Test 1 Flashcards
1
Q
What is ø zoonotic?
A
Demodicosis.
2
Q
Most common causes of lower urinary tract disease in cats?
A
Interstitial cystitis, urolithiasis.
3
Q
Thromboembolic meningoencephalitis ( TEME)/ features:
A
Haemophilus somnus disease of feedlot bulls with septicaemia, purulent pneumonia- encephalitis; progressive apathy, opisthotonus, lat recumbency, strabismus, somnolence.
4
Q
Bronchodilators for Eq in emergency treatment ( un RAO/ COPD)?
A
Atropine, Ipratropium.
5
Q
When serum parameters would be increased in this foal with Se- Vit E def?
A
AST, CK, LDH.
6
Q
Which is the appropriate liver enzyme gp for Ru ‘ hepatic enzymes?
A
AST, SDH, GLDH, ALP.
7
Q
The course of botulism in cattle:
A
Can be peracute, acute/ subacute.
8
Q
Eq pneumonia/ treatment/ anti- bacterial drugs?
A
Amoxicilin, gentamycin, metronidazole.
9
Q
Lab findings of a hepatopathy in Eq?
A
Br + BA + AST + GGT + GLDH + SDH increase.
10
Q
Gingivostomatitis in cats. Possible aetiology.
A
FIV.
11
Q
The most common congenital cardiac disease of Sus from the list below:
A
Congenital ventricular septal defect.
12
Q
Heterotrop impulse formation disorders/ ventricular?
A
Paroxsymal ventricular tachycardia, ventricular fibrillation, ventricular flutter.
13
Q
Vegetative endocarditis/ Sus/ most commonly affected cardiac valve?
A
Mitral valve.
14
Q
Which statement describes sycosis Eq?
A
Folliculitis long hair on the hock, dors margin of the neck, root of the tail.
15
Q
DIC: therapy?
A
Transfusion, heparin, fluid therapy.
16
Q
Fog fever/ cattle/ substance damage the alveoli?
A
3- methylindole.
17
Q
Dental diseases in Eq/ signs?
A
Riding difficulties, decreased appetite, weight loss, nasal discharge.
18
Q
Paraesthesia in cattle? For what disease is this symptom characteristic?
A
Aujeszky disease ( pseudorabies).
19
Q
Hyperlipidaemia of Eq/ occurrence/ aetiology?
A
Breed predisposition ( ponies, miniature), pregnancy, obesity, stress, anorexia.
20
Q
Diseases with haemorrhagic diathesis:
A
Chronic liver disease, DIC, von- Willebrand’s disease.
21
Q
COPD ( RAO)/ Bronchoalveolar lavage sample.
A
Neu > 20%.
22
Q
Hypoadrenocorticism of dogs: therapy?
A
Crisis: 0.9% saline, hydrocortisone, Later: fludrocortisone, prednisolone, salt.
23
Q
Polydipsia/ definition/ dog + cat?
A
Dog: H2O intake > 80 - 100ml/bwkg/d; Cat H2O intake > 100ml/bwkg/d.
24
Q
Photosensitisation/ Which statement is true?
A
Hypericum perforatum ( St. John’s wort) causes 1º photosensitisation.
25
Congenital heart diseases causing volume overload?
PDA, VSD.
26
Paraprostic cysts are?
Remnants of the Müllerian- duct/ retention cysts.
27
R. equi/ Eq?
Occurs in foals 1 - 6 mnths.
28
Which statement is ø true?
The ALP- isoenzymes in the cat: liver, bone, steroid induced isoenzymes.
29
Guttural pouch mycosis/ signs?
Epistaxis, nasal discharge, dysphagia, laryngeal paralysis, Horner syndrome.
30
Which drug can ø be applied for fel autoimmune dermatopathies?
Azathioprine.
31
Which statement is ø characteristic for the primer Cu accumulation?
The Cu accumulation is caused by cholestasis.
32
Congenital heart diseases causing p overload?
Aortic stenosis, pulmonic stenosis.
33
Traumatic perforating pericarditis/ specific symptoms/ cattle?
Increased, absolute cardiac dullness, auscultation decreased/ missing cardiac sounds, splashing sounds over the cardiac region, congested jugular vein, brisket oedema.
34
Common symptoms of chonic renal diseases?
Non- regenerative anemia, hypertension, blindness.
35
Secretolytics for Eq?
Acetylcysteine, bromhexine, dembrexine.
36
Skin lesions of acute porcine erysipelas:
Diffuse erythema, hemorrhages, diamond-shape red raised discolouration of skin.
37
Aortic insufficiency/ cardiac murmur/ characteristics?
III- VI/VI crescendo- descrescendo, diastolic murmur, often heard in Th inlet as well.
38
Free abd fluid: which statement is true?
Chyle is a milk- like fluid.
39
Immune- mediated haemolytic anaemia, characteristic lab findings?
Regenerative anemia, autoagglutination, sphaerocytosis.
40
What is the most common underlying disease in the case of bacterial folliculitis in dogs?
Atopic dermatitis.
41
Rhinitis/ cause/ dog
Foreign body, allergy, Aspergillus infection.
42
Which statement is TRUE for the lab signs of fatty liver syndrome in cows?
The blood urea conc usually decreases.
43
Fel viral leukemia/ aetiology?
Pathogen: retrovirus, Oncornavirinae family ( FeLV), infection: via saliva, via nasal secretions, in outdoor cats.
44
Atrial fibrillation in Eq:
Quinidine sulphate.
45
How would you treat a cat with interstitial cystitis ( FIC)?
Increase H2O intake.
46
Pathophysiology of post- exercise myopathy ( myoglobinuria paralytica)/ Eq?
Muscular- glycogen increase --> local LA increase --> vasoconstriction due to hypoxemia --> Zenker type myopathy --> muscular- paralysis + myoglobinuria.
47
Oesophageal obstruction/ cattle/ symptoms?
Oesophageal spasm, retching, regurgitation, 2º ruminal tympany.
48
COPD ( RAO)
Allergic disease.
49
Eq motor neuron disease/ cause?
Vit E def.
50
Which statement is ø characteristic for the 2º Cu accumulation?
Dobermann, labrador, Dalmatian have 2º Cu accumulation.
51
Tetanus/ aetiology, pathogenesis/ dog?
Anerobe wound + Cl tetani infection --> tetanospasmin- formation --> GABA + glycine inhibition.
52
Dysphagia/ causes/ Eq?
Disorders of the V, VII, IX, X, XII cran n.
53
What is the 2/3rd rule in connection with canine splenic disorders?
2/3rd of the splenic disorders are neoplastic proc.
54
Temporohyoid osteoarthropathy/ diagnostics/ which is ø true?
US.
55
What would cause central distension of the jugular v in the Eq?
Thrombophlebitis.
56
Treatment of laryngeal oedema?
Clenbuterol, furosemide, lidocaine.
57
L- sided abomasal displacement/ auscultation with percussion > displaced abomasum:
Diagnostic accuracy of 90 - 95%.
58
ACE- inhibitors
Ramipril, enalapril, benazipril.
59
Which treatment is ø affecting the severity of proteinuria?
- Renal diet.
- Antihypertensive drugs.
- Ω- 3 FA.
- ACE- inhibitors.
60
Causes of H2O belly?
Urinary calculi.
61
Portosystemic shunt. Diagnosis?
Intermittent clinical symptoms, neural/ digestive/ urinary symptoms, plasma azotaemia, increase BA ( PPBA), doppler ultrasonography.
62
Ethmoid hematoma surgery, which is ø true?
Dimethyl- sulfoxide inj.
63
Pulmonic oedema/ Sus/ aetiology?
Fumonisin B1 toxin.
64
Diabetes insipidus, which is correct:
The most effective drug in the central form is desmopressin.
65
Bo ringworm/ occurence, etiology?
Mainly in calves, Trichophyton verrucosum infection + predisposing factors.
66
Aujeszky's disease ( pseudorabies)/ Sus/ which statement is true?
Adults: neurological deficits are rare ( tic, ataxia), mainly respiratory symptoms.
67
Congestive heart failure/ 3rd stage, NYHA- grading?
Fatigue, collapse caused by exercise, abd oedema, ascites.
68
The ~ upper limit of inorganic phosphate in the plasma of the dog + cat is?
2 mmol/l.
69
IBD ( inflammatory bowel disease)/ diagnosis/ dog, cat?
With histopathologic examination of stomach/ intestines.
70
Pathomechanism of colic. What is ø typical?
Hyperthermia.
71
Temporohyoid osteoarthropathy/ CS?
Neurological, e.g head tilt, nystagmus.
72
Dermatomycosis of sheep/ etiology:
Trichophyton verrucosum + microsporum canis.
73
Which statement is ø true for chronic hepatitis in dog?
Centrolobular monoculear cell infiltration, inflammation, centrolobular necrosis, fibrosis.
74
Eq laryngeal hemiplegia/ diagnosis?
Grade 3: asynchronous movement, ø complete opening.
75
Pleuropneumonia/ Eq/ Predisposing factors?
Long distance transport.
76
Rubber jaw/ Underlying disorders/ dog.
Chronic renal disease, 2º hyperparathyroidism.
77
Characteristics of hydrocephalus in calves?
- Hereditary/ intrauterine BVD-virus; distorted skull.
| - Opisthotonus, spastic legs.
78
Causative agent of Eq proliferative enteropathy?
Lawsonia intracellularis.
79
Hoflund syndrome ( vagus indigestion) which statement is ø true?
The post functional stenosis occurs at the omaso- abomasal orifice, resulting in obturation of the omasum with rough fodder.
80
What may cause hypoglycaemia in the diabetic patient treated with insulin?
Anorexia, vomiting.
81
Normal values of blood serum K in cattle?
3 - 5 mmol/l.
82
Addison's disease in dogs/ diagnosis?
Na+/K+ <27, Cl- decrease, ACTH- stimulation test +.
83
Which statement is wrong? In acute kidney failure mannitol infusion...
Can be repeated up to x5 in case of anuria.
84
What is flea bite dermatitis?
Allergic dermatitis in dogs becoming allergic to the flea saliva protein after repeated flea- bite challenge; localization: lumbo- sacral region.
85
Tongue paralysis of Eq/ causes?
Rabies, botulism, Eq leukoencephalomalacia (ELE).
86
Characteristics of urticaria in Eq?
Can be caused by inhaled allergens (fungi), rounded wheels on the skin within mins/ hrs; usually fast healing, but it might reoccur.
87
2º, chronic- recurrent ruminal bloat/ aetiology?
Reticuloperitonitis, compression of oesophagus, partial obstruction of cardia.
88
The suspicion of antifreeze poisoning is supported by? Which answer is wrong?
The observation of marked halo-signs in kidneys during ultrasonography.
89
Small strongyles may cause?
Intussusception.
90
Which viruses can elicit polyfactorial calf diarrhea?
VD, rota- coronavirus.
91
Acute pancreatitis/ pathogenesis/ dog?
Premature, cascade- like activation of pancreas enzymes = autodigestion of pancreas.
92
Campylobacter spp./ cat therapy?
Treat if relevant CS appear.
93
Displacement of the abomasum (DA)/ pathogenesis/ cattle?
Feeding more grain + less fibre --> ++ VFA --> abomasal atony --> abomasal dilation --> PP period, small rumen --> DA.
94
Atropine toxicosis/Eq/ treatment?
Physostigmine.
95
Treating congestive heart disease, emergency situation/ dog, cat?
O2, furosemide IV, pimobendane infusion.
96
Severe acute gastroenteritis/ nutrition/ dog, cat?
Enteral feeding is suggested despite diarrhea.
97
Which is the 1st- choice drug in the treatment of 1º Cu storage disease?
D- penicillamine.
98
Neonatal pharyngeal weakness/ foal?
Physiologic up to 2 - 4 wks of age.
99
Which is ø associated with nephrosis syndrome?
Hypotension.
100
Which therapeutic measures decrease blood K level during the treatment of hyperkalaemia? Choose the wrong answer.
IV Ca.
101
Severe acute nephrosis/ combined aetiology/ Eq?
Endotoxemia + repeated flunixin meglumine + dehydration.
102
Clinical features of congenital hyposomatotropism?
German shepherd, pituitary cysts, proportionate dwarfism, alopecia.
103
IRIS stage- I chronic renal failure is associated with?
Decreased specific gravity of urine.
104
Fanconi syndrome symptoms in dogs: which answer is wrong?
Ketonuria.
105
Chronic endocardiosis in dogs/ characteristics?
Typically results in mitral valve, sometimes tricuspid valve insufficiency.
106
Grass sickness/ Eq/ characteristics?
Young Eq on pasture, neurologic disease.
107
What may cause hyper- glycemia in the diabetic patient treated with insulin?
The somogyi effect.
108
Prostatic tumors in dogs, which is ø true?
Can be removed by surgery.
109
The glutaraldehyde test from blood is detecting:
+ve acute phase proteins like globulin, fibrinogen.
110
Fungal rhinitis:
Aspergillus/ Cryptococcus in the O.
111
Which statement is ø true?
In microvascular dysplasia the abnormal BV can be detected by colour doppler US.
112
Eq laryngeal hemiplegia/ Diagnosis:
Endoscopy, palpation, " slap test".
113
Decompensated congestive heart failure/ drugs?
ACE- inhibitors, furosemide, pimobendane.
114
Definitive diagnosis of Eq leukoencephalomalacia?
Feed analysis + histopathology.
115
Which drug is ø an anti- fungal agent?
Marbocyl.
116
Thromoboembolic meningoencephalitis ( TEME)/ prognosis + treatment:
SA(sulfonamide) and ABs might help in early stage.
117
Physiological values of serum Na in Eq?
135 - 155 mmol/l.
118
Severe thrombocytopenia: causes?
AITP, babesiosis, DIC, Sertoli- cell tumour.
119
Prevention of epileptic seizures/ medication/ dog?
Phenobarbital, KBR.
120
Ectopic ureters. Which answer is wrong?
Are occurring only in F.
121
In which endocrine disorder there is ø polydipsia/ polyuria?
Hypothyroidism.
122
Botulism aetiology Eq.
Cl. botulinum + botulinum toxin contaminated carrion remnant in the feed e.g rotten silage, exceptionally Cl. botulinum infected wounds/ GI tract.
123
Most important sign of benign prostatic hypertrophy in dogs?
Blood dripping from urethra between urinations.
124
Renal cysts are..
Mainly incidental findings.
125
Symptoms of rabies in cattle.
Donkey- like roaring, aggressivity, hypersexuality, cran n paralysis, ascending paralysis of limbs, colic like symptoms.
126
Oliguria in the dog/ aetiology?
Inadequate H2O intake, dehydration, acute nephrosis.
127
Herpesvirus myeloencephalopathy CS/ Eq.
Resp. signs, followed by paraparesis, ataxia, dog sitting position, recumbency.
128
Cervicalstenotic myelopathy/ diagnostics
Myelography
129
Rabies vs Aujeszky's disease/ differences in symptoms/ dog + cat?
Anisocoria + paresthesia are common in Aujeszky's disease, attacking behaviour is common in rabies.
130
General therapy in Eq hepatitis diseases?
Diet restricted in protein, glucose IV, insulin, B-vit, antioxidants.
131
Subjective body cond scoring, BCS- system. Most often applied scale:
1- 5/ 1-9.
132
This disease is caused by Haemophilus somnus. The name of the disease is
Thromboembolic meningoencephalitis.
133
A common sequel of vesicouretheral reflux?
Pyelonephritis.
134
When does ketosis occur in ewes?
Twinbreed, in multiple bred ewes, in the 3rd trimester of pregnancy.
135
Aetiology of acute gastric dilation in Eq?
Highly fermentable feed + hard work after feeding.
136
Lymphangiectasia/ characteristics/ dog, cat?
Leads to protein losing enteropathy in severe case.
137
Causes of anaemia in chronic kidney patients. Which answer is ø correct?
Haemolysis.
138
Symptoms of tetanus in cattle?
Flag- tail position, facial paralysis, 2º ruminal bloat.
139
Acute 1º gastric dilation/ treatment/ Eq?
Gastric lavage by tubing, spasmolytics, IV fluid + electrolyte replacement, flunixin meglumine ( analgesia).
140
Large colon torsion/ outcome?
Operation can be successful within 8hrs, without surgery: death.
141
The reticulocyte index (RI) in regenerative anaemia is.
>2.5.
142
The progression of renal diseases caused by: which answer is ø correct?
Hyperparathyroidism.
143
Nasal tumors?
They can occur in any age, but mainly >5yrs.
144
Normal values of GGT activity in the blood serum of cattle?
<60 IU/l.
145
Which dermatological additional examination are they true for: it is quick, can be done in situ, it can be evaluated in 10mins, it may be helpful to distinguish the inflammatory from the neoplastic procedure?
Cytology.
146
Polyneuritis/ aetiology/ Eq?
EHV-1, adenovirus, Strep.
147
II degree atrio-ventricular block/ characteristics?
P- wave present, ventricular complex absent.
148
Which statement is ø true/ PSS/ dog?
The extrahepatic portosystemic shunt occurs in large breed dogs.
149
Bacterial rhinitis is almost always a 2º disease, usually with viral infection in the background:
Both statements are true.
150
What are the causes of pyrrolizidine- toxicosis in Eq?
Senecio, crotalaria-sp.
151
Acute pancreatitis/ symptoms/ dog?
Vomiting, abd pain, anorexia.
152
Normal values of blood serum creatinine in cattle?
50 - 150 µkromol/l.
153
Definitions of the grade 6/6 cardiac murmur?
This murmur is even audible with stethoscope lifted from the chest wall.
154
Which disease is accompanied by ascites in cat?
Lymphocytic cholangitis.
155
Which disease is abbreviation with ELE (M) + what is it's cause?
Eq leukoencephalomalacia, fumonisin- B1 toxin.
156
Classification of forestomach disorders as to their pathogenesis?
1º forestomach diseases= biochemical + motoric disorders.
157
L- sided abomasal displacement/ auscultation above displaced abomasum:
Diagnostic accuracy of 30 - 40%.
158
Congenital heart disease of dogs, which statement is ø true?
Tricuspid dysplasia mainly occurs in small breeds.
159
Which statement is ø true for the Ru hepatic diseases?
The lab changes always reflect the severity of the CS.
160
Tetralogy of Fallot consist from
Ventricular septal defect, aorta- transposition, pulmonary stenosis, RV hypertrophy.
161
Suggested examinations in abd distension of small animals.
Undulation test, abd US, X-ray, abdominocentesis.
162
Cerebral commotion in Eq/ treatment?
DMSO infusion.
163
What is the most common type of leukaemia in dogs?
Acute lymphoblastic leukemia.
164
Intracardiac shunt detection Eq?
Doppler echocardiography.
165
Vegetative endocarditis/ Sus/ aetiology?
Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae.
166
Shipping fever/ cattle/ etiology:
Mannheima ( pasteurella) haemolytica.
167
Urolithiasis of feedlot bulls/ pathogenesis?
Struvite in the bladder --> obstruction of the urethra --> rupture of the urethra.
168
Malignant catarrhal fever/ cattle/ transmission from which sp?
Sheep + goat.
169
Pathogenesis of acute rumen overload + dilatation:
Overfeeding with rough fodder- distension of rumen- compression of diaphragm + caud V. cava- shock, suffocation.
170
Prerenal azotemia.. Which is the wrong answer?
May be caused by urine leaking through the wall of the urinary organs.
171
Gastric torsion/ common cardiological complication?
Ventricular arrhythmias ( premature ventricular beats, ventricular tachycardia).
172
What is the cause of dermatitis- nephropathy syndrome ( PDNS)?
PCV- 2.
173
How would you classify the next drugs? Clorhexidin, povidone- iodine, iridrogen-peroxide, etil-laktat, benzoyl-peroxide, piroctone-olamine.
Antiseptic.
174
Which drug is ø antihistamine?
Flumetazon.
175
Causative agent of greasy Sus disease?
Staph hyicus.
176
Which sentence is true?
Collie + Shetland Sheepdog are predisposed to dermatomyositis.
177
Chronic endocardiosis in dogs/ occurrence rate on the cardiac valves:
Mitral 60%, mitral + tricuspid 30%, tricuspid 10%.
178
COPD (RAO)/ which statement is ø true/Eq?
Usually severe radiographic changes in the lungs: fibrosis, chronic oedema.
179
Causes + features of Tyzzer- disease in Eq?
Cl piliforme acute hepatitis in foals.
180
What is responsible for the signs suffering from hepatopathy?
NH3.
181
What treatment if ø adequate for a dog that drank 3dl antifreeze 12hrs ago?
D-penicillamine.
182
Large strongyles may cause?
Thromboembolism.
183
Dysphagia/ causes/ Eq?
E.g guttural pouch mycosis, retropharyngeal abscess, cleft palate.
184
Causes of hypertension in kidney patient; which answer is ø correct?
Dehydration.
185
Etiology + pathogenesis of fog fever/ cattle:
Grazing on pasture with rich vegetation- 3- methylindole pulmonary oedema, emphysema.
186
Blood in the urine is detected with?
Benzidine test.
187
Cause of paralytic ileus?
Enteritis, peritonitis, abd surgery ( postoperative stage).
188
2º dilation of the forestomachs can occur in?
Tetanus, atropine- poisoning, oesophageal obturation.
189
Bacterial endocarditis in Eq/ complication:
Disseminated, multifocal, purulent nephritis with renal infarcts.
190
Constrictive pericarditis of dogs + cats/ occurrence?
Generally uncommon, mainly in middle aged, large breed dogs, rare in cats.
191
Transitional cell carcinoma in the bladder:
May react to NSAID treatment.
192
Pleuritis, purulent- exudative/ cat/ symptoms?
Fever, Th exudate, mixed dyspnoea with increased inspiration efforts, disappearance of the Diernhofer triangle.
193
Grass sickness/ Eq/ cause?
Cl. botulinum.
194
Neurophysiologic background of botulism?
Paralysis of the striated m due to inhibited release of acetylcholine at the presynaptic motor n endings.
195
Cause of hepatosis dietetica in Sus?
Se/ Vit E def.
196
Length of the course of ( forestomach) diseases?
Peracute: a few hrs- 2d; acute: 3- 14d; subacute: 2- 4 wks; chronic: >4wks.
197
Rabies/ incubation period?
Usually 2-4 mnths, but can be longer if HL of the patient had been bitten.
198
Treatment of smoke inhalation?
Tracheostomy in case of severe laryngeal oedema, O2, bronchodilators, analgesics, glucocorticoids only in acute cardiovascular shock.
199
Which statement is ø typical for cat?
The portal hypertension, ascites + PU/ PD are common signs in hepatopathies of the cat.
200
Addison's disease in dogs/ causes, pathogenesis:
The 1º is due to auto- immune inflammation of the adrenals; The 2º disease is caused by incorrect glucocorticoids therapy.
201
The upper limit of total Br in the dog is
10 µkromol/l.
202
Which treatment does ø affect the PTH-level in chronic renal cases?
ACE- inhibitor therapy.
203
Oesophageal obturation/ treatment/ Eq?
Oxytocin, butylscopolamine, xylazine, oesophagostomy if other methods of removal fail.
204
Features of Eq herpesvirus myeloencephalopathy?
CNS signs usually appear in adult Eq after the respiratory signs.
205
Mild, acute, small intestinal diarrhea/ suggested additional examinations/ dog, cat?
Faecal analysis: parasitological examination + bacteriological culture.
206
Food allergy/ diagnosis/ dog, cat?
Hypoallergenic monodiet then provocation with the suspected causative agent.
207
Hypothyroidism of dogs: diagnosis?
Thyroxin decrease + TSH increase, free thyroxine decrease, TGAA +. TRH- stimulation test +.
208
D- vit toxicity/ which of the below statements is false?
Acute D-vit toxicity causes vomiting, hypercalcaemia, hypoglycaemia, ataxia, epileptiform seizures.
209
Intestinal motilisers for Eq ( prokinetics)
Neostigmine, Lidocaine.
210
What is the main + initiating cause of Ca- P imbalance in chronic renal failure?
Retention of P.
211
Tracheal hypoplasia/ cause/ occurrence/ dog?
Congenital, at the age of 4- 6 mnths, brachycephalic breeds.
212
Acute colitis/ dog, cat/ CS?
Small amt, pudding- like, mucinous, bloody ( haematochezia) diarrhea.
213
CS possibly related to oesophageal gastric ulceration?
Anaemia, Teeth grinding, Tar- like faeces.
214
Important blood parameters in anemia:
RBC, PCV, TP, TBr, FE, PTT.
215
Common cause of regurgitation in sows?
Constriction of the oesophageal inlet due to gastric ulceration related scarring.
216
Features of von- Willebrand's disease:
Prolonged surgical bleeding.
217
Ketone bodies in the urine are detected by:
Na nitroprusid reagent.
218
Pharmalogical classification of vincristine?
Chemotherapeutic drug.
219
Rodenticide poisoning: causes + pathogenesis?
Dicoumarol type rodenticides --> vit- K antagonism --> clotting time increases --> bleeding.
220
Post functional stenosis/ which statement is ø true?
The post functional stenosis is characterised by foamy- creamy content of rumen, abomasum.
221
The upper limit of NH3 in the serum of cattle is less than?
60 µkromol/l.
222
Rabies vs Aujeszky's disease/ course/ dog + cat?
Overlapping between the course of the 2 diseases is possible.
223
Chorioptes mange affects Eq?
Limbs.
224
Grass sickness/ Eq/ CS?
Obstipation, nasogastric reflux, ptosis, m fasciculations.
225
Which of the following terms characterise atopy?
Genetically- predisposed inflammatory + pruritis allergic skin disease with characteristic clinical features associated with IgE Ab most commonly directed against environmental allergens.
226
Treatment of benign prostatic hypertrophy in dogs?
Only in symptomatic cases, castration, finasteride.
227
Glãsser's disease/ Sus/ aetiology?
Haemophilus parasuis.
228
What are the symptoms of R abomasal displacement with torsion?
Acute course, severe deterioration, anorexia, atony of rumen, increased drinking, painful abdomen, tachycardia, small amt of dark + creamy faeces.
229
Spasmodic colic/ symptoms?
Mild/ moderate colic in attacks, -ve rectal findings, fast course, favourable outcome.
230
Hypoadrenocortism:
1º cortisol decreased, aldosterone decreased.
231
The 2nd most common congenital cardiac diseases of Cars?
Congenital atrioventricular ( A-V) dysplasia, congenital ventricular septal defect.
232
Which parasites cause enteritis in Ru?
Nematodirus, Cryptosporidium, Ostertagia sp.
233
How long has the supf pyoderma to be treated by systemic Ab?
3 wk long.
234
Idiopathic headshaking/ cause.
Trigeminal neuralgia.
235
Tracheal collapse in Eq/ occurrence
Ponies, miniature Eq.
236
Characteristics of endocrine skin disorders?
Symmetrical hyperpigmentation/ alopecia on the skin, abnormal skin thickness/ thinness, chronic course.
237
For what kind of purposes do we use the DAMNIT-V scheme?
For constructing a list of DD based on anatomical + pathophysiological features of the diseases.
238
Causes of mechanical ileus in Eq:
Intestinal obturation, intestinal compression, intestinal torsion.
239
Treatment of obesity- which of the below statements is true?
Commercial BW reduction diets are useful because with reduced E intake, the feeling of satiety is easily achievable.
240
Oesophageal obturation/ predilectory places/ cattle?
Behind the pharynx, Th inlet, heart base, entrance of the cardia.
241
Which type of pyoderma is the ' hot spot'?
Surface.
242
When should you send a colic Eq to an Eq clinic?
Colic despite of medical therapy, tympany, clinical/ rectal findings reveal severe diseases, pulse constantly >50 beats/min, ø responding well to therapy, local cond.
243
EIPH/ Eq/ therapy
Furosemide.
244
Anti- emetics/ dog?
Chlorpromazine, tiethylperazine, maropitant, metoclopramide.
245
Patent ductus arteriosus/ characteristics of the cardiac murmur?
Machinery cardiac murmur, best heard at the L heart base, accompanied by fremitus.
246
The most common congenital cardiac disease of dogs in Europe
Congenital aortic stenosis.
247
Piglet anaemia/ treatment, prevention/ timing of parenteral Fe supply?
Parenteral Fe supply 2nd- 5th days after birth.
248
Pathophysiology of obesity- which of the below statements is true?
Hyperplastic obesity occurs mainly in growing animals.
249
Can be utilised in urocystitis prevention?
- Urine alkalisation.
- Urine acidification.
- Diuresis.
None of the above.
250
Tetanus/ dog/ which statement is ø true?
Partial tetanus is more common than the generalised form.
251
Aspiration pneumonia/ localization of dullness + abnormal respiratory sounds/ Eq?
Lower 3rd of the thorax, over the heart base.
252
Common cause of viral hepatitis in Sus?
PCV-2.
253
Piglet anaemia occurence?
Among fast growing feedlot piglets during intensive technology + without Fe supply.
254
The most important aspect of struvite urolithiasis treatment in dogs?
- Diet.
- Ab.
- Urine acidification.
None of them from above.
255
Enzooticus leukosis of cattle/ aetiology, infection?
C- type oncovirus/ Retroviridae family; infection by blood, transplacentary infection.
256
Which drug is less effective in canine demodicosis?
Amitraz collar.
257
Acute blood loss anaemia/ Therapy:
- Stop bleeding, give hydroxyethyl starch IV + fresh frozen plasma.
- Treatment of shock.
- Transfusion if PCV< 20%.
258
Characteristics of iatrogenic osteoporosis/ dog
After long- term glucocorticoid therapy --> decrease osteoblast activity + decrease Ca- utilisation.
259
Physiological values of serum Cl in cattle?
100 - 120 mmol/l.
260
Viral stomatitis/ aetiology/ Ru?
Aphtovirus, morbillivirus, pestivirus.
261
If a dog is azotemia, then? ( choose the R answer)
The NH3 level is increased in it's blood.
262
How can we treat pleuropneumonia in Eq?
Antimicrobial therapy, flunixin, meglumin, Th drainage.
263
What can cause purulent hepatitis in cows?
Chronic subclinical ruminal acidosis.
264
Haemorrhagic gastroenteritis ( HGE)/ dog/ diagnosis?
Hematocrit ( PCV) is significantly increased due to hypovolaemia.
265
Acromegaly, causes?
Dog: P4 treatment, mammary gl tumour, ovarian cyst; Cat: pituitary tumour.
266
Physiological upper limit of blood urea in Eq?
10 mmol/l.
267
Treatment of frothy bloat
Anti-foaming agents via special gastric tube, evacuation of ruminal content in severe cases.
268
Which statement is ø true for Ru's hepatic parasites?
Stress around parturition + anorexia do ø influence the development of the disease.
269
Fel bronchial disease/ fel asthma?
Paroxysmal, dry, ' hacking' cough, open mouth ( loud) breathing, prolonged expiration.
270
Thromboembolic meningoencephalitis ( TEME)/ other name of the disease + it's occurrence?
Sleeping disease, feedlot bulls.
271
Rodenticide poisoning: diagnostic tests
Clotting time> 20 mins; prothrombin time> 15s
272
Hepatitis caused by viruses/ dog + cat?
Rubarth disease ( CAV-1), herpesvirus caused hepatitis, FIP.
273
Cerebral commotion in Eq/ consequences?
Recumbency, bleeding from the nostrils + from the ears.
274
Most common localisation of bacterial endocarditis in Eq?
Mostly the aortic + mitral valve.
275
Most common predisposing factor of oral necrobacillosis in Sus
Mechanical trauma.
276
Which statement is true?
The blood level of the hepatocellular enzymes ( ALT, AST) is elevated 1ºly in case of necrosis, inflammation, increased permeability of the hepatocyte membrane.
277
Oesophageal obturation in Eq/ etiology:
Solid pieces of feed ( apple, potato, sugar beet).
278
What is ' endotoxin'?
Lipopolysaccharide molecule in the cell wall of Gr- bacteria.
279
Which is associated with portal hypertension?
Arterioportal/ arterio- venosus fistula.
280
Facial paralysis/ aetiology/ Eq?
Guttural pouch mycosis, otitis media.
281
Upper limit of Cl in the rumen fluid/ cattle?
< 30mmol/l.
282
The aortic insufficiency of the Eq is characterised by?
Strong holodiastolic cardiac murmur, in the L, 4th IC space, bumping pulse, rather in adult Eq.
283
Dors displacement of soft palate/ cause?
Neuromuscular problems.
284
Treatment of CKD patients include: ( which ans is ø correct)?
Diuretics/os.
285
Parvoviral enteritis/ dog/ therapy?
Intestinal diet/ enteral nutrition, Ab, fluid therapy.
286
Tricuspid insufficiency/ occurrence/ cattle?
The most common type of bacterial endocarditis in cattle.
287
Eq motor neuron disease/ cause?
Vit E def.
288
The upper physiological value of coagulation time in Eq:
<25 mins.
289
Which is true?
Lymphoid hyperplasia typically affects young Eq.
290
The upper limit of serum K in Eq?
5 mmol/l.
291
Mycotic stomatitis of Eq/ aetiology?
Candidiasis, satratoxicosis.
292
Which is ø predilection site for canine Sarcoptes infestation?
Back.
293
ß- blocker antiarrhythmic drugs?
Atenolol, propanolol, esmolol.
294
Severe FORL ( Fel odontoclastic resorptive lesions)/ treatment/ cat?
Tooth extraction/ crown amputation.
295
Forms of lymphoma in dogs?
Mediastinal, alimentary, multicentric.
296
Oesophageal obturation/ symptoms/ Eq:
Oesophageal spasm, retching, regurgitation, aspiration pneumonia.
297
Parasitic bronchitis + pneumonia/ cattle/ aetiology?
Dictyocaulus viviparous.
298
What is the most important test for diagnosing glomerulonephropathies?
Detection of severe proteinuria.
299
Fe def anaemia of Car: causes?
Severe flea infestation, worms, gastric ulcer, Fe deficient food.
300
Borders of Diernhofer triangle?
In front: caud part of the heart; From behind: diaphragmatic line.
301
COPD ( RAO)/ Drugs/ Eq?
Clenbuterol, atropine, fluticasone.
302
' Fat- derived peptides'/ Effects of cytokines + hormones produced by adipocytes?
Mild chronic inflammation, long- lasting oxidative stress.
303
Blood- sucking lice in Eq:
Haematopinus acini can cause anaemia in foals.
304
Characteristics of Eq leukoencephalomalacia (ELE)?
Food contaminated with moulds --> Fumonisin- B1 toxin: encephalomalacia --> dysphagia, dyskinesis --> recumbency.
305
Grading of gastric ulcers/ Eq:
0 - 4.
306
Etiology of 2º photodermatitis in Eq?
Accumulation of phylloerythrin caused by hepatic insufficiency.
307
Laryngeal paralysis dog/ infectious O?
Rabies, Aujeszky's disease, botulism.
308
Congenital heart diseases in cats? occurrence?
CHD in cats are less common than in dogs there is ø breed + sex predilection.
309
What hereditary skin disease is lethal?
Grey collie syndrome.
310
Stomatitis of Eq/ viral + fungal O/ causes?
Vesiculovirus, candidiasis, satratoxicosis.
311
Cerebellar hypoplasia in calves can be caused by:
Intrauterine BVD infection.
312
IRIS classification of CKD. Which ans is wrong?
In stage-I the creatinine level is only mildly elevated.
313
Appropriate speed of loosing BW, Dog
1- 2% of BW/ week.
314
Appropriate speed of losing BW, Cat
0.5 - 1 % of BW/ week.
315
Dysphagia of viral/ bacterial O in cattle/ aetiology?
Rabies, Aujeszky's- disease, brain stem abscess.
316
PPID diagnosis:
Measuring ACTH, dexamethasone suppression test.
317
The upper physiological value of prothrombin time in Eq?
< 20s.
318
Megaoesphagus/ cause/ dog?
Disorders accompanied with neuromuscular dysfunction.
319
Photosensitisation/ which statement is ø true?
Fagopyrum esculentum + lupinus albus cause 2º photosensitisation.
320
Which statement is ø true for lymphocytic cholangitis in cat?
The result of bile culture obtained by cholecystocentesis adherent invasive E coli ( AIEC).
321
Causes of glomerular diseases in SA. Which ans is ø correct?
Ischemia, nephrotoxic materials.
322
MCF/ cattle/ aetiology?
Herpesvirus ( OHV- 2).
323
Which statement is ø true for Ru's hepatic parasites?
Melarsomine can be given both against F. hepatica + Dicrocoelium dendritium.
324
Laxatives for Eq?
Mineral oil, MgSo4, Na2SO4.
325
Cerebral commotion ( concussion) in Eq/ prognosis?
Usually favourable.
326
Normal values of serum total BA in cattle:
< 120 micromol/l.
327
Common physiological arrhythmia in Eq?
2nd degree atrioventricular block.
328
Cleft palate in Eq?
Signs: dysphagia, nasal discharge with food particles.
329
Parasitic bronchitis + pneumonia/ sheep/ etiology:
Dictyocaulus filaria, protostrongylida spp.
330
Lissencephaly ( lyssencephalon)/ definition?
Congenital under- development ( lack of development) of the suici + gyri of the cortex.
331
Mitral insufficiency/ symptoms/ Eq?
Holosystolic cardiac murmur in L 5th IC space, tachypnoea, dyspnoea, L- heart failure.
332
Lab alterations in the blood during reticuloperitonitis?
Glutaraldehyde test +, plasmafibrinogen increase, plasmaglob increase.
333
I degree atrio- ventricular block/ characteristics?
Prolonged PQ interval.
334
Which statement is ø true?
The glucocorticoid therapy always lead an irreversible necrosis in the liver.
335
EPI/ diagnosis/ dog:
Serum TLI ( Tryp- like immunoreactivity) measurement.
336
IAD/ treatment?
Steroid.
337
Occurrence of dilated cardiomyopathy in Ru
The disease occurs in cattle.
338
The effect of pimobendane?
+ve inotropic drug, with some vasodilator effect.
339
Pharmacological effect of chemotherapeutic agents?
Drive the normal + neoplastic cells into apoptosis.
340
Piglet anaemia/ then to treat/os:
Fe supply/os within 1st 12hrs of life.
341
Which parasites does ø cause parasitic encephalitis/ myelitis?
Gasterophilus larvae.
342
Physiological limits of the pH in the rumen fluid/ cattle.
6.3 - 7.1.
343
Renal amyloidosis typically found in which cat breed?
Abyssinian.
344
Oesophageal obturation/ prognosis/ Eq?
Mostly favourable.
345
Caud shift of the caud lung border. It is characteristic for?
RAO.
346
Which statement is true regarding porcine enterovirus diseases?
The other name of the infectious Sus paralysis is Teschen disease.
347
L- sided abomasal displacement/ auscultation with ballotment above displaced abomasum:
Diagnostic accuracy of 50 - 60%.
348
Normal values of blood glucose in Eq?
3- 5 mmol/l.
349
What is polycythaemia absoluta vera?
Benign bone marrow neoplasm, which is causing elevated packed cell volume ( PCV).
350
Causes + route of infection of pyelonephritis in cows?
Corynebacterium renale, puerperal trauma of the uterus/ vagina, mainly ascending, rarely hematogenous infection.
351
The upper limit of total Ca in the plasma of the dog is?
3 mmol/l.
352
Which treatment (s) is ( are) suggested in the long- term treatment of canine atopic dermatitis?
Allergen specific immunotherapy ( hyposensibilisation).
353
Ethmoid hematoma/ cause?
Angiomatous tissue overgrowth.
354
Real colic is?
All diseases causing abd pain.
355
Eq herpesvirus myeloencephalopathy. Which statement is ø true?
It is caused by EHV- 2, on immuno- mediated basis, due to type 3 hypersensibilization.
356
Bronchitis- pneumonia/ Etiology/ Obligate pathogenic viruses/ Eq.
Eq herpesvirus- 1 + 4, Eq influenza virus-A, African Eq sickness virus.
357
Most common localisation of bacterial endocarditis/ Sus:
Mostly the mitral valve.
358
Characteristics of the additional adventitious respiratory sounds (bronchi)?
They can never be heard under normal physiological cond.
359
Atropine toxicosis/ Eq/ treatment?
Physostigmine.
360
Hypoglycemia of piglets/ CS:
In 2- 5 d old piglets, weakness, somnolentia, spasms, hypothermia, death, blood sugar < 3.0 mmol/l.
361
Possible causes of hydronephrosis
Ureter stone.
362
Cushing's syndrome in dogs: diagnosis?
Confirmation: LDDST, ACTHST; Differentiation of forms: abd US, HDDST, ACTH.
363
SCC/ occurrence/ cat?
The most common malignant tumour of the oral cavity.
364
EGUS/ CS/ foals/ ø true?
Fever.
365
Nomotopic impulse formation disorder?
Sinus tachycardia, respiratory arrhythmia, sick sinus syndrome.
366
Oesophageal obturation/ etiology/ Eq:
1º: dry, chopped food; 2º: other oesophageal diseases.
367
Oesophageal obturation/ suggested device for treatment/ cattle?
Thygesen probang.
368
AHDS- Acute haemorrhagic diarrhea syndrome/ dog, cat
Former name: HGE- haemorrhagic gastroenteritis.
369
What is the pathognomic symptom of Cushing's syndrome?
Calcinosis cutis.
370
Oesophageal obturation/ treatment/ cattle
Trying to remove by hand if obstruction behind the pharynx.
371
Which statement is true regarding porcine enterovirus diseases?
The infectious Sus paralysis should be officially reported to the local Vet authorities, it has an unfavourable prognosis.
372
Symptoms of Hoflund- syndrome/ ant functional stenosis?
Recurrent bloat, dilation of rumen, ruminal content is thin- liquid, ø sounds can be heard above the rumen.
373
Blister beetle causes?
Diarrhea, haematuria, hypomagnesemia, hypocalcaemia.
374
Colitis aetiology/ Eq?
Salmonella, certain Ab, blister beetle.
375
Characteristics of MEED ( Multisystemic Eosinophilic Epitheliotropic Disease)? Which is ø true:
GI reflux.
376
Regurgitation/ definition?
Retrograde evacuation of undigested food from oesophagus by passive way.
377
Secretolytics for Eq?
Terbutaline, imodium.
378
Physiological values of blood bicarbonate in Eq
20 - 25 mmol/l.
379
Common complication of bacterial endocarditis in Eq?
Disseminated purulent nephritis.
380
Symptoms of lower urinary tract disease in SA? Which answer is wrong?
Polyuria, azotemia.
381
Pathogenesis of L- sided abomasal displacement:
FFA production increase --> abomasal atony --> gas + fluid increase --> abomasal dilation --> the abomasum is fixed between the abd wall + rumen.
382
COPD ( RAO) common occurrence:
In older Eq kept in stables + getting mouldy hay.
383
Which is ø associated with portal hypertension?
Hepatic microvascular hypoplasia.
384
Oesophageal obturation/ most common complication/ Eq?
Aspiration pneumonia.
385
Brachycephalic airway syndrome?
2º to congenital airway malformations ( stenotic nares, elongated soft palate, hypoplastic trachea laryngeal saccular oedema + eversion).
386
Mitral insufficiency/ Symptoms/ Sus
Holosystolic cardiac murmur in the L 4th IC space, CS of lung oedema.
387
Approximate normal value of hematocrit in Eq:
0.40.
388
Oliguria/ definition/ dog?
Urine output < 6- 10 ml/ ttkg/d.
389
Causes of acute interstitial nephritis in small animals?
Leptospirosis.
390
Oesophageal obturation/ common complication/ cattle?
2º ruminal bloat.
391
Occurrence of osteomalatia in cattle?
Disorder in Ca/ P maintenance, older cows, pregnancy/ lactation, in endemic regions.
392
Physiologic coagulation time ( in glass tube) in dogs?
< 2 - 5 mins. ( 5- 10).
393
Physiological values of RBC in dogs:
5 - 10 T/l.
394
Characteristics of botulism inj
Contaminated feed/ pasture with cadavers, 3 - 17 d incubation period, unaffected consciousness, generalized, flaccid paralysis of the striated m, dysfunction in comprehension of the feed, dysphagia, paralysis of the tongue + tail --> respiratory paralysis.
395
1º dilation of the forestomachs can occur in?
Frothy bloat, ruminal acidosis, ruminant putrefaction.
396
Hypothyroidism of dogs: symptoms?
Activity decrease, obesity, alopecia, thick skin, bradycardia, fertility decrease.
397
Canine chronic bronchitis?
Daily cough for > 2mnths, prolonged expiration + an expiratory push.
398
Eq gastric ulcer/ treatment/ Eq?
H2 antagonist, proton pump inhibitor, sucralfate.
399
Viral bronchitis/ viral pneumonia in cattle
RS virus pneumonia, viral diarrhea VD, infectious rhinotracheitis caused by herpesvirus.
400
Fog fever/ cattle/ occurrence
Only in grazing adults.
401
Which disease most ressembles rabies in Eq?
Eq leukoencephalomalacia ELE.
402
Bronchodilators for Eq
Clenbuterol, albuterol, aminophylline ( theophylline).
403
Ventricular septal defect/ detection/ dog
Doppler echocardiography, localisation usually just below the aortic root.
404
Which is ø a form of vena portae hypoplasia?
Arterioportal/ arteriovenosus fistula.
405
Additional diagnostic methods in Eq hepatic diseases:
US examination, US guided biopsy.
406
Sheep/ pregnancy toxaemia/ treatment:
Early stage: oral propylene glycol, oral Ca, K + insulin, oral calf commercial electrolyte solutions containing glucose; Late stage: dexamethasone to induce parturition.
407
The most common cardiac disease in cats:
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy HCM.
408
3rd degree atrio- ventricular block:
Multiple P waves + ø PQR.
409
Characteristics of pityriasis rosea in Sus:
Idiopathic congenital disease in piglets, circular erythemous skin lesion on the central abdomen with central scaling, favourable prognosis.
410
Acromegaly treatment?
Ovariohysterectomy.
411
Babesiosis treatment:
Imidocarb dipropionate, Diminazene aceturate, Atavaquone, Azithromycin.
412
Signs of Fe def anaemia in piglets:
Hypochromic, microcytic, reduced haemoglob content.
413
West Nile Virus encephalomyelitis:
Occurrence between April + July.
414
Symptoms of haemolytic anaemia:
Icterus, haemoglobinuria, bilirubinuria, splenomegaly.
