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Neuro > Test 1- Neuroanatomy, Motor Dev/Sensory tests, Pharmacology, Imaging > Flashcards

Test 1- Neuroanatomy, Motor Dev/Sensory tests, Pharmacology, Imaging Flashcards

1
Q

CNS consists of

A

Brain, spinal cord, brain stem, and cerebellum

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2
Q

PNS consists of:

A

Everything else outside the brain/spinal cord

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3
Q

Peripheral sensations are transmitted ___ the _NS via sensory tracts, processed in the ___ and transmitted back to the periphery via ____ tracts.

A

To the CNS via sensory tracts
Processed in brain
Back to periphery via Motor tracts

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4
Q

A group of nerve fibers that are similar in origin, destination, and function

A

Tract

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5
Q

Two basic types of nerve cells:

A

Neurons and Neuroglia

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6
Q

Neurons or Neuroglia?

Specialized for communication through their ability to generate rapid electrochemical signals.

A

Neurons

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7
Q

Neurons or Neuroglia?

Diverse support cells that facilitate neuron function and survival

A

Neuroglia

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8
Q

Types of neurons and what they do:

A

Afferent (sensory)-Project toward a structure/relay to CNS; arrive

Efferent (motor)- Project away from a structure/convey output from CNS to muscles; exit

Interneurons- Relay signals between two neurons

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9
Q

What neurons make up the corticospinal tract, even though they do not innervate muscles?

A

Upper motor neurons

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10
Q

4 Types of Neuroglia in CNS:

A

Astrocytes, Oligodendrocytes, Microglia, and Ependymal cells

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11
Q

2 Types of Neuroglia in PNS:

Which is most abundant?

A

Satellite cells and Schwann cells

Schwann most abundant -contact vasculature and participate in ion buffering; terminal Schwann cells help maintain the neuromuscular junction

*satellite cells buffer extracellular ion concentrations around neuronal cell bodies

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12
Q

Type of Neuroglia in CNS that is responsible for maintaining the capillary endothelium and as such provide a vascular link to neurons. They also contribute to the metabolism of the CNS, regulate extracellular concentrations of ions and neurotransmitters, and proliferate after an injury to create a glial scar.

A

Astrocytes

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13
Q

Type of Neuroglia in CNS that wrap myelin sheaths around axons, forming the white matter of the CNS

A

Oligodendrocytes

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14
Q

Type of neuroglia in CNS that Is known as the Phagocytes of the CNS. They engulf and digest pathogens and assist with nervous system repair after injury.

A

Microglia

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15
Q

Type of Neuroglia in CNS that line the ventricular system and produce and circulate cerebrospinal fluid.

A

Ependymal cells

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16
Q

Which neurotransmitter influences motor activity, motivation, general arousal, and cognition?

A

Dopamine

*Parkinson’s, schizophrenia

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17
Q

Which neurotransmitter plays a role in mood, behavior, and inhibits pain?

A

Serotonin

*Depression, migraines, ADD

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18
Q

Neurotransmitter used by the sympathetic nervous system and produces the “fight or flight”response

A

Norepinephrine

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19
Q

The neurotransmitter, Acetylcholine, is associated with what disease?

A

Alzheimer’s

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20
Q

The neurotransmitter GABA is associated with what disease?

A

Epilepsy

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21
Q

Groupings of cell bodies and dendrites fibers with specialized functions

Gray or white matter?

A

Gray matter

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22
Q

Myelinated axons

Gray or white matter?

A

White matter

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23
Q

A bundle of myelinated axons the travel together is called a ___ throughout the body.
Called a ____ in the spinal cord
Called a ____ between the cerebellum and brainstem
Called a ___ in the brainstem
Called a ___ in the brain

A 
Tract throughout body
Column in SC
Peduncle between cerebellum & brainstem 
Leminscus in brainstem 
Capsule in brain
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24
Q

Tracts are named by their ____ and their ____

A

Origin and destination

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25
Q

What is the primary motor tract for voluntary movement?

A

Corticospinal tract

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26
Q

The corticospinal tract originates in the ___ and terminates in the ____ ____.

A

Cortex ; spinal cord

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27
Q

The lateral spinothalamic tract (sensory tract) begins in ___ matter of spinal cord and ascends in lateral cord to terminate in the ____.

A

Gray matter of SC ; thalamus

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28
Q

Sensory feedback from what sensory tract includes vibration, 2 point discrimination, proprioception, and graphesthesia?

A

Dorsal column (fasciculus cunneatus and fasciculus gracillis)

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29
Q

Sensory feedback from what sensory tract includes light touch and pressure?

A

Spinothalamic (Anterior)

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30
Q

Sensory feedback from what sensory tract includes pain and temperature?

A

Spinothalamic (Lateral)

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31
Q

Order of meninges from outermost to innermost:

A

Dura mater
Arachnoid
Pia mater

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32
Q

What lobe of the brain is the primary motor cortex and is responsible for judgment, attention, abstract thinking, mood, aggression, and contains Broca’s area? (L hemisphere movements of mouth to produce speech, R hemisphere non-verbal commun.)

A

Frontal lobe

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33
Q

Which lobe of the brain is the primary sensory cortex in that it attaches meaning and context to the sensory input (is it painful?) and contains the sensory homunculus and stores short-term memory :

A

Parietal lobe

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34
Q

Which lobe of the brain is the primary auditory cortex and has Wernicke’s area (which interprets all sensory systems including hearing in comprehending spoken language), allows visual perception, musical discrimination, long-term memory, and facial recognition?

A

Temporal lobe

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35
Q

Which lobe of the brain is the primary visual cortex?

A

Occipital lobe

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36
Q

Left Brain or Right Brain?

Language, sequential/organized, understanding language, analytical, controlled, logical, rational, math calculations

A

Left Brain

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37
Q

Left or right brain?

Nonverbal processing, process info in holistic manner, artistic, general concept comprehension, eye-hand coordination, spatial relationships, kinesthetic awareness, music, math reasoning body image awareness

A

Right Brain

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38
Q

What structure is located deep within white matter of the cerebrum and its functions are voluntary movement, posture, and muscle tone?

A

Basal Ganglia

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39
Q

A dysfunction in what structure of the brain causes Parkinson’s disease?

A

Basal ganglia

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40
Q

Deep brain structures:

Function- Primitive emotional reactions (fear, rage, pain, pleasure, affection, sorrow, hunger, thirst, sexual behavior, sleep)

A

Limbic System (hypothalamus and parts of thalamus, frontal, and temporal lobes)

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41
Q

Deep Brain structures:

Function- Stores new memories and retrieves memories as needed

A

Hippocampus (located in temporal lobe)

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42
Q

Deep brain structures:

Function- Emotional and social processing

A

Amygdala (located in temporal lobe)

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43
Q

Deep Brain Structures:

Function- Central relay station for sensory info from periphery and parts of brain to cerebrum

A

Thalamus

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44
Q

Deep Brain Structures:

Function- Maintains homeostasis, assists in regulating hormones, regulates body temperature

A

Hypothalamus (deep at base of brain)

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45
Q

What makes up the Brain Stem?

A

Midbrain, Pons, Medulla

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46
Q

What part of the brain is the relay station between the cerebrum and the spinal cord or cerebellum?

A

Midbrain

Part of brain stem

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47
Q

What part of the brain controls rate of breathing and orientation of the head in response to visual & auditory output?

A

Pons

Part of brain stem

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48
Q

What part of the brain controls respiration, heart rate, vomiting, sneezing, and swallowing?

A

Medulla (part of brain stem)

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49
Q

Located in the ____, the reticular activating system controls levels of ___ and ____ cycles.

A

In the brain stem

Levels of arousal, sleep wake cycles

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50
Q

What structure of the brain controls balance and complex muscular movement? Major site of motor learning. It learns to carry out anticipatory movements that shift our balance during voluntary movements.

A

Cerebellum

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51
Q

What might you see in someone with cerebellum lesion?

A

Gait instability, intention tremor, uncoordinated movements, slurred speech, and difficulty with smooth eye movements

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52
Q

Spinal cord is a continuation of the brain stem and extends to approx the level of the intervertebral disc between the ________vertebrae.

A

First two lumbar vertebrae

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53
Q

Two primary functions of spinal cord:

A

Coordination of movement patterns and communication of sensory information

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54
Q

A positive Babinski sign in an adult suggests damage to what?

*Stroking of heel to ball of foot and Great toe extends while others splay out

A

Damage to corticospinal tract

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55
Q

What would you see in a pt. with a brain stem lesion?

A

Coordination and movement challenges, speech and swallowing difficulties, sleep issues (sleep apnea)

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56
Q

Muscle spindles are encapsulated ____ receptors that inform the ___ about changes in muscle length.

A

Sensory receptors

Inform the brain

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57
Q

Anterior horn cells contains neurons that innervate _____ to cause ___.

A

Skeletal muscle to cause movement

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58
Q

PNS is further divided into the ___ and ____.

A

Somatic and Autonomic Nervous System

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59
Q

ANS is divided into the ___ and ___ nervous systems

A

Sympathetic- fight or flight

Parasympathetic- rest and digest

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60
Q

How many pairs of Cranial nerves?

Spinal nerves?

A

12 cranial

31 spinal

61
Q

Def: Region of skin innervated by sensory fibers of spinal nerve

A

Dermatome

62
Q

Def: A group of muscles innervated by spinal nerve

A

Myotomes

63
Q

UMN or LMN disorder?

Damage to descending corticospinal motor tracts in cerebral cortex, brain stem, and spinal cord. INCREASED deep tendon reflexes (DTR), muscle weakness, +Babinski, INCREASED muscle tone/spasticity, possible clonus.
Examples: Cerebral palsy, ALS, CVA, MS, TBI, brain tumors

A

Upper Motor Neuron disorder

64
Q

UMN or LMN disorder?

Damage to anterior horn cell of brain stem, spinal root or spinal nerve.
DECREASED deep tendon reflexes (DTRs), marked muscle atrophy, DECREASED muscle tone/flaccidity, muscle fiber fasciculations (twitching).
Examples: Poliomyelitis, ALS, spinal cord tumors, Bell’s Palsy, carpal tunnel syndrome, MD

A

Lower Motor Neuron disorder (LMN)

65
Q

CNS or PNS injury response?

Obstruction of blood flow, death of neurons, unable to regenerate. Neurons don’t come back.

A

CNS injury

66
Q

CNS or PNS injury response?

Compression, laceration, traction, disease, chemical toxicity
Symptoms: Paresthesias “___ & ___”, sensory loss, muscle weakness. Wallerian degeneration if cell body destroyed. Axon damage-regeneration possible.

A

PNS injury

67
Q

What artery supplies 80% (the majority) of blood supply to cerebrum?

A

Carotid arteries

68
Q

External or Internal Carotid?

Supplies the face

A

External Carotid

69
Q

Anterior cerebral artery:

What artery bifurcates to become the Ant. AND middle cerebral arteries?

What areas does the Anterior cerebral artery supply?

A

The Internal Carotid arteries bifurcate to become Anterior and Middle cerebral arteries.

Anterior cerebral artery supplies the SUPERIOR border of the FRONTAL and PARIETAL lobes

70
Q

Middle Cerebral Artery:

What’s special about it/what occurs most often in it?

What areas does it supply?

A

It’s the LARGEST of the cerebral arteries and is most often occluded.

It supplies the LATERAL surface of the brain with blood and also the DEEP PORTIONS OF FRONTAL and PARIETAL lobes.

71
Q

Posterior Cerebral artery:

Comes off of which artery?

Supplies what structures and lobes?

A

Comes off of Basilar artery

Supplies the structures of the Midbrain, Occipital lobe, and Temporal lobes

72
Q

The anterior and posterior communicating arteries, which are branches of the ___, are interconnected at the base of the brain and form the __________.

A

Branches of carotid

Form Circle of Willis
*Failure or occlusion of one cerebral artery does not critically decrease blood flow to that region. Consequently, the occlusion can be circumvented or bypassed to meet the nutritional and metabolic needs of cerebral tissue.

73
Q

What CN?

Smell

A

CN I - Olfactory

74
Q

What CN?

Vision

A

CN II - Optic

75
Q

What CN?

Moves eye up, down, medially, raises upper eyelid, constricts pupil, adjusts shape of the lens of the eye

A

CN III - Oculomotor

*Oculomotor Opens eyelid

76
Q

What CN?

Moves eye medially and down

A

CN IV - Trochlear

77
Q

What CN?

Facial sensation, chewing, sensation from temporomandibular joint

A

CN V - Trigeminal

78
Q

What CN?

Moves eye laterally (abducts eye)

A

CN VI - Abducens

79
Q

What CN?

Facial expression, closes eye, tears, salivation, TASTE

A

CN VII - Facial

80
Q

What CN?

Sensation of head position relative to gravity and head movement; HEARING

A

CN VIII - Vestibulocochlear

81
Q

What CN?

Swallowing, Salivation; taste

A

CN IX- Glossopharyngeal

82
Q

What CN?

*Regulates viscera, swallowing, speech, taste

A

CN X - Vagus

83
Q

What CN?

Elevates shoulders, turns head

A

CN XI - Accessory

84
Q

What CN?

Moves tongue

A

CN XII - Hypoglossal

85
Q

Cervical Plexus is C_ - C_

What important nerve of this plexus innervates the diaphragm ?

A

C1-C4

Phrenic nerve

86
Q

Brachial Plexus C_-T_

What are the primary nerves of the Brachial Plexus?

A

C5-T1

Axillary, Musculocutaneous, Median, Radial, Ulnar nerves

87
Q

Lumbosacral Plexus L_-S_

Major nerves (7)

A

L1-S3

Obturator, Femoral, Inferior gluteal, Superior gluteal, Common Peroneal, Tibial, and Sciatic

*Common Peroneal and Tibial form Sciatic nerve and separate just above the knee

88
Q

Def: All motor changes that occur throughout life (occurs over days to weeks to months and continues for a lifetime)

A

Motor Development

89
Q

Def: The ability to maintain and change posture and movement (occurs in fractions of seconds)

A

Motor Control

90
Q

Def: The process that brings about permanent change in motor performance as a result of practice or experience

A

Motor Learning

91
Q

The interaction of the ____, the _____, and the ____ produces movement/motor control.

A

The Task, the Individual, and the Environment (T.I.E)

92
Q

Reflex and Hierarchic Theory of Motor Control:

4 stages of motor control-

1.
2.
3.
4.

A
  1. Mobility -initial random movements
  2. Stability- Maintenance of a posture
  3. Controlled mobility- Movement within a posture
  4. Skill- Movement from one posture to another posture
93
Q

Systems Model of Motor Control
*most recent

The neural component of movement is distributed to various areas of the nervous system based on the complexity of the task.

_____ is essential to determine if the movement was successful.

_____ (readiness to move) as well as movement are important and referred to as “_____ _____”

This model accounts for the adaptability of motor functions in a variety of situations.

A

Feedback

Posture ; “postural control”

94
Q

Components of Postural control:

*keep ___ within ___

A

COM within BOS

Sensory organization,
 eye-head stabilization, 
motor coordination, 
predictive central set, 
musculoskeletal system, 
environmental adaptation, 
limits of stability

*Balance is maintained by controlling posture

95
Q

Nashar’s Model of Postural Response:

3 components in quiet standing-

A

Ankle strategy

Hip strategy

Stepping strategy

96
Q

Motor learning, development, or control?

Involves complex processes that occur in the CNS in response to practice or experience to develop a new motor skill. Often involves improving the smoothness and accuracy of movements

A

Motor Learning

97
Q

Stages of Motor LEARNING:

-

A

Attention -
Cognitive: Mental picture, conscious thought, lacks fluency, trial and error learning, extrinsic feedback

Practice-
Associative: practice stage, fluency increases knowledge of results, knowledge of performance

Repetition-
Autonomous: Accurate, grooved, fluent, efficient, little thought, intrinsic feedback (kinaesthesis)

98
Q

Types of practice:

Repeated, predictable, effective when first learning a skill

A

Blocked practice

99
Q

Types of practice:

Non-predictable and nonrepeating; better once a skill has been learned and adding variability

A

Random Practice

100
Q

Types of practice:
_____ Practice- tasks such as walking, stair climbing are better taught in this practice vs. ____ Practice- breaking down a task in the parts, such as teaching a sliding board transfer

A

Whole vs. Part practice

101
Q

These two types practice are better when combined.
One involves sufficiently challenging practice which leads to brain changes the underlie learning and the other is a cognitive rehearsal of a skill in the absence of physical performance

A

Physical vs. Mental Practice

102
Q

Intrinsic or extrinsic feedback?

Internal; what the patient feels; results from movement or augmented input

A

Intrinsic

103
Q

Intrinsic or extrinsic feedback? External Sensory cues

A

Extrinsic

*Withdraw extrinsic feedback as skills improve

104
Q

Def: The ability of the nervous system to change.

A

Neural Plasticity

105
Q

How does sensation contribute to motor control and motor learning?

A

Sensation is used in motor control as a means of feedback and as a way to prepare the body’s posture in anticipation of movement. Sensation is needed to learn a new motor skill.

106
Q

Without appropriate motor ____, motor _____ does not proceed normally.

A

Motor Control,

Motor Development

107
Q

What two systems contribute the most to postural control?

A

Musculoskeletal and neurologic systems

108
Q

What is hypotonicity?

A

Low muscle tone/tension

109
Q

What area in brain is responsible for the PRODUCTION of speech?
What lobe is it in?

A

Broca’s area

Frontal lobe

110
Q

Wernicke’s area is responsible for the ______ of speech. Located in ____ lobe.

A

Comprehension of speech

Temporal lobe

111
Q

What is stereognosis?

A

Being able to identify an object placed in one’s hands with their eyes closed

112
Q

Commonly referred to as an x-ray, what is this form of imaging properly called?

What are some advantages and disadvantages of this form of imaging?

A

Plain film radiographs

Advantages include diagnosis of bone and joint pathologies, noninvasive procedure, low-dose radiation, less cost

Disadvantages: quality of images vary, cannot image structures filled with air or behind bone

113
Q

What form of imaging is used to identify disorders of blood flow, multiple sclerosis, neoplasm, or infection of the brain or spinal cord and also evaluating intracranial hemorrhage?

What are some advantages and disadvantages?

A

Computed Tomography (CT)

Advantages: quick results in emergent situation’s, images of multiple structures at the same time, more detail than a radiograph (3D)

Disadvantages: higher dose of radiation, performed in small space (claustrophobia)

114
Q

Form of imaging that uses a magnetic field and radio waves to create cross-sectional images of the body.

What are some advantages and disadvantages?

A

Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

Advantages: imaging of soft tissues such as, muscle, menisci, ligaments, tumors, internal organs; excellent contrast detail; no radiation

Disadvantages: cannot be used if there is metal in the body, interferes with function of pacemaker, cochlear implants, artificial heart valves or ventilators, costs more than some other imaging tests

115
Q

This form of Imaging provides functional data related to Cerebral activation during any given task; assesses cerebral oxygenation

A

Functional Magnetic Resonance imaging (fMRI)

116
Q

Type of Imaging that uses radiography and an injected radionuclide To determine the metabolic activity of an organ or disuse. Often used in oncology to identify malignant tumors.

Advantages and disadvantages?

A

Positive Emission Tomography (PET)

Advantages: looks at function of an organ vs. the anatomy, detects pathological changes at cellular level, identifies onset of diagnosis before other imaging techniques, low dose radiation

Disadvantages: invasive procedure, patient must lie still for long periods of time, small space

117
Q

What type of Imaging used to determine the extent of nerve damage by measuring the speed of electrical impulse through the nerve?

Advantages and disadvantages?

A

Nerve Conduction Velocity Test (NCV)

Advantages: diagnosis of nerve related pathology, non-invasive, quick results.
*test for carpal tunnel

Disadvantages: precautions with pacemakers

118
Q

Type of imaging that records electrical activity in response to a nerve stimulation of the muscle. Used to detect neuromuscular abnormalities such as muscular dystrophy, peripheral neuropathy‘s, ALS, nerve root disorders

Advantages and disadvantages?

A

Electromyography (EMG)

Advantages: diagnosis of neuropathies, radiculopathy, myopathies, muscular dystrophies

Disadvantages: uncomfortable, pacemakers, invasive

119
Q

Type of Imaging that records electrical activity of the brain. Used to help diagnose epilepsy, narcolepsy, sleep disorders

Advantages and disadvantages?

A

Electroencephalography (EEG)

Advantages: non-invasive, cost, detects changes over milliseconds as opposed to seconds or minutes

Disadvantages: what’s effective in detecting exact location of the pathology, must lie still

120
Q

Test that records activity of auditory nerve an auditory pathways in the brain stem and CN VIII

A

Brainstem Auditory Evoked Potentials (BAEP)

Advantages: evaluate hearing loss in infants, children, comatose person

121
Q

An invasive procedure to collect cerebrospinal fluid from the subarachnoid space in the lumbar spine to diagnose problems such as encephalitis, meningitis, Guillain barre syndrome

Advantages and disadvantages?

A

Lumbar puncture

Advantages: diagnosis of brain and spinal cord pathologies

Disadvantages: invasive, patient must remain in active after procedure

122
Q

Test that uses x-ray and injected contrast dye to visualize blood vessels. Used to identify arteriosclerosis, aneurysm, vascular malformation, tumors, blockages

Advantages and disadvantages?

A

Arteriogram

Advantages: diagnosing vascular abnormalities

Disadvantages: invasive, contrast dye could cause allergic reaction

123
Q

Therapeutic classification or pharmacological classification?

Based on what a drug does clinically (anticoagulant, antihypertensive, antidepressant, antibiotic)

A

Therapeutic Classification

124
Q

Therapeutic or pharmacological classification?

Based on the drug’s mechanism of action in the body (diuretics, Vasodilators, CNS stimulants, hypnotic and sedative drugs, beta blockers

A

Pharmacological classification

125
Q

What are the different names given to drugs?

A

Chemical name, Generic name, Brand/Trade name

126
Q 
Heroin, ecstasy, LSD are schedule _
Methadone and cocaine are schedule _
Codeine with Tylenol and Vicodin are schedule _
Valium and Xanax are schedule _
OTC meds are schedule _
A 
1
2
3
4
5
127
Q

Methods of drug administration

PO =

A

Oral

*Tablet, pill, liquid

128
Q

Methods of drug administration

SL =

A

Sublingual

*Dissolves under tongue

129
Q

Methods of drug administration:

A patch is an example of this method

A

Transdermal

130
Q

Methods of drug administration:

sub Q =

A

Subcutaneous

*Heparin, insulin injection in posterior arm, abdomen, thigh

131
Q

Methods of drug administration:

IM =

A

Intramuscular

*Injection into muscle; deltoid, buttocks

132
Q

Methods of drug administration:

IV =

A

Intravenous

*Meds and fluids directly into bloodstream

133
Q

Definition: how drugs move in the body

A

Pharmacokinetics

134
Q

What specific processes are involved in pharmacokinetics? (4)

A

Absorption- How drug moves from site of administration to site of action

Distribution- Journey of the drug through the bloodstream to various tissues

Metabolism- How the drug is made more or less active (liver mainly does this)

Excretion- How we get rid of what we don’t need

135
Q

Abbreviations for times of administration:

AC =

Bid =

tid =

qid =

q =

qh =

18h =

PRN =

STAT =

A

AC- Before meals

Bid, tid, qid- Two times a day, three times a day, four times a day

q- every

qh- every hour
18h- every 18hours

PRN- as needed

STAT- Immediately

136
Q

Drug therapy in pediatrics:

Children have an immature ___ ____ ___- Increased distribution into CNS until two years old

Children have an increased percentage of body ___

A

Immature blood brain barrier

Body water

137
Q

Pain, temperature, light touch, and pressure are _____ sensations. These occur in the _____ tract.

A

Superficial sensations

Spinothalamic tract

138
Q

Position since and vibration are examples of ____ sensations.
This occurs where?

A

Deep sensations

Dorsal column

139
Q

Stereognosis, two point discrimination, and graphesthesia are examples of _____ sensation.

Occurs where?

A

Cortical sensations

Dorsal column

140
Q

Reflex arcs can be ___synaptic or ___synaptic.

Types of reflexes = Superficial and Deep reflexes

A

Monosynaptic (only 2 neurons) Example: Patellar reflex and Achilles reflex
or
Polysynaptic (multiple interneurons)
Example: Touching hot surface and withdrawing hand

141
Q

Injury to the spinothalamic tract will produce impaired ___, ____, ____, and pressure. This sensory loss will be [contralateral or ipsilateral?]

A

Pain, temperature, touch

Contralateral

142
Q

CNS and muscles that control extra ocular movements:

SO ‘4’ LR ‘6’ All the rest ‘3’

A

Superior oblique- CN 4 (trochlear)
Lateral rectus- CN 6 (abducens)

Superior rectus, Medial rectus, Inferior rectus, Inferior oblique- CN 3 (Oculomotor)

*Obliques move eye in opposite direction
SO-down and in
IO-up and in

143
Q

When the eyelid on one side covers more of the iris compared with the other eye this is known as ____.

What CN involved?

A

Ptosis

CN III

144
Q

What happens if you have a palsy of CN III? How will the patient present?

A

Eye presents down and out, droopy eyelid

145
Q

How will a patient present with a palsy of CN VI ?

A

Eye will be medial

146
Q

What is anosmia?

A

Loss of smell, often temporary resulting from injury, infection, trauma, virus, etc.

147
Q

Brainstem and cerebellum get most blood from what 2 arteries?

A

Basilar and Vertebral

148
Q

Central Pattern Generator for motor control of gait is the:

A

Spinal cord

Neuro (6 decks)

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