Test 1 (Chapters 1&2) Flashcards

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1
Q
1) What is the name of the company or institution that has access to the health, genealogical, and genetic information of approximately 270,000 residents of Iceland?
A) National Institutes of Health
B) deCODE
C) Gattaca
D) Biogen
E) American Cancer Society
A

B) deCODE

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2
Q

2) A biotechnology company, deCODE, is in the process of creating a database that contains ________.
A) the gene sequences of all newborns in the United States beginning in 2006
B) a compilation of all the known genes in humans throughout the free world
C) health, genealogical, and genetic information of approximately 270,000 residents of Iceland
D) a complete sequence of the human genome
E) all the information available on the human genome proj

A

C) health, genealogical, and genetic information of approximately 270,000 residents of Iceland

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3
Q

3) Why did deCODE select Iceland for its ambitious research project?
A) a relatively low degree of genetic diversity
B) frequent and extensive mutational bursts
C) high genetic diversity
D) lack of genealogical information
E) virtual absence of mutation

A

A) a relatively low degree of genetic diversity

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4
Q

4) Many species have two representatives of each chromosome. In such species, the characteristic number of chromosomes is called the ________ number. It is usually symbolized as ________.
A) haploid; n
B) haploid; 2n
C) diploid; 2n
D) diploid; n
E) None of the answers listed is correct.

A

C) diploid; 2n

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5
Q
5) Genetics is the study of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. 
A) heredity and variation
B) mutation and recession
C) transcription and translation
D) diploid and haploid
E) replication and recombination
A

A) heredity and variation

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6
Q

6) The genetic material DNA consists of basic subunits called ________.
A) mitochondria
B) lysosomes
C) centrioles
D) nucleotides
E) None of the answers listed is correct.

A

D) nucleotides

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7
Q
7) The immediate product of transcription is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A) a phospholipid
B) an amino acid
C) a protein
D) a carbohydrate
E) RNA
A

E) RNA

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8
Q

8) Genetics is commonly grouped into several general areas: transmission, molecular, and population/evolution. Which biological processes are studied in transmission genetics?

A

Answer: Mendelian inheritance (segregation and independent assortment), modification of Mendelian patterns.

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9
Q

9) Which theory postulates that an organism is derived from materials originally present in the egg that eventually differentiate into adult structures during development?

A

Answer: epigenesis

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10
Q

10) What is meant by the term gene?

A

Answer: a unit of inheritance

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11
Q

11) What term refers to the similarity between parents and offspring, and what term refers to the lack of similarity between parents and offspring?

A

Answer: Heredity and Variation

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12
Q

12) Early in the twentieth century, Walter Sutton and Theodor Boveri noted that the behavior of chromosomes during meiosis is identical to the behavior of genes during gamete formation. They proposed that genes are carried on chromosomes, which led to the basis of the ________.

A

Answer: Chromosome Theory of Inheritance

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13
Q

13) What is a mutation?

A

Answer: A mutation is an inherited change in a gene.

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14
Q

14) What is a simple definition of an allele?

A

Answer: An allele is a variant form of a gene.

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15
Q

15) Until the mid-1940s, many scientists considered proteins to be the likely candidates for the genetic material. Why?

A

Answer: Proteins are the most abundant, universally distributed components in cells. Because of their great structural and functional diversity, they were considered likely candidates.

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16
Q

16) Name the individual who, while working with the garden pea in the mid-1850s, demonstrated quantitative patterns of heredity and developed a theory involving the behavior of hereditary factors.

A

Answer: Gregor Mendel

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17
Q

17) What does the term genetics mean?

A

Answer: study of heredity and variation

molecular, cellular, developmental, organismal, and populational levels.

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18
Q

18) Name the substance that serves as the hereditary material in eukaryotes and prokaryotes.

A

Answer: DNA

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19
Q

19) Name two individuals who provided the conceptual basis for our present understanding that genes are on chromosomes.

A

Answer: Walter Sutton and Theodor Boveri

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20
Q

20) What term is used to describe the fact that different genes in an organism often provide differences in observable features?

A

Answer: phenotype

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21
Q

21) Name one of the botanists who, in 1900, rediscovered the work of Gregor Mendel.

A

Answer: Karl Correns, Hugo de Vries, or Erich Tschermak

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22
Q

22) Alternative forms of a gene are called ________.

A

Answer: alleles

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23
Q

23) The various characteristics of organisms that result from their genetic makeup are collectively referred to as an organism’s ________.

A

Answer: phenotype

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24
Q

24) A fundamental property of DNA’s nitrogenous bases that is necessary for the double-stranded nature of its structure is ________.

A

Answer: complementation

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25
Q

25) In nonviral systems, what is the nature of the hereditary substance?

A

Answer: a double helix.

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26
Q

26) Name the bases in DNA and their pairing specificities.

A

Answer: adenine:thymine, guanine:cytosine

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27
Q

27) What is meant by the term genetic code?

A

Answer: The genetic code consists of a linear series of three adjacent nucleotides present in mRNA molecules.

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28
Q

28) Compare and contrast nonenzymatic and enzymatic proteins.

A

Answer: Both are gene products with their primary structure being a string of amino acids. Enzymes are required as catalysts for most biochemical reactions; nonenzymatic proteins include structural (collagen), protective (immunoglobins), and/or transport (hemoglobin) proteins.

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29
Q

9) List the two relatively complex processes in which genetic information is converted into functional products.

A

Answer: transcription and translation

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30
Q

30) What is meant by the phrase the central dogma of molecular genetics?

A

Answer: functional and structural relationships among DNA, RNA, and protein

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31
Q

31) What is the composition of the genetic material?

A

Answer: polymers of nucleotides making up DNA

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32
Q

32) What is meant by complementation in terms of the structure of DNA?

A

Answer: base pairing of A with T, and G with C

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33
Q

33) Reference is often made to adapter molecules when describing protein synthesis in that they allow amino acids to associate with nucleic acids. To what class of molecules does this term refer?

A

Answer: tRNA

34
Q

34) Given that DNA is the genetic material in prokaryotes and eukaryotes, what other general structures (macromolecules) and substances made by the cell are associated with the expression of that genetic material?

A

Answer: RNA, ribosomes, enzymes, proteins

35
Q

35) What is another term for a biological catalyst?

A

Enzyme

36
Q

36) Research dealing with which human blood disorder was instrumental in linking the genotype to a specific phenotype, and what conclusion was reached?

A

Answer: The work on sickle-cell anemia was instrumental in showing that a mutant gene produced a mutant protein molecule.

37
Q

37) Distinguish the functions of DNA and RNA in a eukaryote.

A

Answer: DNA is responsible for the storage and replication of genetic information; RNA is involved in the expression of stored genetic information.

38
Q

38) Recombinant DNA technology is dependent on a particular class of enzymes, known as ________, that cuts DNA at specific nucleotide sequences.

A

Answer: restriction enzymes

39
Q

39) In 1996, a cloning experiment produced the sheep named Dolly. Contrary to the more traditional method of cloning by embryo splitting, Dolly was produced by which procedure?

A

Answer: nuclear transfer

40
Q

40) What is meant by the term genome?

A

Answer: The genome is all the DNA carried in an organism.

41
Q

41) Who owns transgenic organisms?

A

Answer: Once produced, a patent can be obtained on a living organism, thereby offering exclusive use of the transgenic organism to the patent holder.

42
Q

42) What was the purpose of genetically modifying the following plants: corn, soybeans, rice, cotton, sugar beets, and canola?

A

Answer: herbicide resistance

43
Q

43) What term is applied to a variety of projects whereby genome sequences are deposited in databases for research purposes?

A

Answer: genomics

44
Q

44) By 2003, the completed sequencing of the gene-containing portion of the human genome was published by two groups: the publicly funded ________ and a private company.

A

Answer: Human Genome Project

45
Q

45) A number of genomes have been sequenced in recent years: Escherichia coli, Saccharomyces cerevisiae, Caenorhabditis elegans, Drosophila melanogaster, and Mus musculus. What are the common names for these organisms?

A

Answer: bacterium, yeast, roundworm, fruit fly, mouse

46
Q

46) What is the precise change in amino acid content between normal hemoglobin and sickle-cell hemoglobin?

A

Answer: a glutamic acid change to valine

47
Q

47) Organisms that are well understood from a scientific standpoint and are often used in basic biological research are called ________.

A

Answer: model organisms

48
Q

48) Arabidopsis is a model organism for the study of ________.

A

plants

49
Q

49) Archeological evidence indicates that the earliest domestication of plants and animals occurred within the past 2000 years.

True or False

A

False

50
Q

50) Darwin’s theory of evolution is based on the phenomenon of natural selection.

True or False

A

True

51
Q

51) According to Charles Darwin, animals and plants have remained unchanged since their appearance on Earth.

True or False

A

False

52
Q

52) Complementation in a genetic sense refers to the polymerization of nucleotides in DNA.

True or False

A

False

53
Q

53) Once produced, a transgenic plant or animal can be patented.

True or False

A

True

54
Q

54) Bioinformatics is a discipline involved in the development of hardware and software for processing, storing, and retrieving nucleotide and protein data.

True or False

A

True

55
Q

1) During interphase of the cell cycle, ________.
A) DNA recombines
B) sister chromatids move to opposite poles
C) the nuclear membrane disappears
D) RNA replicates
E) DNA content essentially doubles

A

E) DNA content essentially doubles

56
Q
2) If a typical somatic cell has 64 chromosomes, how many chromosomes are expected in each gamete of that organism?
A) 8	
B) 16
C) 32
D) 64
E) 128
A

C) 32

57
Q
3) In an organism with 52 chromosomes, how many bivalents would be expected to form during meiosis?  
A) 13
B) 26
C) 52
D) 104
E) 208
A

B) 26

58
Q

4) The ant Myrmecia pilosula is found in Australia and is named bulldog because of its aggressive behavior. It is particularly interesting because it carries all its genetic information in a single pair of chromosomes. In other words, 2n = 2. (Males are haploid and have just one chromosome.) Which of the following figures would most likely represent a correct configuration of chromosomes in a metaphase I cell of a female?

A

A) A

59
Q

5) For the purposes of this question, assume that a G1 somatic cell nucleus in a female Myrmecia pilosula contains 2 picograms of DNA. How much DNA would be expected in a metaphase I cell of a female?
A) 16 picograms
B) 32 picograms
C) 8 picograms
D) 4 picograms
E) Not enough information is provided to answer the question.

A

D) 4 picograms

60
Q
6) An interesting group of ants consists of several virtually identical, closely related species, with females having chromosome numbers of 18, 20, 32, 48, 60, 62, and 64. If one crossed a female of species (A) with 32 chromosomes and a male species (B) with 9 chromosomes (males are haploid, and each gamete contains the n complement), how many chromosomes would one expect in the body (somatic) cells of the female offspring?  
A) 4.5
B) 9
C) 25
D) 32
E) 41
A

C) 25

61
Q

7) What is the outcome of synapsis, a significant event in meiosis?
A) side-by-side alignment of nonhomologous chromosomes
B) dyad formation
C) monad movement to opposite poles
D) side-by-side alignment of homologous chromosomes
E) chiasma segregation

A

D) side-by-side alignment of homologous chromosomes

62
Q
8) In a healthy male, how many sperm cells would be expected to form from (a) 400 primary spermatocytes? (b) 400 secondary spermatocytes? 
A) (a) 800; 	(b) 800
B) (a) 1600; 	(b) 1600
C) (a) 1600; 	(b) 800
D) (a) 400; 	(b) 400
E) (a) 100; 	(b)  800
A

C) (a) 1600; (b) 800

63
Q
9) In a healthy female, how many secondary oocytes would be expected to form from 100 primary oocytes? How many first polar bodies would be expected from 100 primary oocytes?
A) 200; 50
B) 100; 50
C) 200; 300
D) 100; 100
E) 50; 50
A

D) 100; 100

64
Q

10) Which type of cell structure is the nucleolus organizer (NOR) responsible for producing?

A

Answer: ribosome

65
Q

11) Name two cellular organelles, each having genetic material, that are involved in either photosynthesis or respiration.

A

Answer: chloroplasts and mitochondria

66
Q

12) List four terms used to describe the normal morphologies, with respect to arm ratio, of eukaryotic chromosomes.

A

Answer: metacentric, submetacentric, acrocentric, telocentric

67
Q

13) Homologous chromosomes can be matched by their similar structure and function within a nucleus. Which chromosomes making up a genome do not follow the same characteristics of homology?

A

Answer: sex-determining chromosomes

68
Q

14) How many haploid sets of chromosomes are present in a diploid individual cell with a chromosome number of 46? 32?

A

2:2

69
Q

15) How many haploid sets of chromosomes are present in an individual cell that is tetraploid (4n)?

A

Answer: 4

70
Q

16) In which stage of the cell cycle is G0 located?

A

G1

71
Q

17) When cells withdraw from the continuous cell cycle and enter a “quiescent” phase, which stage are they said to be in?

A

Answer: G0

72
Q

18) The house fly, Musca domestica, has a haploid chromosome number of 6. How many chromatids should be present in a diploid, somatic, metaphase cell?

A

Answer: 24

73
Q

19) Regarding the mitotic cell cycle, what is meant by a checkpoint?

A

Answer: A part of a cell thats sensitive to a variety of conditions that impact the health of the cell

74
Q

20) After which meiotic stage (meiosis I or II) would one expect monads to be formed?

A

Answer: meiosis II

75
Q

22) The accompanying sketch depicts a cell from an organism in which 2n = 2 and each chromosome is metacentric.
(a) Circle the correct stage for the cell in this sketch:

A

Answer: (a) anaphase of meiosis II, 16

76
Q

23) You may have heard through various media of an animal alleged to be the hybrid of a rabbit and a cat. Given that the cat (Felis domesticus) has a diploid chromosome number of 38 and a rabbit (Oryctolagus cuniculus) has a diploid chromosome number of 44, what would be the expected chromosome number in the somatic tissues of this alleged hybrid?

A

Answer: 41

77
Q

24) The horse (Equus caballus) has 32 pairs of chromosomes, whereas the donkey (Equus asinus) has 31 pairs of chromosomes. How many chromosomes would be expected in the somatic tissue of a mule?

A

Answer: 63

78
Q

25) Name two evolutionarily significant benefits of meiosis that are not present in mitosis.

A

Answer: reshuffling of homologous chromosomes and crossing over

79
Q

26) What is meant by the term chiasma?

A

Answer: areas where chromatids intertwine during meiosis

80
Q

27) List in order of occurrence the phases of mitosis.

A

Answer: prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

81
Q

28) The two terms reductional and equational generally refer to which stages of meiosis (I or II)?

A

Answer: meiosis I and meiosis II, respectively

82
Q

29) Trisomy 21 or Down syndrome occurs when there is a normal diploid chromosomal complement of 46 chromosomes plus one (extra) chromosome 21. Such individuals therefore have 47 chromosomes. Assume that a mating occurs between a female with Down syndrome and a normal 46-chromosome male. What proportion of the offspring would be expected to have Down syndrome? Justify your answer.

A

Answer: 1/2 of the offspring would be expected to have Down syndrome because of 2 X 1 segregation of chromosome 21 at anaphase I.