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Interanal Medicine 3 > Test 1 > Flashcards

Test 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is ø zoonotic?

A

Demodicosis.

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2
Q

Most common causes of lower urinary tract disease in cats?

A

Interstitial cystitis, urolithiasis.

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3
Q

Thromboembolic meningoencephalitis ( TEME)/ features:

A

Haemophilus somnus disease of feedlot bulls with septicaemia, purulent pneumonia- encephalitis; progressive apathy, opisthotonus, lat recumbency, strabismus, somnolence.

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4
Q

Bronchodilators for Eq in emergency treatment ( un RAO/ COPD)?

A

Atropine, Ipratropium.

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5
Q

When serum parameters would be increased in this foal with Se- Vit E def?

A

AST, CK, LDH.

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6
Q

Which is the appropriate liver enzyme gp for Ru ‘ hepatic enzymes?

A

AST, SDH, GLDH, ALP.

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7
Q

The course of botulism in cattle:

A

Can be peracute, acute/ subacute.

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8
Q

Eq pneumonia/ treatment/ anti- bacterial drugs?

A

Amoxicilin, gentamycin, metronidazole.

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9
Q

Lab findings of a hepatopathy in Eq?

A

Br + BA + AST + GGT + GLDH + SDH increase.

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10
Q

Gingivostomatitis in cats. Possible aetiology.

A

FIV.

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11
Q

The most common congenital cardiac disease of Sus from the list below:

A

Congenital ventricular septal defect.

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12
Q

Heterotrop impulse formation disorders/ ventricular?

A

Paroxsymal ventricular tachycardia, ventricular fibrillation, ventricular flutter.

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13
Q

Vegetative endocarditis/ Sus/ most commonly affected cardiac valve?

A

Mitral valve.

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14
Q

Which statement describes sycosis Eq?

A

Folliculitis long hair on the hock, dors margin of the neck, root of the tail.

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15
Q

DIC: therapy?

A

Transfusion, heparin, fluid therapy.

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16
Q

Fog fever/ cattle/ substance damage the alveoli?

A

3- methylindole.

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17
Q

Dental diseases in Eq/ signs?

A

Riding difficulties, decreased appetite, weight loss, nasal discharge.

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18
Q

Paraesthesia in cattle? For what disease is this symptom characteristic?

A

Aujeszky disease ( pseudorabies).

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19
Q

Hyperlipidaemia of Eq/ occurrence/ aetiology?

A

Breed predisposition ( ponies, miniature), pregnancy, obesity, stress, anorexia.

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20
Q

Diseases with haemorrhagic diathesis:

A

Chronic liver disease, DIC, von- Willebrand’s disease.

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21
Q

COPD ( RAO)/ Bronchoalveolar lavage sample.

A

Neu > 20%.

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22
Q

Hypoadrenocorticism of dogs: therapy?

A

Crisis: 0.9% saline, hydrocortisone, Later: fludrocortisone, prednisolone, salt.

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23
Q

Polydipsia/ definition/ dog + cat?

A

Dog: H2O intake > 80 - 100ml/bwkg/d; Cat H2O intake > 100ml/bwkg/d.

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24
Q

Photosensitisation/ Which statement is true?

A

Hypericum perforatum ( St. John’s wort) causes 1º photosensitisation.

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25
Q

Congenital heart diseases causing volume overload?

A

PDA, VSD.

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26
Q

Paraprostic cysts are?

A

Remnants of the Müllerian- duct/ retention cysts.

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27
Q

R. equi/ Eq?

A

Occurs in foals 1 - 6 mnths.

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28
Q

Which statement is ø true?

A

The ALP- isoenzymes in the cat: liver, bone, steroid induced isoenzymes.

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29
Q

Guttural pouch mycosis/ signs?

A

Epistaxis, nasal discharge, dysphagia, laryngeal paralysis, Horner syndrome.

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30
Q

Which drug can ø be applied for fel autoimmune dermatopathies?

A

Azathioprine.

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31
Q

Which statement is ø characteristic for the primer Cu accumulation?

A

The Cu accumulation is caused by cholestasis.

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32
Q

Congenital heart diseases causing p overload?

A

Aortic stenosis, pulmonic stenosis.

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33
Q

Traumatic perforating pericarditis/ specific symptoms/ cattle?

A

Increased, absolute cardiac dullness, auscultation decreased/ missing cardiac sounds, splashing sounds over the cardiac region, congested jugular vein, brisket oedema.

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34
Q

Common symptoms of chonic renal diseases?

A

Non- regenerative anemia, hypertension, blindness.

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35
Q

Secretolytics for Eq?

A

Acetylcysteine, bromhexine, dembrexine.

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36
Q

Skin lesions of acute porcine erysipelas:

A

Diffuse erythema, hemorrhages, diamond-shape red raised discolouration of skin.

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37
Q

Aortic insufficiency/ cardiac murmur/ characteristics?

A

III- VI/VI crescendo- descrescendo, diastolic murmur, often heard in Th inlet as well.

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38
Q

Free abd fluid: which statement is true?

A

Chyle is a milk- like fluid.

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39
Q

Immune- mediated haemolytic anaemia, characteristic lab findings?

A

Regenerative anemia, autoagglutination, sphaerocytosis.

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40
Q

What is the most common underlying disease in the case of bacterial folliculitis in dogs?

A

Atopic dermatitis.

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41
Q

Rhinitis/ cause/ dog

A

Foreign body, allergy, Aspergillus infection.

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42
Q

Which statement is TRUE for the lab signs of fatty liver syndrome in cows?

A

The blood urea conc usually decreases.

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43
Q

Fel viral leukemia/ aetiology?

A

Pathogen: retrovirus, Oncornavirinae family ( FeLV), infection: via saliva, via nasal secretions, in outdoor cats.

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44
Q

Atrial fibrillation in Eq:

A

Quinidine sulphate.

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45
Q

How would you treat a cat with interstitial cystitis ( FIC)?

A

Increase H2O intake.

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46
Q

Pathophysiology of post- exercise myopathy ( myoglobinuria paralytica)/ Eq?

A

Muscular- glycogen increase –> local LA increase –> vasoconstriction due to hypoxemia –> Zenker type myopathy –> muscular- paralysis + myoglobinuria.

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47
Q

Oesophageal obstruction/ cattle/ symptoms?

A

Oesophageal spasm, retching, regurgitation, 2º ruminal tympany.

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48
Q

COPD ( RAO)

A

Allergic disease.

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49
Q

Eq motor neuron disease/ cause?

A

Vit E def.

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50
Q

Which statement is ø characteristic for the 2º Cu accumulation?

A

Dobermann, labrador, Dalmatian have 2º Cu accumulation.

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51
Q

Tetanus/ aetiology, pathogenesis/ dog?

A

Anerobe wound + Cl tetani infection –> tetanospasmin- formation –> GABA + glycine inhibition.

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52
Q

Dysphagia/ causes/ Eq?

A

Disorders of the V, VII, IX, X, XII cran n.

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53
Q

What is the 2/3rd rule in connection with canine splenic disorders?

A

2/3rd of the splenic disorders are neoplastic proc.

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54
Q

Temporohyoid osteoarthropathy/ diagnostics/ which is ø true?

A

US.

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55
Q

What would cause central distension of the jugular v in the Eq?

A

Thrombophlebitis.

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56
Q

Treatment of laryngeal oedema?

A

Clenbuterol, furosemide, lidocaine.

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57
Q

L- sided abomasal displacement/ auscultation with percussion > displaced abomasum:

A

Diagnostic accuracy of 90 - 95%.

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58
Q

ACE- inhibitors

A

Ramipril, enalapril, benazipril.

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59
Q

Which treatment is ø affecting the severity of proteinuria?

A
  • Renal diet.
  • Antihypertensive drugs.
  • Ω- 3 FA.
  • ACE- inhibitors.
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60
Q

Causes of H2O belly?

A

Urinary calculi.

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61
Q

Portosystemic shunt. Diagnosis?

A

Intermittent clinical symptoms, neural/ digestive/ urinary symptoms, plasma azotaemia, increase BA ( PPBA), doppler ultrasonography.

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62
Q

Ethmoid hematoma surgery, which is ø true?

A

Dimethyl- sulfoxide inj.

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63
Q

Pulmonic oedema/ Sus/ aetiology?

A

Fumonisin B1 toxin.

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64
Q

Diabetes insipidus, which is correct:

A

The most effective drug in the central form is desmopressin.

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65
Q

Bo ringworm/ occurence, etiology?

A

Mainly in calves, Trichophyton verrucosum infection + predisposing factors.

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66
Q

Aujeszky’s disease ( pseudorabies)/ Sus/ which statement is true?

A

Adults: neurological deficits are rare ( tic, ataxia), mainly respiratory symptoms.

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67
Q

Congestive heart failure/ 3rd stage, NYHA- grading?

A

Fatigue, collapse caused by exercise, abd oedema, ascites.

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68
Q

The ~ upper limit of inorganic phosphate in the plasma of the dog + cat is?

A

2 mmol/l.

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69
Q

IBD ( inflammatory bowel disease)/ diagnosis/ dog, cat?

A

With histopathologic examination of stomach/ intestines.

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70
Q

Pathomechanism of colic. What is ø typical?

A

Hyperthermia.

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71
Q

Temporohyoid osteoarthropathy/ CS?

A

Neurological, e.g head tilt, nystagmus.

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72
Q

Dermatomycosis of sheep/ etiology:

A

Trichophyton verrucosum + microsporum canis.

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73
Q

Which statement is ø true for chronic hepatitis in dog?

A

Centrolobular monoculear cell infiltration, inflammation, centrolobular necrosis, fibrosis.

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74
Q

Eq laryngeal hemiplegia/ diagnosis?

A

Grade 3: asynchronous movement, ø complete opening.

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75
Q

Pleuropneumonia/ Eq/ Predisposing factors?

A

Long distance transport.

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76
Q

Rubber jaw/ Underlying disorders/ dog.

A

Chronic renal disease, 2º hyperparathyroidism.

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77
Q

Characteristics of hydrocephalus in calves?

A
  • Hereditary/ intrauterine BVD-virus; distorted skull.

- Opisthotonus, spastic legs.

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78
Q

Causative agent of Eq proliferative enteropathy?

A

Lawsonia intracellularis.

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79
Q

Hoflund syndrome ( vagus indigestion) which statement is ø true?

A

The post functional stenosis occurs at the omaso- abomasal orifice, resulting in obturation of the omasum with rough fodder.

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80
Q

What may cause hypoglycaemia in the diabetic patient treated with insulin?

A

Anorexia, vomiting.

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81
Q

Normal values of blood serum K in cattle?

A

3 - 5 mmol/l.

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82
Q

Addison’s disease in dogs/ diagnosis?

A

Na+/K+ <27, Cl- decrease, ACTH- stimulation test +.

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83
Q

Which statement is wrong? In acute kidney failure mannitol infusion…

A

Can be repeated up to x5 in case of anuria.

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84
Q

What is flea bite dermatitis?

A

Allergic dermatitis in dogs becoming allergic to the flea saliva protein after repeated flea- bite challenge; localization: lumbo- sacral region.

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85
Q

Tongue paralysis of Eq/ causes?

A

Rabies, botulism, Eq leukoencephalomalacia (ELE).

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86
Q

Characteristics of urticaria in Eq?

A

Can be caused by inhaled allergens (fungi), rounded wheels on the skin within mins/ hrs; usually fast healing, but it might reoccur.

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87
Q

2º, chronic- recurrent ruminal bloat/ aetiology?

A

Reticuloperitonitis, compression of oesophagus, partial obstruction of cardia.

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88
Q

The suspicion of antifreeze poisoning is supported by? Which answer is wrong?

A

The observation of marked halo-signs in kidneys during ultrasonography.

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89
Q

Small strongyles may cause?

A

Intussusception.

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90
Q

Which viruses can elicit polyfactorial calf diarrhea?

A

VD, rota- coronavirus.

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91
Q

Acute pancreatitis/ pathogenesis/ dog?

A

Premature, cascade- like activation of pancreas enzymes = autodigestion of pancreas.

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92
Q

Campylobacter spp./ cat therapy?

A

Treat if relevant CS appear.

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93
Q

Displacement of the abomasum (DA)/ pathogenesis/ cattle?

A

Feeding more grain + less fibre –> ++ VFA –> abomasal atony –> abomasal dilation –> PP period, small rumen –> DA.

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94
Q

Atropine toxicosis/Eq/ treatment?

A

Physostigmine.

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95
Q

Treating congestive heart disease, emergency situation/ dog, cat?

A

O2, furosemide IV, pimobendane infusion.

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96
Q

Severe acute gastroenteritis/ nutrition/ dog, cat?

A

Enteral feeding is suggested despite diarrhea.

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97
Q

Which is the 1st- choice drug in the treatment of 1º Cu storage disease?

A

D- penicillamine.

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98
Q

Neonatal pharyngeal weakness/ foal?

A

Physiologic up to 2 - 4 wks of age.

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99
Q

Which is ø associated with nephrosis syndrome?

A

Hypotension.

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100
Q

Which therapeutic measures decrease blood K level during the treatment of hyperkalaemia? Choose the wrong answer.

A

IV Ca.

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101
Q

Severe acute nephrosis/ combined aetiology/ Eq?

A

Endotoxemia + repeated flunixin meglumine + dehydration.

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102
Q

Clinical features of congenital hyposomatotropism?

A

German shepherd, pituitary cysts, proportionate dwarfism, alopecia.

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103
Q

IRIS stage- I chronic renal failure is associated with?

A

Decreased specific gravity of urine.

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104
Q

Fanconi syndrome symptoms in dogs: which answer is wrong?

A

Ketonuria.

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105
Q

Chronic endocardiosis in dogs/ characteristics?

A

Typically results in mitral valve, sometimes tricuspid valve insufficiency.

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106
Q

Grass sickness/ Eq/ characteristics?

A

Young Eq on pasture, neurologic disease.

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107
Q

What may cause hyper- glycemia in the diabetic patient treated with insulin?

A

The somogyi effect.

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108
Q

Prostatic tumors in dogs, which is ø true?

A

Can be removed by surgery.

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109
Q

The glutaraldehyde test from blood is detecting:

A

+ve acute phase proteins like globulin, fibrinogen.

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110
Q

Fungal rhinitis:

A

Aspergillus/ Cryptococcus in the O.

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111
Q

Which statement is ø true?

A

In microvascular dysplasia the abnormal BV can be detected by colour doppler US.

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112
Q

Eq laryngeal hemiplegia/ Diagnosis:

A

Endoscopy, palpation, “ slap test”.

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113
Q

Decompensated congestive heart failure/ drugs?

A

ACE- inhibitors, furosemide, pimobendane.

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114
Q

Definitive diagnosis of Eq leukoencephalomalacia?

A

Feed analysis + histopathology.

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115
Q

Which drug is ø an anti- fungal agent?

A

Marbocyl.

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116
Q

Thromoboembolic meningoencephalitis ( TEME)/ prognosis + treatment:

A

SA(sulfonamide) and ABs might help in early stage.

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117
Q

Physiological values of serum Na in Eq?

A

135 - 155 mmol/l.

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118
Q

Severe thrombocytopenia: causes?

A

AITP, babesiosis, DIC, Sertoli- cell tumour.

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119
Q

Prevention of epileptic seizures/ medication/ dog?

A

Phenobarbital, KBR.

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120
Q

Ectopic ureters. Which answer is wrong?

A

Are occurring only in F.

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121
Q

In which endocrine disorder there is ø polydipsia/ polyuria?

A

Hypothyroidism.

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122
Q

Botulism aetiology Eq.

A

Cl. botulinum + botulinum toxin contaminated carrion remnant in the feed e.g rotten silage, exceptionally Cl. botulinum infected wounds/ GI tract.

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123
Q

Most important sign of benign prostatic hypertrophy in dogs?

A

Blood dripping from urethra between urinations.

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124
Q

Renal cysts are..

A

Mainly incidental findings.

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125
Q

Symptoms of rabies in cattle.

A

Donkey- like roaring, aggressivity, hypersexuality, cran n paralysis, ascending paralysis of limbs, colic like symptoms.

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126
Q

Oliguria in the dog/ aetiology?

A

Inadequate H2O intake, dehydration, acute nephrosis.

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127
Q

Herpesvirus myeloencephalopathy CS/ Eq.

A

Resp. signs, followed by paraparesis, ataxia, dog sitting position, recumbency.

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128
Q

Cervicalstenotic myelopathy/ diagnostics

A

Myelography

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129
Q

Rabies vs Aujeszky’s disease/ differences in symptoms/ dog + cat?

A

Anisocoria + paresthesia are common in Aujeszky’s disease, attacking behaviour is common in rabies.

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130
Q

General therapy in Eq hepatitis diseases?

A

Diet restricted in protein, glucose IV, insulin, B-vit, antioxidants.

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131
Q

Subjective body cond scoring, BCS- system. Most often applied scale:

A

1- 5/ 1-9.

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132
Q

This disease is caused by Haemophilus somnus. The name of the disease is

A

Thromboembolic meningoencephalitis.

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133
Q

A common sequel of vesicouretheral reflux?

A

Pyelonephritis.

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134
Q

When does ketosis occur in ewes?

A

Twinbreed, in multiple bred ewes, in the 3rd trimester of pregnancy.

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135
Q

Aetiology of acute gastric dilation in Eq?

A

Highly fermentable feed + hard work after feeding.

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136
Q

Lymphangiectasia/ characteristics/ dog, cat?

A

Leads to protein losing enteropathy in severe case.

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137
Q

Causes of anaemia in chronic kidney patients. Which answer is ø correct?

A

Haemolysis.

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138
Q

Symptoms of tetanus in cattle?

A

Flag- tail position, facial paralysis, 2º ruminal bloat.

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139
Q

Acute 1º gastric dilation/ treatment/ Eq?

A

Gastric lavage by tubing, spasmolytics, IV fluid + electrolyte replacement, flunixin meglumine ( analgesia).

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140
Q

Large colon torsion/ outcome?

A

Operation can be successful within 8hrs, without surgery: death.

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141
Q

The reticulocyte index (RI) in regenerative anaemia is.

A

> 2.5.

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142
Q

The progression of renal diseases caused by: which answer is ø correct?

A

Hyperparathyroidism.

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143
Q

Nasal tumors?

A

They can occur in any age, but mainly >5yrs.

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144
Q

Normal values of GGT activity in the blood serum of cattle?

A

<60 IU/l.

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145
Q

Which dermatological additional examination are they true for: it is quick, can be done in situ, it can be evaluated in 10mins, it may be helpful to distinguish the inflammatory from the neoplastic procedure?

A

Cytology.

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146
Q

Polyneuritis/ aetiology/ Eq?

A

EHV-1, adenovirus, Strep.

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147
Q

II degree atrio-ventricular block/ characteristics?

A

P- wave present, ventricular complex absent.

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148
Q

Which statement is ø true/ PSS/ dog?

A

The extrahepatic portosystemic shunt occurs in large breed dogs.

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149
Q

Bacterial rhinitis is almost always a 2º disease, usually with viral infection in the background:

A

Both statements are true.

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150
Q

What are the causes of pyrrolizidine- toxicosis in Eq?

A

Senecio, crotalaria-sp.

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151
Q

Acute pancreatitis/ symptoms/ dog?

A

Vomiting, abd pain, anorexia.

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152
Q

Normal values of blood serum creatinine in cattle?

A

50 - 150 µkromol/l.

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153
Q

Definitions of the grade 6/6 cardiac murmur?

A

This murmur is even audible with stethoscope lifted from the chest wall.

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154
Q

Which disease is accompanied by ascites in cat?

A

Lymphocytic cholangitis.

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155
Q

Which disease is abbreviation with ELE (M) + what is it’s cause?

A

Eq leukoencephalomalacia, fumonisin- B1 toxin.

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156
Q

Classification of forestomach disorders as to their pathogenesis?

A

1º forestomach diseases= biochemical + motoric disorders.

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157
Q

L- sided abomasal displacement/ auscultation above displaced abomasum:

A

Diagnostic accuracy of 30 - 40%.

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158
Q

Congenital heart disease of dogs, which statement is ø true?

A

Tricuspid dysplasia mainly occurs in small breeds.

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159
Q

Which statement is ø true for the Ru hepatic diseases?

A

The lab changes always reflect the severity of the CS.

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160
Q

Tetralogy of Fallot consist from

A

Ventricular septal defect, aorta- transposition, pulmonary stenosis, RV hypertrophy.

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161
Q

Suggested examinations in abd distension of small animals.

A

Undulation test, abd US, X-ray, abdominocentesis.

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162
Q

Cerebral commotion in Eq/ treatment?

A

DMSO infusion.

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163
Q

What is the most common type of leukaemia in dogs?

A

Acute lymphoblastic leukemia.

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164
Q

Intracardiac shunt detection Eq?

A

Doppler echocardiography.

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165
Q

Vegetative endocarditis/ Sus/ aetiology?

A

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae.

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166
Q

Shipping fever/ cattle/ etiology:

A

Mannheima ( pasteurella) haemolytica.

167
Q

Urolithiasis of feedlot bulls/ pathogenesis?

A

Struvite in the bladder –> obstruction of the urethra –> rupture of the urethra.

168
Q

Malignant catarrhal fever/ cattle/ transmission from which sp?

A

Sheep + goat.

169
Q

Pathogenesis of acute rumen overload + dilatation:

A

Overfeeding with rough fodder- distension of rumen- compression of diaphragm + caud V. cava- shock, suffocation.

170
Q

Prerenal azotemia.. Which is the wrong answer?

A

May be caused by urine leaking through the wall of the urinary organs.

171
Q

Gastric torsion/ common cardiological complication?

A

Ventricular arrhythmias ( premature ventricular beats, ventricular tachycardia).

172
Q

What is the cause of dermatitis- nephropathy syndrome ( PDNS)?

A

PCV- 2.

173
Q

How would you classify the next drugs? Clorhexidin, povidone- iodine, iridrogen-peroxide, etil-laktat, benzoyl-peroxide, piroctone-olamine.

A

Antiseptic.

174
Q

Which drug is ø antihistamine?

A

Flumetazon.

175
Q

Causative agent of greasy Sus disease?

A

Staph hyicus.

176
Q

Which sentence is true?

A

Collie + Shetland Sheepdog are predisposed to dermatomyositis.

177
Q

Chronic endocardiosis in dogs/ occurrence rate on the cardiac valves:

A

Mitral 60%, mitral + tricuspid 30%, tricuspid 10%.

178
Q

COPD (RAO)/ which statement is ø true/Eq?

A

Usually severe radiographic changes in the lungs: fibrosis, chronic oedema.

179
Q

Causes + features of Tyzzer- disease in Eq?

A

Cl piliforme acute hepatitis in foals.

180
Q

What is responsible for the signs suffering from hepatopathy?

A

NH3.

181
Q

What treatment if ø adequate for a dog that drank 3dl antifreeze 12hrs ago?

A

D-penicillamine.

182
Q

Large strongyles may cause?

A

Thromboembolism.

183
Q

Dysphagia/ causes/ Eq?

A

E.g guttural pouch mycosis, retropharyngeal abscess, cleft palate.

184
Q

Causes of hypertension in kidney patient; which answer is ø correct?

A

Dehydration.

185
Q

Etiology + pathogenesis of fog fever/ cattle:

A

Grazing on pasture with rich vegetation- 3- methylindole pulmonary oedema, emphysema.

186
Q

Blood in the urine is detected with?

A

Benzidine test.

187
Q

Cause of paralytic ileus?

A

Enteritis, peritonitis, abd surgery ( postoperative stage).

188
Q

2º dilation of the forestomachs can occur in?

A

Tetanus, atropine- poisoning, oesophageal obturation.

189
Q

Bacterial endocarditis in Eq/ complication:

A

Disseminated, multifocal, purulent nephritis with renal infarcts.

190
Q

Constrictive pericarditis of dogs + cats/ occurrence?

A

Generally uncommon, mainly in middle aged, large breed dogs, rare in cats.

191
Q

Transitional cell carcinoma in the bladder:

A

May react to NSAID treatment.

192
Q

Pleuritis, purulent- exudative/ cat/ symptoms?

A

Fever, Th exudate, mixed dyspnoea with increased inspiration efforts, disappearance of the Diernhofer triangle.

193
Q

Grass sickness/ Eq/ cause?

A

Cl. botulinum.

194
Q

Neurophysiologic background of botulism?

A

Paralysis of the striated m due to inhibited release of acetylcholine at the presynaptic motor n endings.

195
Q

Cause of hepatosis dietetica in Sus?

A

Se/ Vit E def.

196
Q

Length of the course of ( forestomach) diseases?

A

Peracute: a few hrs- 2d; acute: 3- 14d; subacute: 2- 4 wks; chronic: >4wks.

197
Q

Rabies/ incubation period?

A

Usually 2-4 mnths, but can be longer if HL of the patient had been bitten.

198
Q

Treatment of smoke inhalation?

A

Tracheostomy in case of severe laryngeal oedema, O2, bronchodilators, analgesics, glucocorticoids only in acute cardiovascular shock.

199
Q

Which statement is ø typical for cat?

A

The portal hypertension, ascites + PU/ PD are common signs in hepatopathies of the cat.

200
Q

Addison’s disease in dogs/ causes, pathogenesis:

A

The 1º is due to auto- immune inflammation of the adrenals; The 2º disease is caused by incorrect glucocorticoids therapy.

201
Q

The upper limit of total Br in the dog is

A

10 µkromol/l.

202
Q

Which treatment does ø affect the PTH-level in chronic renal cases?

A

ACE- inhibitor therapy.

203
Q

Oesophageal obturation/ treatment/ Eq?

A

Oxytocin, butylscopolamine, xylazine, oesophagostomy if other methods of removal fail.

204
Q

Features of Eq herpesvirus myeloencephalopathy?

A

CNS signs usually appear in adult Eq after the respiratory signs.

205
Q

Mild, acute, small intestinal diarrhea/ suggested additional examinations/ dog, cat?

A

Faecal analysis: parasitological examination + bacteriological culture.

206
Q

Food allergy/ diagnosis/ dog, cat?

A

Hypoallergenic monodiet then provocation with the suspected causative agent.

207
Q

Hypothyroidism of dogs: diagnosis?

A

Thyroxin decrease + TSH increase, free thyroxine decrease, TGAA +. TRH- stimulation test +.

208
Q

D- vit toxicity/ which of the below statements is false?

A

Acute D-vit toxicity causes vomiting, hypercalcaemia, hypoglycaemia, ataxia, epileptiform seizures.

209
Q

Intestinal motilisers for Eq ( prokinetics)

A

Neostigmine, Lidocaine.

210
Q

What is the main + initiating cause of Ca- P imbalance in chronic renal failure?

A

Retention of P.

211
Q

Tracheal hypoplasia/ cause/ occurrence/ dog?

A

Congenital, at the age of 4- 6 mnths, brachycephalic breeds.

212
Q

Acute colitis/ dog, cat/ CS?

A

Small amt, pudding- like, mucinous, bloody ( haematochezia) diarrhea.

213
Q

CS possibly related to oesophageal gastric ulceration?

A

Anaemia, Teeth grinding, Tar- like faeces.

214
Q

Important blood parameters in anemia:

A

RBC, PCV, TP, TBr, FE, PTT.

215
Q

Common cause of regurgitation in sows?

A

Constriction of the oesophageal inlet due to gastric ulceration related scarring.

216
Q

Features of von- Willebrand’s disease:

A

Prolonged surgical bleeding.

217
Q

Ketone bodies in the urine are detected by:

A

Na nitroprusid reagent.

218
Q

Pharmalogical classification of vincristine?

A

Chemotherapeutic drug.

219
Q

Rodenticide poisoning: causes + pathogenesis?

A

Dicoumarol type rodenticides –> vit- K antagonism –> clotting time increases –> bleeding.

220
Q

Post functional stenosis/ which statement is ø true?

A

The post functional stenosis is characterised by foamy- creamy content of rumen, abomasum.

221
Q

The upper limit of NH3 in the serum of cattle is less than?

A

60 µkromol/l.

222
Q

Rabies vs Aujeszky’s disease/ course/ dog + cat?

A

Overlapping between the course of the 2 diseases is possible.

223
Q

Chorioptes mange affects Eq?

A

Limbs.

224
Q

Grass sickness/ Eq/ CS?

A

Obstipation, nasogastric reflux, ptosis, m fasciculations.

225
Q

Which of the following terms characterise atopy?

A

Genetically- predisposed inflammatory + pruritis allergic skin disease with characteristic clinical features associated with IgE Ab most commonly directed against environmental allergens.

226
Q

Treatment of benign prostatic hypertrophy in dogs?

A

Only in symptomatic cases, castration, finasteride.

227
Q

Glãsser’s disease/ Sus/ aetiology?

A

Haemophilus parasuis.

228
Q

What are the symptoms of R abomasal displacement with torsion?

A

Acute course, severe deterioration, anorexia, atony of rumen, increased drinking, painful abdomen, tachycardia, small amt of dark + creamy faeces.

229
Q

Spasmodic colic/ symptoms?

A

Mild/ moderate colic in attacks, -ve rectal findings, fast course, favourable outcome.

230
Q

Hypoadrenocortism:

A

1º cortisol decreased, aldosterone decreased.

231
Q

The 2nd most common congenital cardiac diseases of Cars?

A

Congenital atrioventricular ( A-V) dysplasia, congenital ventricular septal defect.

232
Q

Which parasites cause enteritis in Ru?

A

Nematodirus, Cryptosporidium, Ostertagia sp.

233
Q

How long has the supf pyoderma to be treated by systemic Ab?

A

3 wk long.

234
Q

Idiopathic headshaking/ cause.

A

Trigeminal neuralgia.

235
Q

Tracheal collapse in Eq/ occurrence

A

Ponies, miniature Eq.

236
Q

Characteristics of endocrine skin disorders?

A

Symmetrical hyperpigmentation/ alopecia on the skin, abnormal skin thickness/ thinness, chronic course.

237
Q

For what kind of purposes do we use the DAMNIT-V scheme?

A

For constructing a list of DD based on anatomical + pathophysiological features of the diseases.

238
Q

Causes of mechanical ileus in Eq:

A

Intestinal obturation, intestinal compression, intestinal torsion.

239
Q

Treatment of obesity- which of the below statements is true?

A

Commercial BW reduction diets are useful because with reduced E intake, the feeling of satiety is easily achievable.

240
Q

Oesophageal obturation/ predilectory places/ cattle?

A

Behind the pharynx, Th inlet, heart base, entrance of the cardia.

241
Q

Which type of pyoderma is the ‘ hot spot’?

A

Surface.

242
Q

When should you send a colic Eq to an Eq clinic?

A

Colic despite of medical therapy, tympany, clinical/ rectal findings reveal severe diseases, pulse constantly >50 beats/min, ø responding well to therapy, local cond.

243
Q

EIPH/ Eq/ therapy

A

Furosemide.

244
Q

Anti- emetics/ dog?

A

Chlorpromazine, tiethylperazine, maropitant, metoclopramide.

245
Q

Patent ductus arteriosus/ characteristics of the cardiac murmur?

A

Machinery cardiac murmur, best heard at the L heart base, accompanied by fremitus.

246
Q

The most common congenital cardiac disease of dogs in Europe

A

Congenital aortic stenosis.

247
Q

Piglet anaemia/ treatment, prevention/ timing of parenteral Fe supply?

A

Parenteral Fe supply 2nd- 5th days after birth.

248
Q

Pathophysiology of obesity- which of the below statements is true?

A

Hyperplastic obesity occurs mainly in growing animals.

249
Q

Can be utilised in urocystitis prevention?

  • Urine alkalisation.
  • Urine acidification.
  • Diuresis.
A

None of the above.

250
Q

Tetanus/ dog/ which statement is ø true?

A

Partial tetanus is more common than the generalised form.

251
Q

Aspiration pneumonia/ localization of dullness + abnormal respiratory sounds/ Eq?

A

Lower 3rd of the thorax, over the heart base.

252
Q

Common cause of viral hepatitis in Sus?

A

PCV-2.

253
Q

Piglet anaemia occurence?

A

Among fast growing feedlot piglets during intensive technology + without Fe supply.

254
Q

The most important aspect of struvite urolithiasis treatment in dogs?

  • Diet.
  • Ab.
  • Urine acidification.
A

None of them from above.

255
Q

Enzooticus leukosis of cattle/ aetiology, infection?

A

C- type oncovirus/ Retroviridae family; infection by blood, transplacentary infection.

256
Q

Which drug is less effective in canine demodicosis?

A

Amitraz collar.

257
Q

Acute blood loss anaemia/ Therapy:

A
  • Stop bleeding, give hydroxyethyl starch IV + fresh frozen plasma.
  • Treatment of shock.
  • Transfusion if PCV< 20%.
258
Q

Characteristics of iatrogenic osteoporosis/ dog

A

After long- term glucocorticoid therapy –> decrease osteoblast activity + decrease Ca- utilisation.

259
Q

Physiological values of serum Cl in cattle?

A

100 - 120 mmol/l.

260
Q

Viral stomatitis/ aetiology/ Ru?

A

Aphtovirus, morbillivirus, pestivirus.

261
Q

If a dog is azotemia, then? ( choose the R answer)

A

The NH3 level is increased in it’s blood.

262
Q

How can we treat pleuropneumonia in Eq?

A

Antimicrobial therapy, flunixin, meglumin, Th drainage.

263
Q

What can cause purulent hepatitis in cows?

A

Chronic subclinical ruminal acidosis.

264
Q

Haemorrhagic gastroenteritis ( HGE)/ dog/ diagnosis?

A

Hematocrit ( PCV) is significantly increased due to hypovolaemia.

265
Q

Acromegaly, causes?

A

Dog: P4 treatment, mammary gl tumour, ovarian cyst; Cat: pituitary tumour.

266
Q

Physiological upper limit of blood urea in Eq?

A

10 mmol/l.

267
Q

Treatment of frothy bloat

A

Anti-foaming agents via special gastric tube, evacuation of ruminal content in severe cases.

268
Q

Which statement is ø true for Ru’s hepatic parasites?

A

Stress around parturition + anorexia do ø influence the development of the disease.

269
Q

Fel bronchial disease/ fel asthma?

A

Paroxysmal, dry, ‘ hacking’ cough, open mouth ( loud) breathing, prolonged expiration.

270
Q

Thromboembolic meningoencephalitis ( TEME)/ other name of the disease + it’s occurrence?

A

Sleeping disease, feedlot bulls.

271
Q

Rodenticide poisoning: diagnostic tests

A

Clotting time> 20 mins; prothrombin time> 15s

272
Q

Hepatitis caused by viruses/ dog + cat?

A

Rubarth disease ( CAV-1), herpesvirus caused hepatitis, FIP.

273
Q

Cerebral commotion in Eq/ consequences?

A

Recumbency, bleeding from the nostrils + from the ears.

274
Q

Most common localisation of bacterial endocarditis in Eq?

A

Mostly the aortic + mitral valve.

275
Q

Most common predisposing factor of oral necrobacillosis in Sus

A

Mechanical trauma.

276
Q

Which statement is true?

A

The blood level of the hepatocellular enzymes ( ALT, AST) is elevated 1ºly in case of necrosis, inflammation, increased permeability of the hepatocyte membrane.

277
Q

Oesophageal obturation in Eq/ etiology:

A

Solid pieces of feed ( apple, potato, sugar beet).

278
Q

What is ‘ endotoxin’?

A

Lipopolysaccharide molecule in the cell wall of Gr- bacteria.

279
Q

Which is associated with portal hypertension?

A

Arterioportal/ arterio- venosus fistula.

280
Q

Facial paralysis/ aetiology/ Eq?

A

Guttural pouch mycosis, otitis media.

281
Q

Upper limit of Cl in the rumen fluid/ cattle?

A

< 30mmol/l.

282
Q

The aortic insufficiency of the Eq is characterised by?

A

Strong holodiastolic cardiac murmur, in the L, 4th IC space, bumping pulse, rather in adult Eq.

283
Q

Dors displacement of soft palate/ cause?

A

Neuromuscular problems.

284
Q

Treatment of CKD patients include: ( which ans is ø correct)?

A

Diuretics/os.

285
Q

Parvoviral enteritis/ dog/ therapy?

A

Intestinal diet/ enteral nutrition, Ab, fluid therapy.

286
Q

Tricuspid insufficiency/ occurrence/ cattle?

A

The most common type of bacterial endocarditis in cattle.

287
Q

Eq motor neuron disease/ cause?

A

Vit E def.

288
Q

The upper physiological value of coagulation time in Eq:

A

<25 mins.

289
Q

Which is true?

A

Lymphoid hyperplasia typically affects young Eq.

290
Q

The upper limit of serum K in Eq?

A

5 mmol/l.

291
Q

Mycotic stomatitis of Eq/ aetiology?

A

Candidiasis, satratoxicosis.

292
Q

Which is ø predilection site for canine Sarcoptes infestation?

A

Back.

293
Q

ß- blocker antiarrhythmic drugs?

A

Atenolol, propanolol, esmolol.

294
Q

Severe FORL ( Fel odontoclastic resorptive lesions)/ treatment/ cat?

A

Tooth extraction/ crown amputation.

295
Q

Forms of lymphoma in dogs?

A

Mediastinal, alimentary, multicentric.

296
Q

Oesophageal obturation/ symptoms/ Eq:

A

Oesophageal spasm, retching, regurgitation, aspiration pneumonia.

297
Q

Parasitic bronchitis + pneumonia/ cattle/ aetiology?

A

Dictyocaulus viviparous.

298
Q

What is the most important test for diagnosing glomerulonephropathies?

A

Detection of severe proteinuria.

299
Q

Fe def anaemia of Car: causes?

A

Severe flea infestation, worms, gastric ulcer, Fe deficient food.

300
Q

Borders of Diernhofer triangle?

A

In front: caud part of the heart; From behind: diaphragmatic line.

301
Q

COPD ( RAO)/ Drugs/ Eq?

A

Clenbuterol, atropine, fluticasone.

302
Q

’ Fat- derived peptides’/ Effects of cytokines + hormones produced by adipocytes?

A

Mild chronic inflammation, long- lasting oxidative stress.

303
Q

Blood- sucking lice in Eq:

A

Haematopinus acini can cause anaemia in foals.

304
Q

Characteristics of Eq leukoencephalomalacia (ELE)?

A

Food contaminated with moulds –> Fumonisin- B1 toxin: encephalomalacia –> dysphagia, dyskinesis –> recumbency.

305
Q

Grading of gastric ulcers/ Eq:

A

0 - 4.

306
Q

Etiology of 2º photodermatitis in Eq?

A

Accumulation of phylloerythrin caused by hepatic insufficiency.

307
Q

Laryngeal paralysis dog/ infectious O?

A

Rabies, Aujeszky’s disease, botulism.

308
Q

Congenital heart diseases in cats? occurrence?

A

CHD in cats are less common than in dogs there is ø breed + sex predilection.

309
Q

What hereditary skin disease is lethal?

A

Grey collie syndrome.

310
Q

Stomatitis of Eq/ viral + fungal O/ causes?

A

Vesiculovirus, candidiasis, satratoxicosis.

311
Q

Cerebellar hypoplasia in calves can be caused by:

A

Intrauterine BVD infection.

312
Q

IRIS classification of CKD. Which ans is wrong?

A

In stage-I the creatinine level is only mildly elevated.

313
Q

Appropriate speed of loosing BW, Dog

A

1- 2% of BW/ week.

314
Q

Appropriate speed of losing BW, Cat

A

0.5 - 1 % of BW/ week.

315
Q

Dysphagia of viral/ bacterial O in cattle/ aetiology?

A

Rabies, Aujeszky’s- disease, brain stem abscess.

316
Q

PPID diagnosis:

A

Measuring ACTH, dexamethasone suppression test.

317
Q

The upper physiological value of prothrombin time in Eq?

A

< 20s.

318
Q

Megaoesphagus/ cause/ dog?

A

Disorders accompanied with neuromuscular dysfunction.

319
Q

Photosensitisation/ which statement is ø true?

A

Fagopyrum esculentum + lupinus albus cause 2º photosensitisation.

320
Q

Which statement is ø true for lymphocytic cholangitis in cat?

A

The result of bile culture obtained by cholecystocentesis adherent invasive E coli ( AIEC).

321
Q

Causes of glomerular diseases in SA. Which ans is ø correct?

A

Ischemia, nephrotoxic materials.

322
Q

MCF/ cattle/ aetiology?

A

Herpesvirus ( OHV- 2).

323
Q

Which statement is ø true for Ru’s hepatic parasites?

A

Melarsomine can be given both against F. hepatica + Dicrocoelium dendritium.

324
Q

Laxatives for Eq?

A

Mineral oil, MgSo4, Na2SO4.

325
Q

Cerebral commotion ( concussion) in Eq/ prognosis?

A

Usually favourable.

326
Q

Normal values of serum total BA in cattle:

A

< 120 micromol/l.

327
Q

Common physiological arrhythmia in Eq?

A

2nd degree atrioventricular block.

328
Q

Cleft palate in Eq?

A

Signs: dysphagia, nasal discharge with food particles.

329
Q

Parasitic bronchitis + pneumonia/ sheep/ etiology:

A

Dictyocaulus filaria, protostrongylida spp.

330
Q

Lissencephaly ( lyssencephalon)/ definition?

A

Congenital under- development ( lack of development) of the suici + gyri of the cortex.

331
Q

Mitral insufficiency/ symptoms/ Eq?

A

Holosystolic cardiac murmur in L 5th IC space, tachypnoea, dyspnoea, L- heart failure.

332
Q

Lab alterations in the blood during reticuloperitonitis?

A

Glutaraldehyde test +, plasmafibrinogen increase, plasmaglob increase.

333
Q

I degree atrio- ventricular block/ characteristics?

A

Prolonged PQ interval.

334
Q

Which statement is ø true?

A

The glucocorticoid therapy always lead an irreversible necrosis in the liver.

335
Q

EPI/ diagnosis/ dog:

A

Serum TLI ( Tryp- like immunoreactivity) measurement.

336
Q

IAD/ treatment?

A

Steroid.

337
Q

Occurrence of dilated cardiomyopathy in Ru

A

The disease occurs in cattle.

338
Q

The effect of pimobendane?

A

+ve inotropic drug, with some vasodilator effect.

339
Q

Pharmacological effect of chemotherapeutic agents?

A

Drive the normal + neoplastic cells into apoptosis.

340
Q

Piglet anaemia/ then to treat/os:

A

Fe supply/os within 1st 12hrs of life.

341
Q

Which parasites does ø cause parasitic encephalitis/ myelitis?

A

Gasterophilus larvae.

342
Q

Physiological limits of the pH in the rumen fluid/ cattle.

A

6.3 - 7.1.

343
Q

Renal amyloidosis typically found in which cat breed?

A

Abyssinian.

344
Q

Oesophageal obturation/ prognosis/ Eq?

A

Mostly favourable.

345
Q

Caud shift of the caud lung border. It is characteristic for?

A

RAO.

346
Q

Which statement is true regarding porcine enterovirus diseases?

A

The other name of the infectious Sus paralysis is Teschen disease.

347
Q

L- sided abomasal displacement/ auscultation with ballotment above displaced abomasum:

A

Diagnostic accuracy of 50 - 60%.

348
Q

Normal values of blood glucose in Eq?

A

3- 5 mmol/l.

349
Q

What is polycythaemia absoluta vera?

A

Benign bone marrow neoplasm, which is causing elevated packed cell volume ( PCV).

350
Q

Causes + route of infection of pyelonephritis in cows?

A

Corynebacterium renale, puerperal trauma of the uterus/ vagina, mainly ascending, rarely hematogenous infection.

351
Q

The upper limit of total Ca in the plasma of the dog is?

A

3 mmol/l.

352
Q

Which treatment (s) is ( are) suggested in the long- term treatment of canine atopic dermatitis?

A

Allergen specific immunotherapy ( hyposensibilisation).

353
Q

Ethmoid hematoma/ cause?

A

Angiomatous tissue overgrowth.

354
Q

Real colic is?

A

All diseases causing abd pain.

355
Q

Eq herpesvirus myeloencephalopathy. Which statement is ø true?

A

It is caused by EHV- 2, on immuno- mediated basis, due to type 3 hypersensibilization.

356
Q

Bronchitis- pneumonia/ Etiology/ Obligate pathogenic viruses/ Eq.

A

Eq herpesvirus- 1 + 4, Eq influenza virus-A, African Eq sickness virus.

357
Q

Most common localisation of bacterial endocarditis/ Sus:

A

Mostly the mitral valve.

358
Q

Characteristics of the additional adventitious respiratory sounds (bronchi)?

A

They can never be heard under normal physiological cond.

359
Q

Atropine toxicosis/ Eq/ treatment?

A

Physostigmine.

360
Q

Hypoglycemia of piglets/ CS:

A

In 2- 5 d old piglets, weakness, somnolentia, spasms, hypothermia, death, blood sugar < 3.0 mmol/l.

361
Q

Possible causes of hydronephrosis

A

Ureter stone.

362
Q

Cushing’s syndrome in dogs: diagnosis?

A

Confirmation: LDDST, ACTHST; Differentiation of forms: abd US, HDDST, ACTH.

363
Q

SCC/ occurrence/ cat?

A

The most common malignant tumour of the oral cavity.

364
Q

EGUS/ CS/ foals/ ø true?

A

Fever.

365
Q

Nomotopic impulse formation disorder?

A

Sinus tachycardia, respiratory arrhythmia, sick sinus syndrome.

366
Q

Oesophageal obturation/ etiology/ Eq:

A

1º: dry, chopped food; 2º: other oesophageal diseases.

367
Q

Oesophageal obturation/ suggested device for treatment/ cattle?

A

Thygesen probang.

368
Q

AHDS- Acute haemorrhagic diarrhea syndrome/ dog, cat

A

Former name: HGE- haemorrhagic gastroenteritis.

369
Q

What is the pathognomic symptom of Cushing’s syndrome?

A

Calcinosis cutis.

370
Q

Oesophageal obturation/ treatment/ cattle

A

Trying to remove by hand if obstruction behind the pharynx.

371
Q

Which statement is true regarding porcine enterovirus diseases?

A

The infectious Sus paralysis should be officially reported to the local Vet authorities, it has an unfavourable prognosis.

372
Q

Symptoms of Hoflund- syndrome/ ant functional stenosis?

A

Recurrent bloat, dilation of rumen, ruminal content is thin- liquid, ø sounds can be heard above the rumen.

373
Q

Blister beetle causes?

A

Diarrhea, haematuria, hypomagnesemia, hypocalcaemia.

374
Q

Colitis aetiology/ Eq?

A

Salmonella, certain Ab, blister beetle.

375
Q

Characteristics of MEED ( Multisystemic Eosinophilic Epitheliotropic Disease)? Which is ø true:

A

GI reflux.

376
Q

Regurgitation/ definition?

A

Retrograde evacuation of undigested food from oesophagus by passive way.

377
Q

Secretolytics for Eq?

A

Terbutaline, imodium.

378
Q

Physiological values of blood bicarbonate in Eq

A

20 - 25 mmol/l.

379
Q

Common complication of bacterial endocarditis in Eq?

A

Disseminated purulent nephritis.

380
Q

Symptoms of lower urinary tract disease in SA? Which answer is wrong?

A

Polyuria, azotemia.

381
Q

Pathogenesis of L- sided abomasal displacement:

A

FFA production increase –> abomasal atony –> gas + fluid increase –> abomasal dilation –> the abomasum is fixed between the abd wall + rumen.

382
Q

COPD ( RAO) common occurrence:

A

In older Eq kept in stables + getting mouldy hay.

383
Q

Which is ø associated with portal hypertension?

A

Hepatic microvascular hypoplasia.

384
Q

Oesophageal obturation/ most common complication/ Eq?

A

Aspiration pneumonia.

385
Q

Brachycephalic airway syndrome?

A

2º to congenital airway malformations ( stenotic nares, elongated soft palate, hypoplastic trachea laryngeal saccular oedema + eversion).

386
Q

Mitral insufficiency/ Symptoms/ Sus

A

Holosystolic cardiac murmur in the L 4th IC space, CS of lung oedema.

387
Q

Approximate normal value of hematocrit in Eq:

A

0.40.

388
Q

Oliguria/ definition/ dog?

A

Urine output < 6- 10 ml/ ttkg/d.

389
Q

Causes of acute interstitial nephritis in small animals?

A

Leptospirosis.

390
Q

Oesophageal obturation/ common complication/ cattle?

A

2º ruminal bloat.

391
Q

Occurrence of osteomalatia in cattle?

A

Disorder in Ca/ P maintenance, older cows, pregnancy/ lactation, in endemic regions.

392
Q

Physiologic coagulation time ( in glass tube) in dogs?

A

< 2 - 5 mins. ( 5- 10).

393
Q

Physiological values of RBC in dogs:

A

5 - 10 T/l.

394
Q

Characteristics of botulism inj

A

Contaminated feed/ pasture with cadavers, 3 - 17 d incubation period, unaffected consciousness, generalized, flaccid paralysis of the striated m, dysfunction in comprehension of the feed, dysphagia, paralysis of the tongue + tail –> respiratory paralysis.

395
Q

1º dilation of the forestomachs can occur in?

A

Frothy bloat, ruminal acidosis, ruminant putrefaction.

396
Q

Hypothyroidism of dogs: symptoms?

A

Activity decrease, obesity, alopecia, thick skin, bradycardia, fertility decrease.

397
Q

Canine chronic bronchitis?

A

Daily cough for > 2mnths, prolonged expiration + an expiratory push.

398
Q

Eq gastric ulcer/ treatment/ Eq?

A

H2 antagonist, proton pump inhibitor, sucralfate.

399
Q

Viral bronchitis/ viral pneumonia in cattle

A

RS virus pneumonia, viral diarrhea VD, infectious rhinotracheitis caused by herpesvirus.

400
Q

Fog fever/ cattle/ occurrence

A

Only in grazing adults.

401
Q

Which disease most ressembles rabies in Eq?

A

Eq leukoencephalomalacia ELE.

402
Q

Bronchodilators for Eq

A

Clenbuterol, albuterol, aminophylline ( theophylline).

403
Q

Ventricular septal defect/ detection/ dog

A

Doppler echocardiography, localisation usually just below the aortic root.

404
Q

Which is ø a form of vena portae hypoplasia?

A

Arterioportal/ arteriovenosus fistula.

405
Q

Additional diagnostic methods in Eq hepatic diseases:

A

US examination, US guided biopsy.

406
Q

Sheep/ pregnancy toxaemia/ treatment:

A

Early stage: oral propylene glycol, oral Ca, K + insulin, oral calf commercial electrolyte solutions containing glucose; Late stage: dexamethasone to induce parturition.

407
Q

The most common cardiac disease in cats:

A

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy HCM.

408
Q

3rd degree atrio- ventricular block:

A

Multiple P waves + ø PQR.

409
Q

Characteristics of pityriasis rosea in Sus:

A

Idiopathic congenital disease in piglets, circular erythemous skin lesion on the central abdomen with central scaling, favourable prognosis.

410
Q

Acromegaly treatment?

A

Ovariohysterectomy.

411
Q

Babesiosis treatment:

A

Imidocarb dipropionate, Diminazene aceturate, Atavaquone, Azithromycin.

412
Q

Signs of Fe def anaemia in piglets:

A

Hypochromic, microcytic, reduced haemoglob content.

413
Q

West Nile Virus encephalomyelitis:

A

Occurrence between April + July.

414
Q

Symptoms of haemolytic anaemia:

A

Icterus, haemoglobinuria, bilirubinuria, splenomegaly.

Interanal Medicine 3 (7 decks)

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