Test 1.2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the definition of ectodermal dysplasia?

A

Inherited disorder that causes defect in 2 or more ectodermal structures, one of which involves hair, teeth, nails, or sweat glands.

Other organs derived from ectoderm include mammary glands, CNS, external ear, melanocytes, cornea, conjunctiva, and lacrimal apparatus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the main genes involved in the genetic pathogenesis of ectodermal dysplasia?

A

EDA, EDAR, EDARADD genes.

These genes provide instructions for making ectodysplasin A, which is critical for the interaction between ectoderm and mesoderm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How is ectodermal dysplasia classified?

A

> 150 types based on clinical features.

Freire-Maia and Pinheiro’s classification groups types based on defects in hair, teeth, nails, and sweat glands.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the incidence of ectodermal dysplasia?

A

7 cases per 10,000 births (Internationally).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which type of ectodermal dysplasia is X-linked recessive?

A

Hypohidrotic ectodermal dysplasia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the most common types of ectodermal dysplasia?

A
  • Hypohidrotic ectodermal dysplasia
  • Hypohidrotic ectodermal dysplasia with immune deficiency
  • Hydrotic ectodermal dysplasia
  • Ankyloblepharon-ectodermal dysplasia clefting syndrome
  • Ectodermal dysplasia-ectrodactyly clefting syndrome
  • Witkop tooth and nail syndrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the craniofacial features of hypohidrotic ectodermal dysplasia?

A
  • Frontal bossing
  • Saddle nose
  • Prominent supraorbital ridges
  • Everted thick lips
  • Hypoplastic midface
  • Abnormal ears
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Fill in the blank: The EDA gene is located on the _______.

A

Xq12–q13.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is a characteristic skin feature of hypohidrotic ectodermal dysplasia?

A

Smooth skin, dermatoglyphics can be affected, and atopic dermatitis is common.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the main features of hypohidrotic ectodermal dysplasia with immune deficiency?

A
  • Intertrigo
  • Seborrheic-like dermatitis
  • Sparse hair
  • Hypodontia
  • Decreased sweating
  • Frontal bossing
  • Colitis and recurrent infections
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of Hidrotic ectodermal dysplasia?

A

Autosomal Dominant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

True or False: Ectodermal dysplasia can only affect skin-related structures.

A

False.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the treatment for hypohidrotic ectodermal dysplasia?

A
  • Controlling temperatures
  • Dentures/dental restorations
  • Multidisciplinary team for other manifestations
  • Referral to National Foundation for Ectodermal Dysplasias
  • Potential gene therapy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What distinguishes the Ankyloblepharon-ectodermal dysplasia clefting syndrome from other types?

A
  • Birth collodion membrane-like with erythroderma
  • Cleft palate with/or without lip
  • Chronic otitis with secondary hearing loss
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the differential diagnoses for hypohidrotic ectodermal dysplasia?

A
  • Ichthyosis
  • Infectious diseases if recurrent fevers occur
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is a common histopathological finding in hypohidrotic ectodermal dysplasia?

A

Biopsy of scalp or palmar biopsy lacking eccrine structures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the genetic transmission pattern for a male with X-linked hypohidrotic ectodermal dysplasia?

A

Will transmit the disease-causing EDA allele to all daughters and none of his sons.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the primary focus of dermatology?

A

The study and treatment of skin disorders

Dermatology encompasses various skin conditions and their management.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is Ectodermal Dysplasia?

A

A genetic disorder affecting the development of ectodermal structures

This includes hair, teeth, nails, and sweat glands.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which syndrome is associated with an autosomal dominant KRT14 mutation?

A

Naegeli-Franschetti-Jadassohn syndrome

This syndrome features loss of dermatoglyphics and reticulate hyperpigmentation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the key features of Dermatopathica pigmentosa reticularis?

A

Reticulate hyperpigmentation, non cicatricial alopecia, onychodystrophy

This condition is also linked to an autosomal dominant KRT14 mutation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Fill in the blank: Ectodermal dysplasia is primarily characterized by _______.

A

defects in ectodermal structures

This includes abnormalities in hair, teeth, nails, and sweat glands.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the challenges in treating Genodermatoses?

A

Identifying effective therapies and managing complex symptoms

New therapies are emerging to address these challenges.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

True or False: Ectodermal Dysplasia only affects hair and nails.

A

False

It also affects teeth and sweat glands.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What type of publication is StatPearls?
An online medical resource ## Footnote It provides updated medical information and reviews.
26
List the authors of the article titled 'Challenges in Treating Genodermatoses'.
* Morren MA * Legius E * Giuliano F * Hadj-Rabia S * Hohl D * Bodemer C ## Footnote This article discusses new therapies in the field.
27
What is a defining symptom of Naegeli-Franschetti-Jadassohn syndrome?
Abnormal sweating ## Footnote This syndrome includes several dermatological abnormalities.
28
What is the diagnostic triad for Dermatopathica pigmentosa reticularis?
Reticulate hyperpigmentation, non cicatricial alopecia, onychodystrophy ## Footnote These features help in the diagnosis of the condition.
29
What is Pemphigus vulgaris?
An autoimmune blistering dermatosis occurring in elderly patients characterized by oral and cutaneous bullae; high mortality rate. ## Footnote Affects mainly individuals aged 50-60 years, with a higher prevalence in Jewish and Mediterranean populations.
30
What are the common causes of Pemphigus vulgaris?
HLA DR4 & 6; Drugs: captopril, penacillamine, rifampicin, NSAIDs, cephalosporins Environmental factors, such as diet, stress, viral infections, medications, ultraviolet radiation, ionizing radiation therapy, pesticides, and allergens, may all induce immune dysregulation leading to a flare of PV. ## Footnote These factors can trigger the autoimmune response leading to the condition
31
What antibodies are associated with Pemphigus vulgaris?
Anti-DSG3 > DSG1 antibodies. ## Footnote DSG refers to desmoglein, a protein that plays a crucial role in cell adhesion within the skin.
32
What are the clinical features of Pemphigus vulgaris?
Flaccid bullae > ulcers > enlarge > crusted > slow healing > no scarring. Mucosal PV can be found in the conjunctiva, nasal mucosa, larynx, pharynx, esophagus, penis, vagina, and anus. Cutaneous lesions are commonly found on the face, trunk, groin, scalp, and armpits. PV usually spares the palms and soles.[57] Blisters can heal without scarring but may result in changes in the pigment. Alopecia may be observed when PV affects the scalp.[58] Rarely, PV will involve nails when the disease is severe.[19][59] Another rare manifestation of PV is pemphigus herpetiformis, where PV can present with urticarial plaques and cutaneous vesicles arranged in a herpetiform or annular arrangement. Go ## Footnote Commonly affects the oral cavity (60% of cases) as well as the face, neck, flexures, trunk, and limbs.
33
What are the histological findings in Pemphigus vulgaris?
These Early lesions of pemphigus vulgaris show suprabasal epidermal acantholysis, clefting and blister formation. The blister cavity - eosinophils and rounded acantholytic cells with intensely eosinophilic cytoplasm and a perinuclear halo. The floor of the blister may be lined with intact keratinocytes, the “tombstone pattern” (figures 1, 2). Acantholysis can also affect adnexae. Dermal changes include perivascular inflammatory infiltrate particularly with eosinophils. Direct immunofluorescence may be positive in perilesional skin with intercellular deposits of IgG and/or C3 in the epidermis (figures 3, 4). Antigen deposition can be seen in hair follicles (follicular outer root sheath and germinal matrix), meaning direct immunofluorescence may be positive when performed on plucked hair
34
What is the treatment for severe Pemphigus vulgaris?
Steroids (1mg/kg/day); AZA; MMF; Cyclophosphamide; Cyclosporine; Rituximab. ## Footnote Treatment may involve pulse therapy with dexamethasone or methylprednisolone plus cyclophosphamide.
35
What characterizes Pemphigus vegetans?
Pemphigus vegetans is rare variant of pemphigus vulgaris with the same target antigen (desmoglein 3). While pemphigus vegetans also features flaccid bullae and oral ulceration, these lesions develop into chronic vegetative plaques that tend to form on intertriginous skin. Further, patients presenting with pemphigus vegetans can progress to pemphigus vulgaris or vice versa ## Footnote It has two subtypes: Neumann type (classic) and Hallopeau type (localized).
36
What is the mechanism behind Pemphigus foliaceous?
Anti-DSG1 antibodies leading to acantholysis in the upper epidermis. ## Footnote This condition is characterized by superficial blisters that rapidly break.
37
What are the clinical features of Pemphigus foliaceous?
Flaccid bullae > superficial ulcers > flaking > cornflake crust > exfoliative erythroderma. ## Footnote Patients typically present with burning, pain, and pruritus.
38
What is endemic pemphigus?
A form of endemic pemphigus foliaceous presenting as superficial crusting on face and neck in young patients. ## Footnote It is often seen in Brazil and Colombia and is triggered by genetic and arthropod factors.
39
What distinguishes Pemphigus erythematosus from other forms?
It is a photo-aggravated form affecting mostly head and neck with anti-DSG1 antibodies. ## Footnote Clinical features include bullae and crusting in sun-exposed areas.
40
What is the association of Paraneoplastic pemphigus?
Blistering dermatosis associated with underlying hematological malignancies. ## Footnote Common neoplasms include Castleman’s disease, NHL, CLL, and thymomas.
41
What is the treatment for IgA pemphigus?
Steroids AND/OR Dapsone > MMF. ## Footnote IgA pemphigus presents with pustules or vesicles in a serpiginous pattern.
42
What are the common tests used for diagnosing Pemphigus?
DIF, ELISA, histological examination. ## Footnote DIF shows IgG deposits, while ELISA can detect specific antibodies like Anti-DSG1 and Anti-DSG3.
43
True or False: Pemphigus herpetiformis is a variant of Pemphigus foliaceus.
True. ## Footnote It presents with a herpetiform pattern of small grouped vesicles.
44
Fill in the blank: The treatment for Pemphigus foliaceous includes _______.
Topical steroids, Dapsone, nicotinamide, doxycycline. ## Footnote These treatments can vary in severity of the condition.
45
46
47
What is pemphigus vegetans?
A rare subtype of pemphigus vulgaris characterized by vegetative plaques composed of excessive granulating tissue and crusting.
48
What percentage of pemphigus cases does pemphigus vegetans account for?
1-2% of all pemphigus cases.
49
Where does pemphigus vegetans most commonly occur?
At intertriginous sites, face, and scalp.
50
What are the characteristic histological findings in pemphigus vegetans?
Hyperkeratosis, pseudoepitheliomatous hyperplasia, and papillomatosis with acantholysis creating a suprabasal cleft.
51
What are the two clinical subtypes of pemphigus vegetans?
Pemphigus vegetans of Neumann (vegetative plaques arising from pemphigus vulgaris lesions) and Pemphigus vegetans of Hallopeau (plaques not preceded by bullae).
52
What is pemphigus herpetiformis?
A rare subtype of pemphigus vulgaris characterized by urticarial plaques and vesiculobullous eruption in a herpetiform or annular pattern.
53
What are the symptoms associated with pemphigus herpetiformis?
Plaques are associated with severe pruritus and rarely involve the mucosa.
54
What is the histological characteristic of pemphigus herpetiformis?
Eosinophilic spongiosis, mostly without acantholysis.
55
What are the complications of pemphigus vulgaris?
Extensive, life-threatening erosions, secondary bacterial infection, fungal infection (especially candida), viral infection (especially herpes simplex), nutritional deficiencies due to difficulty eating, and complications of systemic steroids (especially infections and osteoporosis).
56
What is the definition of eosinophilic diseases?
Group of diseases characterized histologically by presence of eosinophils in inflammatory infiltrate and/or evidence of eosinophilic degranulation ## Footnote Eosinophilic diseases often relate to allergic reactions, infections, and other inflammatory processes.
57
What are the most common causes of eosinophilic diseases?
* Arthropod bites * Drug eruptions * Allergic contact dermatitis * Atopic dermatitis * Auto-immune blistering disorders * Parasitic infections * Urticarial vasculitis * Churg-Strauss syndrome * Urticarial allergic eruption * Granuloma faciale ## Footnote These causes encompass a range of environmental, allergic, and infectious triggers.
58
What is the epidemiology of granuloma faciale?
Middle aged Caucasian men ## Footnote This demographic is most commonly affected, but eosinophilic diseases can occur in various populations.
59
What are the key features of the pathogenesis of geanuloma faciale?
* Unknown * Immune complexes * IMF: IgG, IgA, IgM, C3 in blood vessel wall * Role for Interferon gamma (pro-inflammatory mediator) * IL-5 production ## Footnote These factors contribute to the development and persistence of eosinophilic inflammation.
60
What are the clinical features of eosinophilic diseases?
* Solitary + asymptomatic * Smooth, red-brown to violaceous plaque on face * Prominent follicular openings * Multiple papules and plaques possible * Lesions predominantly on face * Occasionally extrafacial sites: trunk, extremities, sinosoidal variant eosinophilic angiocentric fibrosis
61
What is the pathology associated with granuloma faciale?
* Epidermis usually not affected * Dermis shows dense, nodular, diffuse polymorphous infiltrate of lymphocytes, neutrophils, plasma cells * Numerous eosinophils (characteristic) * Prominent Grenz zone ## Footnote The pathology often reveals a characteristic eosinophilic infiltrate in the dermis.
62
What is the differential diagnosis for granuloma faciale?
* Lymphoma * Pseudolymphoma * Sarcoidosis * Tumid lesions of lupus erythematosus * Fixed drug eruption * Rhinophyma * Other granulomatous diseases (leprosy, foreign body granuloma) ## Footnote These conditions can mimic eosinophilic diseases and require careful evaluation.
63
What is the first-line treatment for granuloma faciale?
IL corticosteroids ## Footnote While corticosteroids are the mainstay, treatment may vary based on individual patient response.
64
What are some anecdotal alternative treatments for granuloma faciale?
* Dapsone * Clofazimine * Topical calcineurin inhibitors * PUVA ## Footnote These alternatives may be considered in cases resistant to standard therapies.
65
What is the clinical feature of papuloerythroderma of Ofuji?
Widespread, symmetrical, pruritic eruption – flat topped, red-brown papules on trunk + extremities Spare skin folds - deck chair sign ## Footnote This condition is particularly noted in elderly Japanese men.
66
What is the hallmark histology of Wells syndrome?
Diffuse dermal infiltrate of eosinophils and characteristic flame figures ## Footnote Flame figures are formed by eosinophil granule proteins coating collagen fibers.
67
What are the diagnostic criteria for hypereosinophilic syndrome (HES)?
* Hypereosinophilia (>1.5 x 10^9 eosinophils on FBC on 2 examinations >1 month apart) * Eosinophils in bone marrow >20% of all nucleated cells * Extensive tissue infiltration by eosinophils * Evidence of organ or tissue damage attributable to tissue hypereosinophilia * Exclusion of other disorders as major reasons for organ damage ## Footnote These criteria help differentiate HES from other eosinophilic disorders.
68
What are the five clinically relevant variants of hypereosinophilic syndrome?
* Primary/Neoplastic (HESN) * Myeloid variants (M-HES) * T-cell lymphocytic variants (L-HES) * Secondary/Reactive (HESR) * Familial HES (HESFA) * Idiopathic (IHES) ## Footnote Each variant has distinct underlying causes and implications for treatment.
69
What are the common dermatologic manifestations of hypereosinophilic syndrome?
* Eczema * Erythroderma * Skin lichenification * Dermographism * Urticaria * Pruritic erythematous macules, papules, plaques, nodules on trunk + extremities ## Footnote Dermatologic signs are often prominent in patients with HES.
70
What are the cardiac manifestations associated with hypereosinophilic syndrome?
* Signs of heart failure (dyspnea, chest pain, cough, palpitations) * Pericarditis * Myocardial ischemia * Intracardiac thrombus *endomyocardial fibrosis (most common cause of death) ## Footnote Cardiac involvement can lead to serious complications, including restrictive cardiomyopathy.
71
What is the initial laboratory work-up for suspected hypereosinophilic syndrome?
* FBC with differential * Comprehensive blood chemistries * Liver enzymes * Renal function tests * Creatine kinase * Troponin levels history, physical examination, and blood work to evaluate for organ involvement and exclude conditions that cause eosinophilia, including infection, asthma, malignancy, atopy, rheumatologic conditions, and medications. If diagnosis of HES is suspected, evaluation of the heart, lungs, and hematologic system, such as peripheral blood T-lymphocyte phenotyping using flow cytometry and T-cell receptor rearrangement studies, should be performed. Bone marrow should be assessed for cellularity, dysplasia, CD34 expression, reticulin fibrosis, mast cells, and karyotype. Molecular studies for FGFR1, PDGFRA, and PDGFRB fusion genes—BCR-ABL1, JAK2 V617F, KIT, D816V—and clonal T-cell receptor rearrangements can be performed ## Footnote These tests help assess the extent of eosinophilia and any potential organ damage.
72
What initial laboratory studies should be included for HES evaluation?
FBC with differential, comprehensive blood chemistries, liver enzymes, renal function tests, creatine kinase, and troponin levels ## Footnote Additional studies include electrocardiogram, echocardiogram, pulmonary function tests, chest radiography, CT of the chest and abdomen, and tissue biopsies if indicated.
73
What is the purpose of hematologic evaluation in HES?
To investigate the underlying cause of HES ## Footnote This includes tests like FISH for CHIC2 deletion and RT-PCR for FIP1L1-PDGFRA mutation.
74
What are the key tests involved in hematologic evaluation for HES?
* FISH for CHIC2 deletion * RT-PCR for FIP1L1-PDGFRA mutation * Flow-cytometry for T-lymphocyte phenotypes * Bone marrow aspiration and biopsy * Molecular studies for fusion genes and mutations ## Footnote Tests for specific T cell clonality and karyotyping may also be included.
75
What do M-HES variants exhibit in terms of laboratory findings?
Increased serum B12 and FIP1L1-PDGFRA fusion genes ## Footnote Other findings may include anemia, thrombocytopenia, elevated serum tryptase, and hepatosplenomegaly.
76
What dermatologic symptoms are associated with L-HES?
Dermatologic symptoms may be present, with potential involvement of other organs ## Footnote Molecular testing may reveal abnormal T cell markers.
77
What is a crucial differential diagnosis to consider in HES?
Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (EGPA) ## Footnote The key distinguishing factor is the presence of vasculitis in EGPA.
78
What are the therapeutic objectives for treating HES?
* Reducing eosinophil count * Improving disease symptoms * Preventing disease progression ## Footnote Treatment depends on the underlying cause and disease severity.
79
How is severe HES defined?
An absolute eosinophil count of 100 x 10^9/L (>100,000 cells/µL) with signs of hyperleukocytosis ## Footnote Symptoms may involve the nervous and pulmonary systems.
80
What is the recommended treatment for severe HES?
High-dose intravenous prednisone 1 mg/kg/day or 1 g/day of methylprednisolone ## Footnote Strongyloides serology should be tested before initiating treatment.
81
What should be monitored in patients treated for hyperleukocytosis?
Potential intracranial hemorrhage ## Footnote This risk may persist up to a week after treatment due to reperfusion injury.
82
What is the primary line of therapy for most HES variants?
Systemic glucocorticoids ## Footnote A multicenter analysis showed 85% achieved partial or complete symptom remission within 1 month.
83
What should be done for patients resistant to steroids in HES treatment?
Re-evaluate and initiate treatment with imatinib ## Footnote Treatment for secondary HES should target the underlying cause.
84
What is the mechanism of action of tyrosine kinase inhibitors like imatinib?
Inactivation of downstream phosphorylation by occupying the kinase pocket ## Footnote This affects genes such as abl, c-kit, PDGFRA, and PDGFRB.
85
What is a second-line treatment option for individuals unresponsive to glucocorticoids?
Hydroxyurea ## Footnote It targets eosinophil development and can be used as monotherapy or in combination with prednisone.
86
What cytokine can inhibit eosinophil proliferation and is used in HES treatment?
Interferon-α (IFN-α) ## Footnote It has a broad side effect profile which can complicate treatment.
87
What are the most fatal complications associated with HES?
* Leukemias * Irreversible heart failure * Endocarditis * Severe restrictive cardiomyopathy ## Footnote These complications arise from the type and degree of end-organ involvement.
88
What has improved the prognosis of HES in recent years?
Advancements in earlier detection of complications and enhanced surgical management ## Footnote A broader array of therapeutic modalities targeting the underlying cause of HES also contributes.
89