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STEP2: Tidbits > TEST 10-13 > Flashcards

TEST 10-13 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the difference between ACUTE, SUBACUTE, and CHRONIC LOWER BACK PAIN?

A

ACUTE12 weeks

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2
Q

What is the management of ACUTE LOWER BACK PAIN?

A

1) Maintain moderate activity

2) NSAIDs/acetaminiophen

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3
Q

What is the management of CHRONIC LOWER BACK PAIN?

A

1) Intermittent NSAID/acetaminophen usage
2) Exercise therapy (stretching/strengthening)
Consider: TCA, duloxetine

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4
Q

PHARMACOTHERAPY/non-pharm TX for URGE INCONTINENCE?

PHARMACOTHERAPY/non-pharm TX for OVERFLOW INCONTINENCE?

A

URGE INCONTINENCE (Increased detrusor) - anti-muscarinic OXYBUTYNIN + bladder training/kegel pelvic floor exercises (=1st line)

OVERFLOW INCONTINENCE (Neurogenic, decreased detrusor) - cholinergic BETHANECHOL +/- INTERMITTENT CATHETERIZATION

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5
Q

What are some of the differences between CHRONIC BRONCHITIS vs CHRONIC BRONCHIECTASIS?

A

CHRONIC BRONCHIECTASIS

1) MUCOPURULENT SPUTUM: (>100mL sputum = larger volume)
2) Fever/hemoptysis
3) Association w/ infections (PSEUDOMONAS/ ASPERGILLOSIS)

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6
Q

What diagnostic testing is needed for initial diagnosis of CHRONIC BRONCHIECTASIS?

A

HIGH-RES CT SCAN OF CHEST

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7
Q

AFTER CHRONIC BRONCHIECTASIS is first confirmed by HRCT, what is the next step in management?

After this, what test needs to be done for FOCAL DISEASE? DIFFUSE DISEASE?

A

SPUTUM CULTURE- Analyze for bacteria and mycobacteria

AFTER sputum culture

1) FOCAL DISEASE: Get BRONCHOSCOPY - Localized airway obstruction
2) DIFFUSE - Congenital disorders/immune dysfn

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8
Q

FEBRILE d/o with PULMONARY (dyspnea/cough) + MUCOCUTANEOUS (papules/nodules) + RETICULONODULAR INFILTRATES on CXR + RETICULOENDOTHELIAL (LAD/HSM) + PANCYTOPENIA/ ELEVATED ALT/LDH in pt in OHIO/MISSOURI

A

DISSEMINATED HISTOPLASMOSIS

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9
Q

What is the Tx of DISSEMINATED HISTOPLASMOSIS?

A

1-2wk: SYSTEMIC IV amphotericin B

Post-2wks: ORAL ITRACONAZOLE for >=1yr for maintenance therapy

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10
Q

Which type of dementia characterizes LANGUAGE PROBLEMS (word recall) + VISUOSPATIAL problems (getting lost while driving) BEFORE executive function dysfunction?

A

ALZHEIMER’S DEMENTIA

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11
Q

Which type of dementia characterizes OCCASIONAL forgetfulness but does NOT interfere with ADL?

A

NORMAL AGING

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12
Q

Which type of dementia characterizes EXECUTIVE FUNCTION DECLINE after stroke inhibiting ADL + abnormal neuro findings (eg. HEMIPARESIS/PRONATOR DRIFT/ROMBERG SIGN) + early mild memory loss?

A

VASCULAR DEMENTIA

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13
Q

How is CREUTZFELDT-JAKOB DISEASE diagnosis confirmed?

A

1) BRAIN BIOPSY - spongiform changes on postpartem brain biopsy
2) Prion protein genetic mutations

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14
Q

What is PSEUDODEMENTIA? (Hint: Correlated with a psychiatric condition)

A

PSEUDODEMENTIA = Reversible cognitive decline changes associated with MAJOR DEPRESSION DISORDER

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15
Q

What is the Tx of ACUTE CHOLANGITIS?

A
  1. SUPPORTIVE CARE
  2. ANTIBIOTICS (Broad-spectrum): Beta-lactam/beta lactamase inhibitor + 3rd gen CEPHALOSPORIN + METRONIDAZOLE
  3. BILIARY DRAINAGE - by ERCP with sphincterotomy OR percutaneous trans-hepatic cholangiography
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16
Q

Common side effects of MTX (disease modifying agent for RA) = ?
What can be given as SUPPLEMENTATION to reduce incidence of AE?

A

HEENT: ORAL ULCERS +
ALOPECIA

LUNGS: PULM toxicity

CBC/BMP: ELEVATED ALT/AST +
BONE MARROW SUPPRESSION (Macro-ovalocytic anemia, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia)

FOLATE SUPPLEMENTATION

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17
Q

Difference between DKA and HHS: (Glc levels, ketones, AG, Sosm)

A

DKA: Glc 250-500, Ketones +, Elevated AG, Sosm600 (generally 1000), Ketones - , Nl AG, Sosm>320

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18
Q

Lab findings associated with SCHISTIOCYTOSIS:

A

1) HEMOLYSIS VALUES: Decreased haptoglobin + Increased LDH/bilirubin
2) THROMBOCYTOPENIA
3) HEMOLYTIC ANEMIA

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19
Q

When can one see NEW ONSET RBBB? When can one see NEW ONSET LBBB?
pathology wise

A

RBBB: pulmonary embolism

LBBB: Acute MI

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20
Q

ELECTRICAL ALTERNANS is fairly specific for “X”

What condition predisposes to developing X?

“X” + JVD/hypotension/muffled heart sounds = Y

A

X= PERICARDIAL EFFUSION
Often secondary to VIRAL PERICARDITIS

Y= developing CARDIAC TAMPONADE

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21
Q

What do EHRLICHIOSIS and BABESIOSIS have in common? How do you distinguish between them?
(Hint: Pt population + Sx)

A

Both = THROMBOCYTOPENIA + Mild LEUKOPENIA + do NOT have rash

BABESIOSIS: More common in pts who do NOT have a spleen or immunocompromised +
+ JAUNDICE [elevated ALT/AST]/ HEMOLYTIC SX

EHRLICHIOSIS: NO JAUNDICE/ HEMOLYSIS

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22
Q

Tx of BABESIOSIS = ?

Tx of EHRLICHIOSIS = ?

A

BABESIOSIS: Atovaquone - Azithromycin OR Quinidine-Clindamycin

ERLICHIOSIS: Doxycycline - EMPIRICALLY treat before confirmatory testing

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23
Q

What is the GOLD STANDARD test when OSA is suspected (daytime somnolence, snoring, morning headaches, poor concentration, restless sleep)?

A

NOCTURNAL POLYSOMNOGRAPHY

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24
Q

MEGAESOPHAGUS + MEGACOLON +/- CARDIAC DYSFUNCTION = what infectious disease?

A

CHAGAS DISEASE - protozoa Trypanosoma cruzi

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25
Q

How do you differentiate between LIPOMAs and EPIDERMAL INCLUSION CYSTS?

A

LIPOMAS - SOFT and rubbery/ do NOT regress and recur

INCLUSION CYSTS - FIRM, freely movable but stable, YES regress and recur (resolves spontaneously)

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26
Q

All probable BPH pts based on history should also get what 2 tests?

A

1) UA - Assess UTI + hematuria

2) PSA - Screen for prostate cancer

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27
Q

What are the two most common Sx in ALCOHOL WITHDRAWAL pt 12-48hrs after last drink?

A

1) SINGLE/MULTIPLE TONIC-CLONIC SEIZURES

2) ALCOHOLIC HALLUCINOSIS

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28
Q

What is the most common Sx in ALCOHOL WITHDRAWAL pt 48-96hrs after last drink?

A

DELIRIUM TREMENS

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29
Q

CN- poisoning can most commonly present in what 2 settings?

How does CN-poisoning present?

A

COMBUSTION FIRE
NITROPRUSSIDE during HTN EMERGENCY

LACTIC ACIDOSIS + AMS + COMA/SEIZURES

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30
Q

In a HYPERKALEMIC pt, what is the QUICKEST way to LOWER SERUM K+?

A

Out of 3 options (INSULIN/GLC, BICARB, BETA AGONIST ALBUTEROL) - INSULIN is the quickest

Generally don’t want to use ALBUTEROL in pt with STABLE ANGINA since it will cause TACHYCARDIA/ precipitate angina

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31
Q

In any pt with UNEXPLAINED ELEVATED CREATININE KINASE + MYOPATHY (proximal muscle weakness), what test should always be ordered first?

A

TSH and free T4 - r/o HYPOTHYROIDISM

SERUM TSH = MOST SENSITIVE TEST to diagnose HYPOthyroidism

**Hyperthyroidism - Myopathy + NORMAL CK, contrast to HYPOthyroidism with ELEVATED CK

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32
Q

Which murmur is best heard in LEFT STERNAL BORDER with pt sitting up/leaning forward/ while holding breath in FULL EXPIRATION?

A

AR

Holding breath in full expiration - DECREASED PRELOAD/ More volume stays in the systemic circulation during ejection

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33
Q

Ab associated with AUTOIMMUNE HEPATITIS = ?

What is 1st line of Tx?

A

anti-smooth muscle Ab

ORAL glucocorticoids

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34
Q

With cholestasis, what distinguishes INTRAHEPATIC vs EXTRAHEPATIC cholestasis?

A

RUQ ABDOMINAL US

INTRA-HEPATIC - No CBD dilation (PBC)
EXTRA-HEPATIC - YES CBD dilation (PSC)

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35
Q

YOUNG PT: Unexplained chronic hepatitis + LOW ceruloplasmin + ELEVATED urinary Ca excretion + KAYSER-FLEISCHER RINGS (greenish-brown deposits around both corneas)

A

WILSON’S DISEASE or HEPATOLENTICULAR DEGENERATION

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36
Q

What is the most common cause of AORTIC REGURG in YOUNG ADULTS in DEVELOPED countries?
How about in DEVELOPING countries?

A

DEVELOPED COUNTRIES: BICUSPID AORTIC VALVE

DEVELOPING COUNTRIES: RHEUMATIC HEART DISEASE

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37
Q

Staging of asthma and tx plans:

A

1) MILD INTERMITTENT - SABA albuterol PRN
2) MILD PERSISTENT - LOW DOSE IHC**
3) MODERATE PERSISTENT (FEV1 between 60 and 80) - LABA
4) SEVERE PERSISTENT (FEV1

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38
Q

HIGH FEVER/CHILLS + TENOSYNOVITIS + POLYARTHRALGIA + PUSTULAR LESIONS (trunk/extremities) in sex worker/risk factor for sex pt = ?

A

DISSEMINATED GONOCOCCAL INFECTION (N. GONORRHEA) - Blood cultures may be negative due to picky growth requirements of N.gonorrhea

(Need heated chocolate agar + VPN)

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39
Q

Ddx of SPHEROCYTES (multiple small round dense HYPERCHROMIC RBC)

A

HEREDITARY SPHEROCYTOSIS + G6PD DEFICIENCY + IMMUNE HEMOLYTIC ANEMIA

Differentiate IMMUNE HEMOLYTIC ANEMIA with others by IHA (Coomb test POSITIVE)

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40
Q

What anemia shows ELEVATED MCHC + ELEVATED RDW?

A

FE DEFICIENCY ANEMIA + HEREDITARY SPHEROCYTOSIS

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41
Q

TYPICAL CLASSIC TRIAD OF HEREDITARY SPHEROCYTOSIS

A

EXTRAVASCULAR HEMOLYSIS - autoimmune hemolytic anemia + jaundice + splenomegaly

Increased risk for bilirubin gallstones + Parvovirusb19 infn (aplastic crisis)

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42
Q

Maintenance Tx of HEREDITARY SPHEROCYTOSIS = ?

What can help reduce anemia and gallstone risk?

A

MAINSTAY - BLOOD TRANSFUSIONS + FOLATE SUPPLEMENTATION

SPLENECTOMY - Reduces anemia and gallstone risk

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43
Q

What is the most common cause of AA amyloidosis? (Hint: Inflammatory condition)

A

RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS

44
Q

What is the most common cause of AL amyloidosis? (Hint: Light chain)

A

MULTIPLE MYELOMA

45
Q

ELEVATED CPK >=10x + anti-Jo1 (synthetase) + anti-Mi-2 (helicase) = ?

What are the most common associations?

A

DERMATOMYOSITIS

INTERNAL MALIGNANCY - Lung, stomach, pancreatic, ovarian, colorectal, NON-HODGKIN LYMPHOMA

Dermatomyositis pts must be screened for malignancy

46
Q

Inflammatory diseases associated with AORTIC ANEURYSMS

A

BEHCET SYNDROME
VASCULITIS: Giant cell, takayasu
JOINT: RA, psoriatic arthritis, reactive arthritis

47
Q

What are 3 conditions that predisposes to CALCIUM PYROPHOSPHATE PSEUDOGOUT?

How to distinguish between PSEUDOGOUT and GOUT?

A
  1. HEMOCHROMATOSIS
  2. HYPERPARATHYROIDISM
  3. JOINT TRAUMA

PSEUDOGOUT - CHONDROCALCINOSIS (xray- chronic calcification of articular cartilage) + rhomboid crystals
GOUT - monosodium urate crystals , yellow thin needles under parallel light, NO CHONDROCALCINOSIS

48
Q

What is the hallmark of PROLONGED SEIZURES >5min - permanent injury in __ due to excitatory cytotoxicity

A

CORTICAL LAMINAR NECROSIS -

Cortical HYPERINTENSITY on DIFFUSION-WEIGHTED IMAGING = INFARCTION

49
Q

FEMALE ATHLETE TRIAD = ?

A

DECREASED CALORIC INTAKE + OLIGO/AMENORRHEA + OSTEOPOROSIS (STRESS FRACTURES)

50
Q

HYATID CYSTS mostly seen in the LIVER (75% - smooth round big cyst with daughter cysts) + LUNG is due to what disease?

Where do most of human infections originate?

A

TAPEWORM ECHINOCOCCOSIS
E. GRANULOSUS

MOSTLY FOUND IN SHEEP - Sheep breeders most commonly affected

51
Q

What are the significant electrolyte abnormalities seen with CHRONIC ALCOHOLISM?

A

LOW MG
LOW K+
LOW PHOSPHATE

Known for refractory hypokalemia due to LOW Mg - Mg = important cofactor for K+ uptake and maintenance of intracellular K+ levels

52
Q

CHRONIC HEP C + arthralgia + palpable purpura + LAD + neuropathy/nephropathy + IgM that precipitate in colder temperatures post-HepC infection

A

MIXED CRYOGLOBULINEMIA

53
Q

What are precipitating factors of PREMATURE ATRIAL COMPLEXES?
What pharmacotherapy can be given to symptomatic pts?

A

ALCOHOL, TOBACCO, CAFFEINE = Triggering factors

BETA BLOCKERS

54
Q

What is the most common adverse effect of INHALED CORTICOSTEROID (BECLOMETHASONE) usage?

A

THRUSH - oropharyngeal candidiasis

55
Q

Difference between MYASTHENIA GRAVIS and LAMBERT EATON SYNDROME

A

MG: auto-Ab against post-synaptic Ach-R, thymoma, proximal muscle weakness worsens with muscle use, eye involvement, PRESERVED deep tendon reflexes

LES: auto-Ab against pre-synaptic Ca+ channels, SCLC, proximal muscle weakness improves with muscle use, no eye involvement, LOST deep tendon reflexes

56
Q

What is the Tx of EPIDURAL/SUBDURAL HEMATOMA?

A

HEMATOMA EVACUATION

57
Q

Which pathology is most commonly associated with SPLENIC ABSCESS - (Fever + leukocytosis + LUQ abodminal pain) + left-sided pleuritic chest pain, pleural effusion, spelnomegaly

A

INFECTIVE ENDOCARIDITIS most commonly associated with SPLENIC ABSCESS

58
Q

How would LEVOTHYROXINE regimen change if HYPOTHYROIDISM Pt is started on ORAL ESTROGEN THERAPY?

A

Levothyroxine requirement INCREASES

ORAL ER, tamoxifen, raloxifene, heroine, methoadone - decreases hepatic clearance of THYROID BINDING GLOBULIN -> INCREASES TBG ->

1) TOTAL thyroid hormone INCREASES slightly or stays normal
2) DECREASES FREE THYROXINE (T4)

59
Q

How is THYROID BINDING GLOBULIN and thus free THYROXINE (T4) levels affected by TRANSDERMAL ESTROGEN PATCH?

A

NO EFFECT

ESTROGEN (TRANSDERMAL) bypasses liver and does not affect hepatic clearance of TBG

60
Q

DRUGS That decrease conversion of T4 (thyroxine) to T3 (tri-iodothyronine)

A

GC
BETA BLOCKERS
PTU
IOPANIC ACID (CONTRAST AGENT)

61
Q

What is the defect in FAMILIAL HYPOCALCIURIC HYPERCALCEMIA?

A

AD Mutation in Ca Sensing receptor

1) Higher Ca required to suppress PTH - HIGH Ca, HIGH PTH
2) Defective CaSR -> INCREASED Ca reabsorption of Ca in renal tubules -
URINE (Ca/Cr)

62
Q

How do you distinguish between FAMILIAL HYPOCALCIURIC HYPERCALCEMIA and PRIMARY HYPERPARATHYROIDISM?

A

FHH: UCCR

63
Q

PRE-MENOPAUSAL WOMAN: Cyclic BILATERAL breast pain+ NON-FOCAL tenderness + NO discharge/LAD

A

FIBROCYSTIC CHANGES

64
Q

PRE-MENOPAUSAL WOMAN: SINGLE, unilateral, mobile round breast mass varying in size/tenderness with menstrual cycle

A

FIBROADENOMA

65
Q

POST-MENOPAUSAL WOMAN: UNILATERAL smooth painless, mobile, firm breast lump of variable size

A

PHYLLOIDES TUMOR

66
Q

BLOODY/SEROSANGUINOUS DISCHARGE FROM NIPPLE DDx:

A

INTRADUCTAL PAPILLOMA + INFLAMMATORY CARCINOMA

67
Q

SCREENING FOR COLON CANCER GUIDELINES for pts at AVERAGE risk of developing colon cancer

A

Age 50:

1) High Se FECAL OCCULT BLOOD TESTING (FOBT)
2) Flexible sigmoidoscopy every 5yrs + FOBT every 3 yrs
3) COLONOSCOPY every 10 years

68
Q

What is the Treatment of GUILLAIN BARRE SYNDROME (nl CSF WBC, nl CSF Glc, elevated CSF protein 45-1000)

A

SUPPORTIVE

IVIG or PLASMPAPHARESIS

69
Q

How is the diagnosis of PARKINSON’S MADE?

A

CLINICAL DIAGNOSIS
>=2/3 CARDINAL SX: Pill-rolling resting TREMOR (frequently in one hand and progresses to other side of body/LE) + RIGIDITY + BRADYKINESIA

70
Q

How is the diagnosis of BRAIN DEATH made?

A

CLINICAL DIAGNOSIS
ABSENT cortical/brainstem functions (PERRLA, HR modification, spontaneous breathing)

**SPINAL cord is still functioning so DEEP TENDON REFLEXES may still be functional

71
Q

Tx of INTERMITTENT ASTHMA

A

SABA PRN

72
Q

Tx of MILD PERSISTENT ASTHMA:

A

SABA PRN + IHC (low-dose)

73
Q

Tx of MODERATE PERSISTENT ASTHMA (FEV1 between 60-80% predicted)

A

SABA PRN + IHC (low-dose) + LABA

74
Q

Tx of SEVERE PERSISTENT ASTHMA (FEV1

A

SABA PRN + IHC (high-dose) + LABA

Sometimes ORAL PREDNISONE

75
Q

What electrolyte abnormality is seen with CUSHING SYNDROME due to EXOGENOUS STEROID USAGE?

A

CROSS-REACTIVITY TO MINERALOCORTICOIDS

HYPERVOLEMIC HYPERNATREMIA, HYPOKALEMIA

76
Q

What is the most common infectious agent resulting in OSTEOMYELITIS in adult with NAIL PUNCTURE WOUND?

A

PSEUDOMONAS

77
Q

Tx of HYPERCALCEMIA:

A
  1. SALINE IVF HYDRATION - Restore intravascular volume
  2. CALCITONIN - Inhibit bone resorption
  3. BISPHONOPHATES (Decrease osteoclasts -> Inhibits bone resorption
78
Q

What are characteristic features of HYPOPITUITARISM? How do you differentiate this and PRIMARY HYPOADRENALISM?

A

LOW GC - HYPOnatremia, HYPOglycemia, eosinophilia, fatigue/loss of appetite

LOW TESTOSTERONE - Loss of libidio, erectile dysfunction, amenorrhea, infertility

LOW THYROID - Constipation, bradycardia

HYPOPITUITARISM - Spares HYPERPIGMENTAITON and HYPERKALEMIA (aldosterone synthesis is preserved)

79
Q

What is the most common cause of PNEUMONIA in HIV pts?

A

S. PNEUMO - Encapsulated organism (Impaired immune system)

80
Q

What is the most common EARLY side effect of LEVODOPA + CARBIDOPA (Dopamine precursor)?

A

Levi = leviosa
HALLUCINATIONS
+ Somnolence/confusion

81
Q

What is the most common EARLY side effect of ENTACAPONE/TOLCAPONE (catechol-o-Metransferase inhibitors)?

A

Toca = dance

CHOREIFORM DYSKINESIA

82
Q

What is the most common side effect of AMANTADINE?

A

AMANTADINE = manta ray on legs

LIVEDO RETICULARIS - mottled vascular pattern on legs

83
Q

What Tx should RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS pts receive?

What test should pt receive to be cleared before starting this? Which pt population is absolutely CONTRA-INDICATED?

A

Disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (DMARDs) ASAP bec joint damage occurs early on in course = MTX (most preferred - efficacy and long-term safety )

HepB/C/ TB

CONTRAINDICATION: Pregnant OR expecting + RENAL INSUFFICIENCY/ LIVER DISEASE/ ALCOHOLIC

84
Q

Drug of choice for ANTI-PSEUDOMONAL antibiotic for OTITIS EXTERNA (NECROTIZING)

A

FLUOROQUINOLONE - LEVOFLOXACIN, CIPROFLOXACIN

If fluoroquinolones don’t work, give PENICILLIN (PIPERACILLIN) or CEPHALOSPORIN (CEFTAZIDIME)

85
Q

Erythema multiforme (papules targetoid rash) + PERIVASCULAR LYMPHOCYTIC INFILTRATE + EPIDERMAL NECROSIS is most commonly associated with __?

A

Most commonly - HSV infection

Also Mycoplasma infection + SLE/malignancy/drugs

86
Q

FEVER + PAINFUL TESTES ENLARGEMENT + DYSURIA= ?

What is the most common infectious agent in sexually active YOUNGER PTS? non-sexually active OLDER PTS?

A

ACUTE EPIDIDYMITIS

YOUNGER PTS: NEISSERIA GONORRHEA + CHLAMYDIA TRACHOMATIS

OLDER PTS: GM- RODS (most commonly E.coli)

87
Q

SKIN LESION that has a CENTRAL DIMPLE develop when lesion is PINCHED AT THE EDGES = ?

A

DERMATOFIBROMA

88
Q

BOTULINUM TOXIN vs TETANUS TOXIN (TETANOSPASMIN)

A

Both endocytose and interfere with SNARE -> Inhibits Ach release from PRE-SYNAPTIC NEURON

BOTULINUM: flaccid paralysis
TETANOSPASMIN: spastic rigid paralysis

89
Q

BENIGN vascular skin tumor that grows rapidly over weeks-months to a PEDUNCULATED /SESSILE SHINY MASS (commonly on LIP/ORAL MUCOSA) + BLEEDS WITH MINOR TRAUMA

A

PYOGENIC GRANULOMA

90
Q

Most common ADVERSE effect of CALCIUM CHANNEL BLOCKERS = ?

A

PERIPHERAL EDEMA

+ HEADACHE/ FLUSHING/ DIZZINESS

91
Q

ADVERSE EFFECT of BETA BLOCKERS:

A

WORSENING OF HEART FAILURE + BRADYARRHYTHMIA + Bronchospasm (asthma) + generalized fatigue + sexual dysfn

92
Q

MILD LEUKOCYTOSIS (15K) + BILATERAL LOBAR INFILTRATES (CXR) =

A

INFLUENZA (Mild leuk)

PCP, S. PNEUMO (Significant leukocytosis)

93
Q

Which regimens of chronic drugs will result in MEGALOBLASTIC ANEMIA? What should be given as supplementation?

A 
3P'S + TM
1) Impairs FOLIC ACID reabsorption 
PHENYTOIN 
PHENOBARBITOL
PRIMIDONE (anti-convulsant)

2) Antagonizes physiologic effects - Inhibit DHF reductase
TMP
MTX

94
Q

CHRONIC WATERY DIARRHEA

BIOPSY: mucosal subepithelial collagen deposition

A

COLLAGENOUS COLITIS

95
Q

CHRONIC WATERY DIARRHEA

BIOPSY: mucosal subepithelial collagen deposition

A

COLLAGENOUS COLITIS

96
Q

What are the 4 most common types of TYPICAL PNEUMONIA?

A

S.PNEUMO
S. AUREUS
HAEMOPHILUS
KLEBSIELLA

97
Q

What are the 4 most common types of TYPICAL PNEUMONIA?

A

S.PNEUMO
S. AUREUS
HAEMOPHILUS
KLEBSIELLA

98
Q

Empiric Tx for CAP: HEALTHY OUTPT (CURB65

A

MACROLIDE or DOXYCYCLINE

99
Q

Empiric Tx for CAP COMORBID OUTPT (CURB65

A

BETA LACTAM + MACROLIDE or FLUOROQUINOLONE

100
Q

Empiric Tx for CAP: ICU (CURB65>=4)

A

BETA LACTAM + MACROLIDE or BETA LACTAM + FLUOROQUINOLONE

101
Q

What are HODGKIN LYMPHOMA pts highly susceptible to developing?

A

SECONDARY MALIGNANCY from CHEMO AND RADIATION - Most commonly BLT “BG”: Breast, lung, thyroid, bone, GI

102
Q

VIRAL URI + COUGH lasting >5days with typical yellow/purulent sputum = ?

What is the management?

A

ACUTE BRONCHITIS

YELLOW SPUTUM - due to epithelial sloughing NOT bacteria

MANAGEMENT = SYMPTOMATIC TX (OTC NDSAIDs/ acetaminophen/ bronchodilators). Do NOT use antibiotics!!

103
Q

VIRAL URI + COUGH lasting >5days with typical yellow/purulent sputum

A

ACUTE BRONCHITIS

YELLOW SPUTUM - due to epithelial sloughing NOT bacteria

104
Q

DIETARY REC for pts with RENAL CALCULI (kidney stones)

A
  1. INCREASED FLUID INTAKE
  2. LOW Na+ intake
  3. Nl Ca2+ intake
105
Q

HEADACHE + FOCAL NEURO DEFICITS + SEIZURES + RING-ENHANCING LESIONS with edema on BRAIN MRI = ?

What is the Tx?

A

CEREBRAL TOXOPLASMOSIS

TX = SULFADIAZINE-PYRIMETHAMINE

STEP2: Tidbits (9 decks)

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