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Phys Dys > Test 1 (Units 1 and 2) > Flashcards

Test 1 (Units 1 and 2) Flashcards

1
Q

Young Adulthood (Lela Llorens)

A

20-35 years

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2
Q

Middle Adulthood (Lela Llorens)

A

35-50 years

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3
Q

Later Adulthood (Lela Llorens)

A

50-65 years

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4
Q

What did Levinson say was the age range for early adulthood?

A

17-45 years

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5
Q

What did Levinson say was the age range for early adulthood transition?

A

17-22 years

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6
Q

What did Levinson say was the age range for entering the adult world?

A

22-28 years

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7
Q

What did Levinson say was the age range for age thirty transition?

A

28-33 years

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8
Q

What did Levinson say was the age range for settling down in early adulthood?

A

33-40 years

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9
Q

What did Levinson say was the age range for middle adulthood?

A

40-60 years

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10
Q

What did Levinson say was the age range for late adulthood?

A

60+ years

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11
Q

What was the issue with Levinson’s perspective on adulthood?

A

Sample size of only 40, all were males

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12
Q

Most contemporary theorists consider what perspective?

A

Life-span perspective

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13
Q

What makes up the lifespan perspective?

A

Early phase development (childhood and adolescence) and later phase development (young adulthood, middle age, old age)

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14
Q

Human development across the lifespan is views as a ___________ and _________ process?

A

Dynamic, complex

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15
Q

Human development across the lifespan views humans as wanting what?

A

Competence and role mastery

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16
Q

OT views development across the lifespan as what approach?

A

Bottom-up

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17
Q

What is the first assumption of the OFM?

A

Adults strive to have feelings of satisfaction, self-efficacy, and self-esteem

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18
Q

According to the OFM, where are the feelings of satisfaction, self-efficacy, and self-esteem derived from?

A

Being able to perform something successfully, control of own life, being competent in life roles

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19
Q

Belief you can do something

A

Self-efficacy

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20
Q

Examples of self-maintenance roles

A

ADLs, IADLs, home management, caregiver, exercise

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21
Q

Examples of self-advancement roles

A

enabling/betterment of self

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22
Q

Examples of self-enhancement roles

A

leisure, club member, social participation

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23
Q

Second assumption of the OFM?

A

Adults’ performance ability to carry out one’s roles, tasks, and activities based upon: abilities, skills, and capacities, habits

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24
Q

Remediation vs adaptation

A

Remediation= rebuild, restore, adaptation= compensatory ideas

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25
Q

Third assumption of OFM?

A

Adults’ satisfactory performance ability in life is based upon context and environment

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26
Q

Difference between context and environment?

A

Context is bigger

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27
Q

Changes in vision with age

A

decreased tissue elasticity, decreased strength in eye, nearsightedness, dry eyes, macular degeneration, decreased night vision, driving

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28
Q

Prevention for age related vision changes?

A

Adequate lighting, get rid of tripping hazards, large print, driving eval

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29
Q

Age related changes with hearing

A

Decreased, safety issues, hard to hear high frequency

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30
Q

Age related hearing changes prevention?

A

Cancel out harmful sounds

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31
Q

Tactile age related changes

A

Decreased response to stimuli

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32
Q

Prevention tactile age related changes

A

Make habit to examine skin, remove sharp objects

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33
Q

Vestibular changes with age

A

decreases with age, decreased righting reactions, decreased balance

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34
Q

Prevention vestibular age related changes?

A

Rugs removed, other trip hazzards

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35
Q

Age related changes PNS and CNS?

A

neuron loss, decrease axons, slower nerve conduction

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36
Q

Prevention CNS/PNS degeneration

A

Keep mind active

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37
Q

Age related changes taste/smell/tactile

A

increase threshold, inability to detect aromas, food may seem tasteless

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38
Q

Prevention age related changes taste/smell/tactile

A

Large label with food expiration dates, gas detectors in home

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39
Q

Age related changes in muscles

A

decrease in size, increase fatigue, decrease strength

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40
Q

Prevention muscle degeneration

A

Staying active

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41
Q

Age related changes in joints/bones

A

Ligaments and tendons less elastic, decrease in synovial fluid, hardened cartilage, decreased bone density

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42
Q

Prevention in joints/bones age related changes

A

Activity to keep blood flowing to bones

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43
Q

Age related cognitive changes

A

fluid intelligence is more difficult, memory and recall more difficult

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44
Q

Age related cognitive changes

A

decrease in pace maker cells, changes in artery elasticity, stiffening joints

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45
Q

4 most common interruptions during adulthood

A

Neurologic conditions, cardiovascular conditions, musculoskeletal disorders, systemic illnesses

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46
Q

Examples of common neurological conditions

A

CVA, MS, TBI, Guillain Barre, Parkinson’s, SCIs, Alzheimer’s, ALS

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47
Q

Cardiovascular condition examples

A

MI, COPD

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48
Q

Common musculoskeletal disorders in adulthood

A

repetitive trauma disorders, various hand injuries, arthritis, polymyositis/dermatomyositis, myasthenia gravis

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49
Q

Typical stay TCU?

A

10 days or less

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50
Q

Typical stay rehab?

A

2 weeks +

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51
Q

Examples of systemic illnesses

A

T2 diabetes, AIDS, cancer, scleroderma, systemic lupus erythematosis

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52
Q

Where is biomedical model used?

A

Hospitals, neuro, acute care, cardiac, ICU

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53
Q

What would an OT do within the biomedical model?

A

Preparatory methods, positioning, ROM, splinting, universal cuff, ADLs (grooming, transfers, toileting, dressing)

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54
Q

Where is the rehabilitative model used?

A

TCU, simulated occupations (actually showering/dressing/walking)

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55
Q

Where are community based models used?

A

Residential, outpatient settings, school, respite

56
Q

Where are prevention and health promotion models used?

A

Nursing home

57
Q

Complete state of physical, mental, and social well-being and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity

A

Health

58
Q

The process of enabling people to increase control over, and to improve, their health

A

Health promotion

59
Q

Modification of risk factors prior to onset

A

Primary prevention

60
Q

Early detection and strategies to slow progression

A

Secondary prevention

61
Q

Interventions to stop progression of a condition and limit disability

A

Tertiary prevention

62
Q

Which prevention tier is considered at risk?

A

secondary

63
Q

Health promotion, disease prevention, health maintenance, counseling, patient education, diagnosis and treatment of acute and chronic illness in a variety of health care settings

A

Health promotion and maintenance

64
Q

There is a ____% annual increase in those with chronic conditions

A

1

65
Q

The ability of the individual, i conjunction with family, community, and health care professionals, to manage symptoms, treatments, lifestyle changes, and psychosocial, cultural, and spiritual consequences of health conditions

A

Self Management (DeRosa)

66
Q

Outlines methods for coordinated healthcare and improved outcomes for individuals with chronic conditions

A

Chronic Care Model (DeRosa)

67
Q

OT process

A

referral, evaluation

68
Q

What should be in the medical history/occupational profile?

A

prior functional level, occupational history, interests, values, needs

69
Q

What are the 2 parts of an evaluation?

A

Med history/occ profile, analysis of occupational performance

70
Q

What goes into an analysis of occupational performance?

A

Identification and observation of present performance level in areas of occupation, identify and measure underlying performance skills patterns, contextual factors, client factors that affect performance

71
Q

Overall, evaluation occurs through what?

A

Interview, skilled observation, testing

72
Q

Evaluation leads to what?

A

A “working hypothesis”

73
Q

Presents a picture of a person’s status at one moment in time and can compare it with another person’s status

A

Descriptive ADL evaluation

74
Q

Sets criteria against which a person’s status is compared

A

predictive ADL evaluation

75
Q

Measures a person’s status over time

A

Evaluative ADL evaluation

76
Q

Does it measure what it states it will?

A

Validity

77
Q

Is the parameter measured consistently no matter who administers test?

A

Reliability

78
Q

Can small increments of client change be detected?

A

Responsiveness

79
Q

FIM can be scored through what?

A

Interview or observation

80
Q

Shortened version of the FIM, 6 items (eating, grooming, bowel management, toilet transfer, expression, memory)

A

Alphafim

81
Q

From FIM for orthopedic and cardiopulmonary practice and outcome measurement

A

Lifeware

82
Q

Evaluation of motor skills

A

Functional UE ROM, Modified Ashworth Scale, Functional MMT, POG and pinch

83
Q

The combined activity of many muscles into smooth patterns and sequences of motion. Automatic response monitored primarily through proprioceptive sensory feedback

A

Coordination

84
Q

The ability to make skillful, controlled arm-hand manipulations or larger objects

A

Manual/gross dexterity

85
Q

Ability to make rapid, skillful, controlled manipulative movements of small objects, using primarily the fingers

A

Finger or fine motor dexterity

86
Q

Vision should be tested how?

A

First with vision then vision occluded

87
Q

Stimuli should be applied how?

A

On in-tact area prior to sensory impaired area

88
Q

PNS injury stimuli applied how?

A

Distal to proximal

89
Q

CNS injury stimuli applied how?

A

Proximal to distal

90
Q

What does BiVaBa stand for?

A

Brain injury visual assessment battery for adults

91
Q

What is on the bottom of Mary Warren’s Hierarchy of Visual perception?

A

Attention, oculomotor control, visual fields, visual acuity

92
Q

2nd to bottom on hierarchy of visual perception?

A

Scanning

93
Q

3rd from bottom on hierarchy of visual perception?

A

Pattern recognition

94
Q

3rd from top on hierarchy of visual perception?

A

visual memory

95
Q

2nd from top on hierarchy of visual perception?

A

visuocognition

96
Q

Top of hierarchy of visual perception?

A

adaptation through vision

97
Q

The ability to interpret or attach meaning to sensory information from the external and internal environments

A

Perception

98
Q

Perceptual skills are very closely tied to what 3 things?

A

Sensory experience, cognitive functions, and emotions

99
Q

Foundational to all other cognitive skills

A

Attention

100
Q

5 types of attention

A

Focused, sustained, selective, alternating, divided

101
Q

Name, date, place, personal information

A

Orientation

102
Q

Involves input, storage, and retrieval processes

A

Memory

103
Q

Types of memory

A

visual, auditory, recognition, procedural

104
Q

Types of higher level thinking

A

Problem solving, reasoning, concept formation

105
Q

2 types of metacognition/metaprocessing

A

executive functions, self-awareness

106
Q

Types of executive functions

A

initiation, planning, execution, monitoring, self-reflection

107
Q

appreciation of own attributes an initiation of compensatory strategies

A

Self-awareness

108
Q

Bottom of cognitive hierarchy

A

attention

109
Q

2nd to bottom of cognitive hierarchy

A

orientation

110
Q

3rd from bottom of cognitive hierarchy

A

memory

111
Q

2nd from top cognitive hierarchy

A

problem-solving

112
Q

Top of cognitive hierarchy

A

Meta-processing

113
Q

Examples of IADL evaluations

A

Kitchen task assessment, EFPT, AMPS

114
Q

Features of the built environment that optimize function for everyone regardless of ability

A

Universal design

115
Q

Features of build environment that remove physical barriers to allow for full and equal accessibility for all people with disabilities

A

Barrier-free design

116
Q

7 principles of universal design

A

equitable use by individuals with diverse abilities, flexibility in usage to accommodate many preferences, simple and intuitive use, information is perceptible and understood by all audiences, error is minimized and safety is enhanced, low physical effort is required, size and space is appropriately designated for use for individuals with a variety of disabilities

117
Q

How wide should hallways be?

A

48 inches

118
Q

Ramps should rise ______ inch of height for every ________ inches of length

A

1, 12

119
Q

Doorways should be at least _______________ inches in width

A

32-36

120
Q

Door pressure should be ____ lbs or less

A

5

121
Q

Wheelchair turning space should be _______ inches or ______ square feet in diameter

A

60, 5

122
Q

Another person is not required for the activity

A

Independent

123
Q

Client safely performs all the tasks described as making up the activity within a reasonable amount of time, and does so without modification, assistive devices or aids

A

FIM 7, complete independence

124
Q

One or more of the following may be true: the activity requires an assistive device or aid, the activity takes more than reasonable time, or the activity involves safety (risk) considerations

A

FIM 6, modified independence

125
Q

Patient requires another person for either supervision or physical assistance in order to perform the activity, or it is not performed- REQUIRES HELPER

A

Dependent

126
Q

The patient expends 50% or more of the effort

A

Modified dependence

127
Q

Patient requires no more help than standby, cuing or coaxing, without physical contact; alternately, the helper sets up needed items or supplies orthoses or assistive/adaptive devices

A

FIM 5, modified dep, supervision or setup

128
Q

Patient requires no more help than touching, and expends 75% or more of the effort

A

FIM 4, modified dep, minimal contact assistance

129
Q

FIM level independent but use sock aid?

A

6, mod ind

130
Q

FIM levels contact guard assist?

A

4 and/or 5

131
Q

Just verbal assist necessary

A

FIM 5, supervision or setup

132
Q

Can do all dressing but buttons

A

FIM 4, minimal contact assistance

133
Q

The patient requires more help than touching, or expends between 50 or 74% of the effort

A

FIM 3, mod dep, moderate assistance

134
Q

The patient expends less than half the effort. Maximal or total assistance is required.

A

Complete dependence

135
Q

Patient expends between 25 to 49% of the effort

A

Maximal assistance, FIM 2

136
Q

Patient expends less than 25% of the effort

A

Total assistance, FIM 1

137
Q

Activity does not occur

A

FIM 0

Phys Dys (4 decks)

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