
b. By identifying how much blood a person has
c. By identifying the presence of antigens in the blood
d. By conducting a random antigen test

A

c. By identifying the presence of antigens in the blood

136
Q

which of the following blood types is known as the universal receiver?
a. A
b. B
c. AB
d. O

A

c. AB

137
Q

which of the following white blood cells is responsible for the histamine response during inflammatory processes?
a. Eosinophil
b. Lymphocyte
c. Monocyte
d. Basophil

A

d. Basophil

138
Q

Which of the following stages of hemostasis is being evaluated by a platelet count?
a. Primary
b. secondary
c. fibrin clot
d. clot lysis

A

a. Primary

139
Q

Which of the following stages of hemostasis is characterized by the retraction of the tightening of the clot?
a. Primary
b. secondary
c. fibrin clot
d. Clot lysis

A

c. fibrin clot

140
Q

Which of the following conditions refers to an increase in the number of white blood cells, such as during infections?
a. Leukemia
b. Leukocytosis
c. Polycythemia
d. Thrombocytosis

A

b. Leukocytosis

141
Q

Which of the following vessels is suitable for the exchange of nutrients, wastes, and gases?
a. Veins
b. Arteries
c. Arterioles
d. Capillaries

A

d. Capillaries

142
Q

Which of the following needles has the largest diameter?
a. 21 gauge
b. 18 gauge
c. 23 gauge
d. 16 gauge

A

d. 16 gauge

143
Q

When are butterfly needles used for venipuncture?
a. Finger punctures
b. Dermal punctures
c. Adults with large veins
d. Adults with very small veins

A

d. Adults with very small veins

144
Q

Skin cleansers are used to prevent bacterial contamination on the venipuncture sites. Which of the following antiseptics is better suited for blood culture collection?
a. Povidone iodine
b. 70% isopropyl alcohol
c. Soap and water
d. Sodium hypochlorite

A

a. Povidone iodine

145
Q

The purpose of the tourniquet in venipuncture is which of the following?
a. To constrict arteries
b. To occlude blood flow to the veins
c. To make the veins harder
d. To collapse the veins

A

b. To occlude blood flow to the veins

146
Q

Underfilling which of the following tubes leads to falsely elevated APTT levels?
a. Lavender
b. Light green
c. Light blue
d. Yellow

A

c. Light blue

147
Q

which of the following information should be on a requisition form?
a. Patient ID number
b. The requesting physicians name and signature
c. Test(s) requested
d. All of above

A

d. All of above

148
Q

When meeting the patient, the phlebotomist is required to do which of the following?
a. Describe the procedure using medical jargon to impress the patient
b. Inform the patient of the names of the tests to be done
c. Explain that they are going to collect specimens requested by the physician
d. Answer all the patients questions about their condition

A

c. Explain that they are going to collect specimens requested by the physician

149
Q

You should position the patients arm in which of the following ways to facilitate proper venipuncture?
a. The elbow hyperextended
b. The arm downward and extended
c. The elbow bent at a 90⁰ angle
d. The arms remaining at the side while the patient is standing

A

b. The arm downward and extended

150
Q

You are about to draw blood for venipuncture from a seated patient when he tells you he is feeling a little lightheaded. you should do which of the following?
a. Reassure him that the needle is very small; it should be painless
b. Act as though you did not hear him
c. Allow the patient to lie down for the procedure
d. None of the above

A

c. Allow the patient to lie down for the procedure

151
Q

Which of the following is the best vein to use for venipuncture?
a. Median cubital
b. Basilic
c. Cephalic
d. Axillary

A

a. Median cubital

152
Q

which of the following is an indication of the use of tourniquet?
a, It allows the veins to distend and helps with locating the venipuncture
b. It makes blood collection easier, as blood has been allowed to pool
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A or B

A

c. Both A and B

153
Q

All except which of the following describes correctly palpating the vein?
a. Feeling for a pulse using the thumb
b. Feeling for depth
c. Feeling for the orientation of the vein
d. feeling for a spongy and cylindrical surface using the index finger

A

a. Feeling for a pulse using the thumb

154
Q

which of the following is the proper way to cleanse the venipuncture site?
a. Applying alcohol in a to and fro motion
b. Applying alcohol in a circular motion
c. Fanning the site to dry
d. Wiping the site with a cotton pad

A

a. Applying alcohol in a to and fro motion

155
Q

For a successful venipuncture procedure, you can prevent a vein from rolling by doing which of the following?
a. Tightening the tourniquet
b. Keeping the skin taut by pulling it about one to 2 inches below and slightly lateral to the site
c. Anchoring the vein with your thumb and index finger above the site
d. Using a 25 gauge needle

A

b. Keeping the skin taut by pulling it about one to 2 inches below and slightly lateral to the site

156
Q

How should you discard the contaminated ETS and needle after venipuncture?
a. Disassemble, discard needles in the sharps bin and the holder in the biohazard bin
b. Disassemble, discard needles in the sharps bin, keep the holder for the next patient
c. Discard the entire ETS needle and holder in the sharps bin
d. Recap the needle and dispose of it in the sharp bin

A

c. Discard the entire ETS needle and holder in the sharps bin

157
Q

How long is the ideal time for a coagulation assay specimen to reach the laboratory?
a. 2 hours
b. 1 hour
c. 45 minutes
d. 30 minutes

A

c. 45 minutes

158
Q

which of the following statements on the consequences of improper transport is correct?
a. Glycolysis causes Falsey low blood glucose values
b. Hemolysis causes falsely low serum potassium values
c. Coagulation factors are not affected by storing at room temperature
d. Light does not affect bilirubin samples

A

a. Glycolysis causes Falsey low blood glucose values

159
Q

You arrive at a patients room to do a routine venipuncture, but she is not in her bed. The nurse informs you that the patient was taken to the operating room an hour ago. Which of the following actions is appropriate?
a. Find the patient in the operating room to draw the venipuncture
b. Postpone the procedure, leave the requisition with the nurse
c. Cancel the test and note it to the requisition slip
d. inform the phlebotomy supervisor

A

b. Postpone the procedure, leave the requisition with the nurse

160
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding the removal of PPE?
a. When removing PPE, the less contaminated items must be removed
b. Do not touch the inside parts of the gloves and gowns
c. Discard each item of PPE as you remove it
d. After removing PPE, discard all items altogether

A

c. Discard each item of PPE as you remove it

161
Q

Which of the following techniques may be employed to make the veins more prominent?
a. Massage the patients arm from the shoulder to the wrist
b. Apply a warm compress for 5 minutes
c. Apply a cold compress for 5 minutes
d. Briskly tap on the vein with your index fingers

A

b. Apply a warm compress for 5 minutes

162
Q

Pre examination variables are those that affect the integrity of the specimens and alter test results. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. Reference ranges are the same across age and sex
b. Pregnant women have decreased erythrocyte sedimentation counts
c. Smoking decreases hemoglobin and red cell count
d. TSH and cortisol levels are affected by the time of day

A

d. TSH and cortisol levels are affected by the time of day

163
Q

Your patient fainted after you performed venipuncture at the outpatient laboratory. You should do which of the following?
a. Use the spirit of ammonia to review them
b. recline and lower their head
c. apply a warm compress to their forehead and nape
d. restrain them

A

b. recline and lower their head

164
Q

Permission from the physician must be obtained when attempting to collect blood from which of the following?
a. pediatric patients
b. diabetic patients
c. lower limb veins
d. veins with IV fluid

A

c. lower limb veins

165
Q

which of the following is a potential complication when drawing blood on the arm on the same side as a recent mastectomy?
a. Lymphedema
b. Sclerosis
c. Hemoconcentration
d. Hemolysis

A

a. Lymphedema

166
Q

which of the following is a suitable method for cleansing the site for an alcohol level blood test?
a. Benzalkonium chloride
b. Sodium hypochlorite
c. 40% isopropyl alcohol
d. Premoistened tissues

A

a. Benzalkonium chloride

167
Q

Which of the following can be the result of pulling a syringe plunger too hard and too fast?
a. The specimen is hemoconcentrated
b. The vein collapses
c. The patient complains of an electric sensation
d. the patient bleeds longer

A

b. The vein collapses

168
Q

Longer time may be required to apply pressure on which of the following patients?
a. Hypertensive patients
b. Hemodialysis patients
c. Patients taking herbal medications
d. Obese patients taking

A

c. Patients taking herbal medications

169
Q

which of the following instances can cause a specimen to be rejected?
a. Plasma with a reddish tint
b. Transporting a bilirubin specimen covered in foil
c. Incompletely filled SST
d. A clot forming in the red tube

A

a. Plasma with a reddish tint

170
Q

On which patient population is a dermal puncture appropiate?
a. neonates
b. pediatric patients (up to 24 months old)
c. patients on glucose monitoring
d. all of the above

A

b. pediatric patients (up to 24 months old)

171
Q

Drawing too much blood from an infant may cause which of the following?
a. iatrogenic anemia
b. vasospasm
c. infections
d. inflamation

A

a. iatrogenic anemia

172
Q

Capillary blood contains lower levels of which of the following analytes?
a. Potassium
b. Calcium
c. Protein
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

173
Q

a dermal puncture that is too deep risks which of the following?
a. osteomyelitis
b. Osteoporosis
c. Osteochondritis
d. Both a and c

A

d. Both a and c

174
Q

Puncturing an improper site on the neonate’s heel can cause which of the following?
a. additional agitation to the infant
b. insufficient blood volume
c. hemolysis
d. accidental puncture of the calcaneus

A

d. accidental puncture of the calcaneus

175
Q

which of the following is the optimal way to warm the heel before dermal puncture?
a. warm towel at 42⁰ C for 5 minutes
b. warm towel at 42⁰ C for 15 minutes
c. Heel warmer for 2 minutes
d. Heel warmer for 10 minutes

A

a. warm towel at 42⁰ C for 5 minutes

176
Q

which of the following techniques will allow you to collect more blood from a dermal puncture?
a. milking the site
b. squeezing the site tightly
c. applying alternative pressure
d. performing multiple puncture

A

c. applying alternative pressure

177
Q

Which of the following is a disease detected from a capillary blood sample blotted on a filter paper?
a. Phenylketonuria
b. Hartup disease
c. Malaria
d. Jaundice

A

a. Phenylketonuria

178
Q

Collecting a new born screen sample before the alcohol has completely dried causes which of the following?
a. inadequate sample
b. serum rings to form
c. diluted samples
d. oversturation

A

b. serum rings to form

179
Q

Standard precautions are observed when preparing a peripheral blood smear. When does a blood smear cease first being infectious?
a. When it has completely dried
b. When it is fixed with alcohol
c. When it is spread on the slide
d. When it is been autoclaved

A

b. When it is fixed with alcohol

180
Q

which of the following refers to the presence of bacteria in the bloodstream?
a. sepsis
b. bacteremia
c. meningitis
d. allergy

A

b. bacteremia

181
Q

When asked to collect a blood culture before giving STAT antibiotics, how should the blood sets be collected?
a. Two sets of blood 30 minutes apart
b. Two sets of blood before and after antibiotics started
c. at the same time from one venipuncture site
d. at the same time from two venipuncture sites

A

d. at the same time from two venipuncture sites

182
Q

When using a syringe collection system, which of the following is correct?
a. the anaerobic bottle is filled first
b. the aerobic bottle is filled first
c. the volume of the blood to be collected is decreased
d. either bottle can be filled first

A

a. the anaerobic bottle is filled first

183
Q

which of the following is a suitable cleansing method before blood culture?
a. two step method with chlorhexidine gluconate and povidone iodine
b. soaking the skin in a 2% tincture of iodine for 30 minutes
c. 70% isopropyl alcohol scrubbed in a circular motion alone
d. Chlora prep swabs to scrub the site using a to and fro motion alone

A

d. Chlora prep swabs to scrub the site using a to and fro motion alone

184
Q

which of the following is the correct blood culture volume requirement for children?
a. 8 to 10 ml of blood per blood culture bottle
b. 1 ml for every 5 kg
c 1 ml for every 5 pounds
d. children who weigh over 25 kg ‘collect as much specimen as from an adult

A

b. 1 ml for every 5 kg

185
Q

Specimens for which of the following test are collected in a 37⁰C tubes and should be kept warm?
a. warm agglutinins
b. cryofibrinogen
c. arterial blood gas
d. bilirubin

A

b. cryofibrinogen

186
Q

Specimens for which of the following tests should be collected in amber colored bottles?
a. vitamin A
b. vitamin B6
c. vitamin b12
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

187
Q

when collecting samples for blood alcohol levels, the site is ideally cleansed with which of the following?
a. 70 % isopropyl alcohol
b. Zephirin chloride
c. Povidone iodine
d. Chlora prep swabs

A

b. Zephirin chloride

188
Q

Which of the following characteristic would make a volunteer not eligible to donate blood?
a. 23 year old
b. weight of 68 kg
c. donated blood 10 weeks ago
d. a pulse of 115 bpm

A

d. a pulse of 115 bpm

189
Q

Donor units are routinely tested for the presence of which of the following blood borne pathogens?
a. Trypanosoma cruzi
b. treponema pallidum
c. west Nile virus
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

190
Q

The ideal skin cleansing procedure for donor blood collection involves which of the following?
a. Two step method with chlorhexidine gluconate and povidone iodine
b. two step method with soap and water followed by chlorhexidine gluconate or povidone iodine
c. 70% isopropyl alcohol scrubbed in a circular motion for 30 seconds
d. Chlora prep swabs to scrub the site using a to and fro motion for 30 seconds.

A

b. two step method with soap and water followed by chlorhexidine gluconate or povidone iodine

191
Q

Following a successful blood donation, volunteers should be instructed to do which of the following?
a. Drink plenty of fluids
b. Avoid strenuous activities
c. remove the bandage after 4 hours
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

192
Q

The volume of urine required for drug testing is which of the following?
a. 15 to 30 ml
b. 20 to 25 ml
c. 30 to 45 ml
d. 35 to 50 ml

A

c. 30 to 45 ml

193
Q

The volume of blood collected in a blood bag is which of the following?
a. 305 to 395 ml
b. 405 to 495 ml
c. 450 to 500 ml
d. 350 to 400 ml

A

b. 405 to 495 ml

194
Q

all except which of the following statements regarding semen collection are true?
a. taking note of the time of collection is necessary
b. the patient should refrain from sexual activity for 3 days
c. the sample should be collected only in the laboratory
d. condoms are not suitable for semen collection

A

c. the sample should be collected only in the laboratory

195
Q

The correct method of collecting a throat swab involves which of the following?
a. directing the swab straight to the back of the throat
b. directing the swab to the cheeks, tongue and back of the throat
c. avoiding areas with inflammation or ulceration
d. all of above

A

a. directing the swab straight to the back of the throat

196
Q

Which of the following specimens may be used to investigate hemolytic disease or genetic disease or ascertain fetal lung maturity?
a. amniotic fluid
b. synovial fluid
c. cerebrospinal fluid
d. serous fluid

A

a. amniotic fluid

197
Q

For CSF collection, the needle is inserted at this level of the lumbar vertebrae
a. Between L1 and L2
b. Between L2 and L3
c. between L4 and L5
d. Between L5 and L6

A

c. between L4 and L5

198
Q

Which of the following statements is correct?
a. Tubes for chemistry and immunology are kept at room temperature
b. Tubes for microbiology are refrigerated
c. Tubes for hematology should be analyzed with an hour
d. Tubes for cytology are frozen

A

c. Tubes for hematology should be analyzed with an hour

199
Q

Which of the following type of serous fluids is increased by tuberculosis?
a. pleural
b. pericardial
c. parietal
d. peritoneal

A

a. pleural

200
Q

when is the best time to collect sputum?
a. Right after a meal
b. Right after waking up in the morning
c. Right before going to bed
d. Right after smoking

A

b. Right after waking up in the morning

201
Q

Detection of H pylori from he breath involves which of the following?
a. H pylori produces carbonase, which degrades C-urea
b. The patient ingests c-urea, which is radioactive carbon isotope
c. hydrogen level is serially measured every 15 minutes over 3 to 5 hours
d. Increased carbon dioxide level in the second sample indicates H pylori infection

A

d. Increased carbon dioxide level in the second sample indicates H pylori infection

202
Q

Which of the following refers to a part of a specimen transferred to another tube?
a. Serum
b. Plasma
c. Buffy coat
d. Aliquot

A

d. Aliquot

203
Q

Which of the following is ideal temperature for storing serum or plasma, which cannot be tested after 8 hours?
a. 27* C
b. 10* C
c. -20* C
d. 7* C

A

d. 7* C

204
Q

For how long can an APT specimen remain at room temperature?
a. 2 hours
b. 4 hours
c. 8 hours
d. 24 hours

A

B. 4 hours

205
Q

For how long can reticulocyte count specimens in EDTA tubes be refrigerated?
a. 12 hours
b. 24 hours
c. 48 hours
d. 72 hours

A

d. 72 hours

206
Q

Which of the following categories of infectious substances does Bacillus anthracis fall under?
a. Category A
b. Category B
c. Category C
d. Category D

A

a. Category A

207
Q

When shipping laboratory specimens, the label Class 9 Miscellaneous indicates which of the following?
a. The contents are Category A
b. The contents are Category B
c. The contents are packed in dry ice
d. The contents are packed with refrigerated packs

A

c. The contents are packed in dry ice

208
Q

Which of the following is a series of black and white lines that facilitate data entry automatically inputting information?
a. Barcodes
b. Radio frequency ID
c. Silicon chips
d. CPT codes

A

a. Barcodes

209
Q

Which of the following procedures utilizes complex instrumentation and interpretation that require higher levels of understanding? The performance of these tests is subjected to proficiency testing. An example is blood culture and antibiotic sensitivity testing
a. Waived test
b. Provider performed microscopy
c. Moderate complexity
d. High complexity

A

d. High complexity

210
Q

Which of the following is a high complexity test?
a. Urine pregnancy test
b. Glycosylated hemoglobin test
c. Blood culture and sensitivity
d. Complete blood count

A

c. Blood culture and sensity

211
Q

Which of the following organizations inspects laboratories regularly to ensure they comply with the standards?
a. CLIA
b. CMS
c. OSHA
d. CAP

A

b. CMS

212
Q

When performing test from a new shipment of test kits, you should do which of the following?
a. Read the enclosed instructions
b. Discard the enclosed instructions
c. Refer to the old instructions posted on your workspace
d. Ask your supervisor

A

a. Read the enclosed instructions

213
Q

An internal or procedural control determines which of the following?
a. Whether a test is working properly
b. Whether the electronic functions of the equipment are working properly
c. Whether the sample size is adequate
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

214
Q

Quality control ascertains the correctness of test results.
Which of the following situations prompts quality control testing?
a. When a test shows an invalid result
b. After a power outage
c. After hiring new staff to perform the test
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

215
Q

A waived testing can be performed on which of the following samples?
a. Whole blood
b. Urine
c. Saliva
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

216
Q

Improperly timing a test leads to false results. Reading a result after the indicated time causes an invalid result under which of the following conditions?
a. Test sample and reagent have not completed their chemical reactions
b. Colors under-develop or are faded
c. The reaction moves beyond the visible window
d. Colors overdevelop

A

c. The reaction moves beyond the visible window

217
Q

Which of the following is a test result that demands the immediate attention of the physician?
a. Red flag
b. Panic value
c. Abnormal results
d. STAT test

A

b. Panic value

218
Q

A positive test result for which of the following conditions requieres mandatory reporting to public health authorities?
a. Notifiable disease
b. Confirmatory test
c. Critical values
d. Quality control test

A

a. Notifiable disease

219
Q

When a patient does not respond to stimuli, such as loud noise, shaking, or punching their earlobe, the phlebotomist should attempt which of the following?
a. A Sternal rub
b. A needle prick
c. Chest compressions
d. Calling for help

A

a. A sternal rub

220
Q

Which of the following lists the correct order of steps for an initial survey?
a. Call for help and check the patients airway and breathing
b. Call for help, begin chest compressions and check airway and breathing
c. Call for help, check for bleeding and check airway and breathing
d. Check airway and breathing, call for help, and begin compressions

A

a. Call for help and check the patients airway and breathing

221
Q

The depth of chest compressions in infants should be?
a. 1.5 inches
b. 1.5 cm
c. 2 inches
d. 2 cm

A

a. 1.5 inches

222
Q

Which of the following statements regarding cardiopulmonary resuscitation in infants is correct?
a. Place two fingers on the infants sternum, just below the level of the nipple
b. Using the heel of one hand, push on the sternum to depress it at least 2 inches
c. The rate should be in a range of 110 to 160 per minute
d. All of the above

A

a. Place two fingers on the infants sternum, just below the level of the nipples

223
Q

Which of the following should a phlebotomist perform when receiving a new shipment of evacuated tubes?
a. Quality management
b. Quality assessment
c. Quality systems essentials
d. Quality control

A

d. Quality control

224
Q

The national safety patient goals of the laboratory includes which of the following?
a. Three method verification for accurately identifying the patient
b. Labeling specimen containers immediately after leaving the patient
c. Informing the right staff of critical values
d. All of above

A

c. Informing the right staff of critical values

225
Q

A new phlebotomist has forgotten to extract a routine serum electrolyte test on one patient. A nurse brought this to the laboratory’s attention when the test was missing from the reported results. The laboratory should do which of the following?
a. Fire the phlebotomist
b. Repeat the venipuncture during the next sweep
c. immediately perform the test as STAT
d. Make up the results

A

c. Immediately perform the test as STAT

226
Q

Which of the following is correct when documenting in the patient’s chart?
a. Writing using a pencil
b. Using your own abbreviations
c. Deleting electronic records
d. Signing your initials with the date and time of collection

A

d. Signing your initials with the date and time of collection

227
Q

Which of the following is the main goal of quality management systems?
a. Reduce medical errors
b. improve employee working conditions
c. Increase efficiency
d. all of the above

A

a. Reduce medical errors

228
Q

Which of the following evaluate quality systems essentials in phlebotomy?
a. quality indicators
b. quality assessment
c. quality management
d. quality control

A

a. quality indicators

229
Q

which of the following systems involved in quality management aims to reduce errors to the acceptable level of 3-4 defects for every million opportunities?
a. Lean system
b. Six sigma
c. Root cause analysis
d. Nonconforming events

A

b. Six sigma

230
Q

The root cause analysis focuses on which of the following?
a. Failures of the phlebotomist
b. Failures of the physician
c. Failures of the patient
d. Failures of the process

A

d. Failures of the process

231
Q

which of the following laboratory tests is paired with its correct clinical correlation?
a. calcium and liver disease
b. cortisol and acromegaly
c. Pap smear and pregnancy
d. Albumin and malnutrition

A

d. Albumin and malnutrition

232
Q

which of the following conditions causes hypercalcemia from excessive bone resorption?
a. Hyperthyroidism
b. Hyperparathyroidism
c. Hypothyroidism
d. Hypoparathyroidism

A

b. Hyperparathyroidism

233
Q

Which of the following hormones help maintain the pregnancy?
a. Progesterone
b. Estrogen
c. Human beta chorionic gonadotropin
d. Only A and C

A

d. Only A and C

234
Q

Which of the following bacteria is correctly paired with the sexually transmitted disease it can cause?
a. Chlamydia trachomatis (gonorrhea)
b. Treponema pallidum (herpes)
c. Trichomonas vaginalis (syphilis)
d. Neisseria gonorrhea (gonorrhea)

A

d. Neisseria gonorrhea (gonorrhea)

235
Q

A phlebotomist is not allowed to remain at work until they are out of the infectious stage of which of the following diseases?
a. Gonorrhea
b. Streptococcal tonsilitis
c. Acute gastroenteritis
d. Chlamydia

A

b. Streptococcal tonsilitis

236
Q

which of the following bacteria arises from antibiotic overuse and colonizes the intestines, causing toxic megacolon?
a. Clostridium tetani
b. clostridium botulinum
c. Clostridium difficile
d. All of the above

A

c. Clostridium difficile

237
Q

which of the following conditions causes joint pain and swelling, erythema and warmth of the overlying skin?
a. Fracture
b. Osteoporosis
c. Arthralgia
d. Arthritis

A

d. Arthritis

238
Q

which of the following conditions results from abnormal transmission of electrical impulses in the brain and may rarely be triggered by venipuncture?
a. Stroke
b. Bells palsy
c. seizure
d. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

A

c. seizure

239
Q

There are no vaccines for all except which of the following blood bone pathogen?
a. Hepatitis B
b. HIV
c. Hepatitis C
d. HTLV-1

A

a. Hepatitis B

Phlebotomy 1 (4 decks)

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