SA PQ's 2019 Flashcards
1
Q
Which statement is NOT true for PSS in dog?
A) The extra-hepatic PSS occurs in large bred dogs
B) The symptoms of PSS can worsen after feeding of protein rich food (meat)
C) The post-prandial bile acid level of the blood is higher than normal in PSS
D) In congenital PSS the nervous symptoms are episodic
A
A) The extra-hepatic PSS occurs in large bred dogs
2
Q
Oliguria – Definition, dog:
A
Urine output < 6-10 mL/ttkg/day (low amount of urine)
3
Q
Oliguria – Etiology, dog:
A
Inadequate water intake, dehydration, acute nephrosis
4
Q
Which statement is WRONG?
In acute kidney failure, mannitol infusion…
A) Can be repeated up to 5 times in case of anuria
B) Should only be given to a previously rehydrated patient
C) Can be repeated many times if diuresis is present
D) Is recommended in oliguric patients
A
A)Can be repeated up to 5 times in case of anuria
5
Q
Neurophysiological background of botulism:
A
General muscular paralysis due to inhibited release of ACh at the pre-synaptic motor nerve endings
6
Q
IAD (small animal) treatment:
A
Incontinence Associated Dermatitis (In eq IAD is Inflammatory Airway Disease)
TX: Steroid
7
Q
Systolic murmur grades:
A
I – Barely audible
II – Faint but easily audible
III – Loud murmur without a palpable thrill
IV – Loud murmur with a palpable thrill
V – Very loud murmur heard with stethoscope lightly on chest
VI – Very loud murmur that can be heard without a stethoscope
8
Q
Aortic insufficiency – Cardiac murmur – Characteristics:
A
III-VI / VI Descendo, holodiastolic murmur, often heard in the thoracic inlet as well
9
Q
Decompressed congestive heart failure in dogs: meds(?)
maybe means decompensated CHF - ans would be furesommide parenteral, salt restriction, additional diuretics, increased dose of pimobendan and sildendafil if severe pul. hypertension, amlodipine or hydralazine (ca channel blockers) to help dilate vessels too.
A
ACE inhibitors, Furosemide, Pimobendan
10
Q
Temporohyoid osteoarthropathy – Clinical signs:
A
Loss of appetite, salivation, reflux
11
Q
Beta-blocker anti-arrhythmic drugs:
A
Atenolol, Propanolol, Estiolol
12
Q
Pathophysiology of obesity – Which of the following statements is true?
A
Hyper-plastic obesity occurs mainly in growing animals
13
Q
Which statement is NOT true?
A) The bilirubinuria is always pathogenic in cat, associated with hyper-bilirubinaemia
B) The ALT and AST are hepato-cellular enzymes
C) The bile acid, ALP, GGT levels are elevated in cholestasis
D) The ALP-isoenzymes in the cat – Liver, bone, steroid, induced isoenzymes
A
D) The ALP-isoenzymes in the cat – Liver, bone, steroid, induced isoenzymes
14
Q
Ectopic ureters…Which answer is WRONG?
A) Are causing constant urine dripping
B) Are occurring only in females
C) Can be diagnosed by X-ray or CT exam
A
B) Are occurring only in females
15
Q
Small strongyles may cause:
A
intussuception
16
Q
Ethmoid hematoma cause:
A
Angiomatous tissue over-growth
17
Q
NYHA classification of heart disease:
A
I – Asymotmatic, no CS even with exercise
II – Clinical signs only during strenous activity
III – Clinical signs with routine daily acitivty or mild exertion
IV – Severe clinical signs, even at rest
18
Q
Signs of Congestive heart failure Stage 3 NYHA grading:
A
Fatigue, collapse caused by exercise, abdominal oedema, ascites
19
Q
Rabies vs. Aujeszky disease – Differences in symptoms in dog and cat:
A
Anisocoria and paresthesia are common in Aujeszky disease. Attacking behaviour is common in rabies
20
Q
Which statement is NOT true for chronic hepatitis in dog?
A) Centro-lobular mono-nuclear cell infiltration, inflammation, centro-lobular necrosis, fibrosis
B) Peri-portal mono-nuclear cell infiltration, inflammation, periportal necrosis, fibrosis
C) Chronic procedure, no improvement for 4-6 weeks
D) The histopathology is independent from the case
A
A) Centro-lobular mono-nuclear cell infiltration, inflammation, centro-lobular necrosis, fibrosis
21
Q
Treatment of benign prostatic hypertrophy in dogs:
A
Only in symptomatic cases, castration, Finasteride
22
Q
Prerenal azotaemia…Which is the WRONG answer?
A) Could be due to dehydration
B) May cause kidney damage without treatment
C) Can be corrected with fluid therapy
D) May be caused by urine leaking through the wall of the urinary organs
A
D) May be caused by urine leaking through the wall of the urinary organs
23
Q
Regurgitation definition:
A
Retrograde evacuation of undigested food from the oesophagus by a passive way
24
Q
The most important aspect of struvite urolithiasis in dogs?
A
Urine acidification
25
Feline Viral Leukaemia – Etiology:
Pathogen: Retrovirus, Oncorna virnae family (FeLV)
Infection: Via saliva, via nasal secretions, in outdoor cats
26
Paraprostic cysts are:
Remnants of the Mullerian duct or Retention cysts
27
Rabies incubation period:
Usuaully 2-4 weeks, but can be shorter or longer, depending on which body part was infected
Incubation period is 2-8 weeks and disease lasts for 4-6 days
28
Characteristics of iatrogenic osteoporosis – Dog:
After long-term glucocortocid therapy - ↓ osteoblast activity and ↓ Ca utilisation
29
Which is NOT associated with nephrosis syndrome?
```
A) Sub-cutaneous oedema
B) Glomerulonephropathies
C) Hypotension
D) Higher thrombosis risk
E) Hyper-tension is ALWAYS associated with kidney disease!
```
C) Hypotension
30
Common symptoms of chronic renal disease:
Non-regenerative anaemia, hyper-tension, blindness
31
Laryngeal paralysis – Dog – Infectious origin:
Rabies, Aujeszky disease, botulism
32
Fanconi symptoms in dogs. Which answer is WRONG?
A) Ketonuria
B) Glosuria
C) Metabolic acidosis
D) Aminoaciduria
A) Ketonuria
(Fanconi - A general term for a group of diseases marked by dysfunction of the proximal renal tubules with
multiple defects in reabsorption. Occurs as an inherited disorder in Basenji dogs but has been described
in Norwegian Elkhounds and rarely in other breeds. There is increased urinary excretion of glucose (in
the absence of diabetes mellitus), phosphorus, sodium, uric acid and amino acids, and metabolic acidosis.)
33
Which drug is NOT anti-histamine?
A) Chlorpiramine
B) Flumetazon
C) Hydroxyzine
D) Dimetindene-maleate
B) Flumetazon
34
In which endocrine disorder is there NO polydipsia / polyuria?
```
A) Hypo-thyroidism
B) Diabetes mellitus
C) Diabetes insipidus
D) Cushing’s syndrome
E) Hyper-thryoidism
```
A) Hypo-thyroidism
35
Tracheal hypo-plasia dog – Radiographic size:
Trachea / Thoracic inlet > 0.2 0.16 0.12 or width of the 3 rib 3x
36
Feline bronchial disease / Feline asthma:
Paroxysmal, dry, ‘hacking’ cough, open mouth (loud) breathing, prolonged expiration
37
What is associated with portal hyper-tension?
Arterio-portal / Arterio-venosus fistula
38
Which is NOT associated with portal hyper-tension?
A) Aterioportal / Arterio-venosus fistula
B) Idiopathic non-cirrhotic porate hypoplasia
C) Hepatoportal fibrosis
D) Hepatic micro-vascular hypoplasia
D) Hepatic micro-vascular hypoplasia
39
Renal amyloidosis typically found in which cat breed?
Abyssinian
40
The effect of Pimobendan:
Positive inotropic drug, with some vasodilatory effect
41
A feature of the von Willebrand’s disease:
Prolonged surgical bleeding
42
Is this true?
The blood level of hepato-cellular enzymes (ALT, AST) is elevated in case of necrosis, inflammation,
increased permeability of the hepatocyte membrane
yes
43
Acute pancreatitis – Symptoms in dog:
Vomiting, abdominal pain, anorexia
44
Addison’s disease in dogs – Diagnosis:
Na+
/K+ < 27
Cl- ↓
ACTH-stimulation test +
45
IRIS stage-1 chronic renal failure is associated with:
Decreased specific gravity of urine
46
Acute pancreatitis – Pathogenesis – Dog:
Premature, cascade-like activation of pancreas enzymes results in auto-digestion of pancreas
47
Which treatment is suggested in the long-term treatment of canine atopic dermatitis?
Allergen specific immunotherapy (hyposensibilisation)
48
Which parasite does NOT cause parasitic encephalitis / myelitis?
A) Gasterophilus larvae
B) Strongylus vulgaris larvae
C) Habronema spp.
D) Setaria spp.
A) Gasterophilus larvae
49
1st degree atrio-ventricular block – Characteristics:
Prolonged PQ interval
50
2nd degree atrio-ventricular block – Characteristics:
P-wave present, ventricular complex absent (= QRS)
51
3rd degree atrio-ventricular block – Characteristics:
Multiple P waves and no QRS complex
52
Which statement is NOT typical for cat?
A) The portal hyper-tension, ascites and PU/PD are common signs in hepatopathies in cats
B) The common bile duct joins to the major pancreatic duct before entering the duodenum
C) The acute neutrophil cholangitis is the consequence of ascending bacterial infection
D) The hepatic encephalopathy is a common consequence of the feline hepatic lipidosis due to the argini
deficiency
A) The portal hyper-tension, ascites and PU/PD are common signs in hepatopathies in cats
53
Nomotopic impulse formation disorders:
Sinus tachycardia, respiratory arrhythmia, sick sinus syndrome
54
The approximate upper limit of inorganic phosphate in the plasma of the dog and car is:
2.0 mmol/L
55
Canine chronic bronchitis symptoms:
Daily cough for more than 2 months, prolonged expiration and an expiratory push
56
Forms of lymphoma in dogs:
Mediastinal, alimentary, multi-centric
57
What is polycythaemia absoluta vera?
Benign bone marrow neoplasm, which is causing elevated packed cell volume
58
Rodenticide poisoning diagnostic tests:
Clotting time > 20 mins.
| Prothrombin time > 15 secs
59
Causes of acute interstitial nephritis in small animals:
Leptospirosis
60
Food allergy diagnosis in dog, cat:
Hypoallergenic monodiet then provocation with the suspected causative agent
61
Congenital heart diseases causing volume overload:
PDA, VSD
62
Physioloigcal coagulation time (in glass tube) in dog:
Less than 5-10 mins.
63
Acute colitis – Dog, cat - Clinical signs:
Small amount, pudding-like, mcuinous, bloody (haematocheria) diarrhea
64
Is this true?
| Collie and Shetland sheepdog are predisposed to dermatomycosis
yes
65
How would you treat a cat diagnosed with intersitial cystitis (FIC)?
Increase water intake
66
Causes of acromegaly in dog and cat:
Dog: Progesterone treatment, mammary gland tumour, ovarian cysts
Cat: Pituitary tumour
67
The progression of renal diseases caused by… Which is NOT correct?
A) Proteinuria
B) Hyper-parathyroidisim
C) Isostenuria
D) Glomerular hyper-tension
C) Isostenuria
68
Parvo viral enteritis in dog – Therapy:
Intestinal diet or Enteral nutriiton, antibiotic, fluid therapy
69
Common symptoms of chronic renal disease:
Abdominal pain, polyuria, hypocalcemia
70
A feature of von Willebrand’s disease:
Prolonged surgical bleeding
71
Acute pancreatitis – Symptoms – Dog:
Vomiting, abdominal pain, anorexia
72
Beta-blocker anti-arrytmic drugs:
Atenolol, Propanolol, Esmolol
73
Nomotopic impulse formation disorders:
Sinus tachycardia, respiratory arrythimia, sick sinus syndrome
74
Neuro-physiological background of Botulism:
General muscular paralysis due to inihibited ACh at the pre-synaptic motor nerve endings
75
Acute blood loss anaemia, therapy:
Stop bleeding, HAES, whole blood transfusion
76
Decompensated congestive heart failure – Drugs:
ACE inhbiition, Furosemide, Pimobendan
77
Nasal tumours, treatment and prognosis:
Neither early recognition, radiotherapy, chemotherapy, nor surgery can significanlt prolong the survivial
time
78
Examinations of the abdominal distension for SA:
Undulation, US, X-ray, abdominocentesis
79
Benign prostatic hyper-plasia treatment:
Only in symptomatic patients, castration Finestride
80
Cystitis in cat treatment:
Increase water intake
81
Nomotrop impulse formation disorder:
Sinus tachycardia, respiratory arrhyymia, sick sinus syndrome
82
Copper storage treatment:
D-penicillamine (chelating agent)
83
Dierhofer triangle border:
In front: Caudal part of heart
| From behind: Diaphragmatic line
84
FORL treatment:
feline odontoclastic resorptive lesion
Tx: Extraction of teeth
85
Acromegaly treatment:
Ovariehysterectomy
86
Hypo-adrenocorticisim, change in hormones:
Primary cortisol decreased and aldosterone decrease
87
The bacterial rhinitis is almost always a secondary disease, usually with viral infection in the
background. T/F?
True
88
Addison’s:
Definition –
Lab values –
Diagnosis –
Definition – Primary hypo-adrenocorticism (= Addison’s disease) – Destruction of the adrenal cortex most
commonly immune mediated. Leads to mineral corticoid and glucocorticoid deficiencies.
Lab values – Na < 140 mmol/L (hypo-natremia) – K > 5.6 mmol/L (hyper-kalemia) – Na:K ratio less than
15:1 is virtually diagnostic – USG < 1.030 (due to medullary washout from Na loss)
Diagnosis – Uncommon in dog, rare in cats. Clinical signs of acute presentation = Addisonian crisis
(vomit, diarrhoea, lethargy, weakness, anorexia, PU / PD). Chronic intermittent GI signs. Biochemistry,
haematology, electrolytes, urinalysis – Electrolyte abnormalities – ACTH stimulation test
89
Addison’s disease in dogs – Causes, pathogenesis:
a) The primary is due to auto-immune inflammation of the adrenals. The secondary disease is caysed by
incorrect glucocorticoids therapy
b) Primary: Cortisol ↑ Aldosterone ↓ Secondary: Cortisol ↓ Aldosterone same
c) The primary disease is due to incorrect glucocorticoid therapy. The secondary disease is caused by
auto-immune inflammation of the adrenals
d) Primary: Cortisol ↓ Aldosterone ↓ Secondary: Cortisol same Aldosterone ↓
?a primary bc autoimmune inflam of adrenals, 2ndary bc incorrect GCC tx
90
```
Which is NOT zoonotic?
True:
✓ Sarcoptes
✓ Demodicosis
✓ Trichophyton
```
?
91
Treatment of CKD patients include… Which is NOT correct?
A) Diuretics per os
B) Renal diet, phosphorus binders
C) ACE inhibitors, anti-hypertensive drugs
D) Erythropoietin injection, potassium supplementation
A) Diuretics per os
92
The glutaraldehyde test from blood is detecting:
Positive acute phase proteins, like globulin, fibrinogen
93
Which treatment is NOT adequate for a dog that drank anti-freeze 12 hours ago?
D-penicillamine (Chelating agent for Cu and some others, don't remember)
94
I degree atrio-ventricular block – Characteristics:
Prolonged PQ interval
95
Hypo-adrenocorticism of dogs – Therapy:
Crisis: 0.9% saline, hydrocortisone
Later: Fludrocortisone, Prednisolone, salt
Hyper-Adrenocorticism TX: Trilostane
96
Borders of the Diernhofer triangle:
In front: Caudal part of heart
From behind: Diaphragmatic line
The enlarged cardiac dullness and behind it the Diernhofer triangle including an air-containing lung lobe
between the diaphragm and the caudal border of the heart. In this area, the percussion sound of the
thorax is normal in healthy animals
97
Immune-mediated haemolytic anaemia, characteristic laboratory findings:
Regenerative anaemia, auto-agglutination, spherocytosis
98
Blood in the urine is detected with:
Benzidine test
99
Which hereditary skin disease is lethal?
Grey collie syndrome
100
Diabetes insipidus, which is correct?
The most effective drug in the central form is Desmopressin
101
Thromboembolic meningoencephalitis (TEME) – Prognosis and treatment:
Sulfonamides, antibiotics might help in early stage
102
Cervical stenotic myelopathy – Diagnostics:
Myelography
103
ACE inhibitors (want 3):
Ramipril, Enalapril, Benazepril
104
Treatment of smoke inhalation:
Tracheostomy in case of severe laryngeal odema, oxygen, bronchodilators, analgesics, glucocorticoids
only in acute cardiovascular shock
105
Subjective Body Condition Scoring – BCS system. Most often applied scale:
Used scale: 1-5 or 1-9
106
Causes of paralytic ileus:
Enteritis, peritonitis, abdominal surgery (post-operative stage)
107
Pharmacological classification of Vincristine:
Chemotherapeutic drug
108
Nomotopic impulse formation disorders:
Sinus tachycardia, respiratory arrhythmia, sick sinus syndrome
109
Renal cysts are (How are they most often discovered?):
Mainly incidental findings
110
What is 2/3rd rule in connection with canine splenic disorders:
2/3rd of the splenic disorders are neoplastic processes
111
Rubber jaw – Underlying disorders – Dog:
Chronic renal disease – Secondary hyper-parathryoidism
112
EPI (Exocrine Pancreatic Insufficiency) – Diagnosis – Dog:
Serum TLI (Trypsin-Like Immunoreactivity) measurement
113
What is the first choice drug in the treatment of primary Copper storage disease of the liver?
D-penicillamine
114
Which dermatological additional examination are they true for: It is quick, can be done in situ, it
can be evaluated in 10 mins, it may be helpful to distinguish the inflammatory from the neoplastic
procedure:
Cytology
115
Which is the main and initiating cause of the calcium-phosphorus imbalance in chronic renal
failure?
Retention of phosphorus
116
Causes of hyper-tension in kidney patients. Which answer is NOT correct?
A) Prolonged activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system
B) Increased peripheral resistance
C) Systemic vasoconstriction
D) Dehydration
D) Dehydration
117
Stomatitis – Clinical signs:
Drooling, halitosis, reddening of the mucous membrane of the oral cavity
118
Temporohyoid osteoathropathy – Diagnostics. Which is NOT true?
A) X-ray
B) Ultrasound
C) Endoscopy
D) CT
B) Ultrasound
119
Mega-oesophagus – Cause – Dog:
Disorders accompanied with neuromuscular dysfunction
120
Anti-emetics – Dog (4 answers):
Chlorpromazine, Teithylperazine, Maropitant, Metoclopramide
121
Hypo-thryoidsim of dogs – Symptoms:
Activity ↓ obesity, alopecia, thick skin, bradycardia, fertility ↓
122
Pleuritis, purulent-exudative – Cat – Symptoms:
Fever, thoracic exudate, mixed dyspnoea with increase inspiratory efforts, disappearance of the
Diernhofer triangle
123
Teratology of Fallot consists from:
Ventricular septal defect, aorta-transposition, pulmonary stenosis, right ventricular hypertrophy
124
Idiopathic head shaking – Cause:
Trigeminal neuralgia
125
Which statement is NOT true for chronic hepatitis in dog?
A) Centro-lobular mono-nuclear cell infiltration, inflammation, centro-lobular necrosis, fibrosis
B) Peri-portal mono-nuclear cell infiltration,
C) Chronic procedures, no improvement for 4-6 weeks
D) The histopathology is independent from the cause
A) Centro-lobular mono-nuclear cell infiltration, inflammation, centro-lobular necrosis, fibrosis
126
Decompensated congestive heart failure – Dogs:
ACE-inhibitors, Furosemide, Pimobendane
127
Brachycephalic airway syndrome:
Secondary to congenital airway malformations (Stenotic nares, elongated soft palate, hypoplastic trachea
– Laryngeal saccular oedema and eversion)
128
Mild, acute, small intestinal diarrhoea – Suggested additional examinations – Dog, cat:
Faecal analysis: Parasitological examination and bacteriological culture
129
Prevention of epileptic seizures – Medicament – Dog:
Phenobarbital, potassium-bromide
130
Heterotrop impulse formation disorders – Ventricular:
Paroxysmal ventricular tachycardia, ventricular fibrillation, ventricular flutter
131
Fat derived peptides – Effects of cytokines and hormones produced by adipocytes:
Mild chronic inflammation, long-lasting oxidative stress
132
What is flea bite dermatitis?
Allergic dermatitis in dogs become allergic to the flea saliva protein after repeated flea bite challenge,
localisation: lumbo-sacral region
133
Ketone bodies in the urine are detected by:
Sodium nitroprussid agent
134
Squamous cell carcinoma – Occurrence – Cat:
The most common malignant tumour of the oral cavity
135
Diseases with haemorrhagic diathesis:
Chronic kidney disease, DIC, von Willebrand’s disease
136
Chronic endocardiosis in Dogs – Occurrence rate on the cardiac valves:
Mitral: 60% - Tricuspid 10% - Mitral and tricuspid 30%
137
Dogs: Appropriate speed of losing BW?
Cats: Appropriate speed of losing BW?
Ca: 1-2% of BW/week
Fe: 0.5-1% of BW/week
138
Fungal rhinitis, which species:
Aspergillus or Cryptococcus in the origin
139
What is the most important test for diagnosing glomerulonephropathies?
Detection of severe proteinuria
140
CKD – Which answer is WRONG?
A) There are 4 stages determined by the serum creatinine levels
B) There are substages based on the presence of proteinuria
C) In state I – The creatinine level is only mildly elevated
D) There are stages based on serum creatinine
C) In state I – The creatinine level is only mildly elevated
141
Clinical signs of rabies – Order of paralysis:
a) Cranial nerve paralysis, spreading backwards from the forelegs to the hindlegs
b) Cranial nerve paralysis, followed by ascending paralysis, followed by ascending paralysis of the limbs
c) Descending paralysis of the limbs followed by cranial nerve paralysis
d) Behavioural abnormalities, then forelimb paralysis, then hind limb paralysis, finally dysphagia
d?
142
Hepatitis cause by viruses – Dog and cat:
a) Canine distemper virus (CAV-1), Calici virus, FIV
b) Rubarth disease (CAV-1), Panleukopenia, FeLV
c) Rubarth disease (CAV-1), Herpes virus caused hepatitis, FIP
d) FIP, Calici virus, Mycoplasmosis
?
143
Severe, chronic, small-intestinal diarrhoea – Characteristics - Dog and cat:
a) Patient has lost weight, has got blood stripped diarrhoea with pudding-like consistency for more than
3 weeks
b) Patient has NOT lost weight, has got diarrhoea with pudding-like consistency for 1 week
c) Patient has lost weight, has got watery diarrhoea for more than 3 weeks
d) Patient has lost weight, has got water, blood-stripped diarrhoea for 1 week
c?
144
PSS diagnosis:
Intermittent clinical symptoms, neural digestive urinary symptoms, plasma ammonia, FBA-PP bile acid ↑,
doppler ultrasonography
145
The most common cardiac disease in cats:
HCM Hypertrophic CardioMyopathy
146
Symptoms of haemolytic anaemia:
Icterus, haemoglobinuria, bilirubinuria, splenomegaly
147
Characteristics of endocrine skin disorders:
Symmetrical hyper-pigmentation, alopecia on the skin, abnormal skin thickness or thinness, chronic
course
148
Acute blood loss anaemia – Therapy:
a) Stop bleeding, Balansol, whole blood transfusion
b) Stop bleeding, Alkaligen, whole blood transfusion
c) Stop bleeding, mannitol, whole blood transfusion
d) Stop bleeding, HAES, whole blood transfusion
e) Strop bleeding, HAES, fresh frozen plasma
d?
149
Acute respiratory distress syndrome:
Acute hypoxemic respiratory failure caused by lung injury and pulmonary capillary permeability ↑
150
Food allergy dermatitis – Characteristics:
Allergic dermatitis in dogs becoming allergic to specific protein components of the food, localisation:
mainly head, limbs, axillary and inguinal regions
151
Parvo viral enteritis in dogs – Therapy:
Intestinal diet or Enteral nutrition, antibiotics, fluid therapy
152
Tetralogy of fallot:
Aortic displacement, ventricular septal defect, RV hypertrophy and pulmonary stenosis
153
Babesiosis treatment:
Imidocarb dipropionate, Diminazene aceturate, Atavaquone, Azithromycin
154
Which drug is NOT anti-fungal agent?
A) Marbocyl
B) Itraconazole
C) Terbinafine
D) Local konazole
A) Marbocyl
155
The reticulocyte index (RI) in regenerative anaemia:
> 1.5
Dog: An anemia is considered regenerative if the corrected reticulocyte percentage is > 1%
Cat: An anemia is considered regenerative if the corrected reticulocyte percentage is > 0.4% in the cat.
156
Tracheal hypo-plasia – Dog – Radiographix size:
Trachea cross-section diameter : Thoracic inlet diameter < 0.16
Normal is > 0.16
157
Which drug is LESS effective in canine demodicosis?
Amitraz containing collar
| Good efficacy: Washing with Amitraz solution, Ivermectin per os, Advocate spot on
158
Small intestinal diarrhoea – Characteristics – Dog, cat:
Faeces: Large amount, watery, may contain undigested food particles
159
Prostatic tumours in Dogs – Which is NOT true?
A) May occur in castrated males
B) Can be removed by surgery
C) Mostly adenocarcinoma
D) Can be diagnosed from a biopsy specimen
B) Can be removed by surgery
Prostatic tumours – Generally adenocarcinoma (old dogs, also in neutered males). Metastasis, urethral
compression. Treatment is castration (BUT! castration increases risk of prostatic tumours, so dont know why castration is the treatment?)
160
Tetanus – Aetiology, pathogenesis – Dog:
Anaerobe wound + Clostridium tetani infection – Tetanospasmin formation – GABA and Glicin inhibition
161
Which drug CANNOT be applied for Feline auto-immune dermatopathies?
A) Azathioprine
B) Cyclosporine
C) Prednisolone
D)Dexadresone
A) Azathioprine (Toxic for cats!)
162
AHDS – Acute Haemorrhagic Diarrhoea Syndrome – Dog, cat:
Former name: HE – Haemorrhagic GastroEnteritis
| Believed to be either due to hyper-sensitivity or Clostridium toxins
163
Ventricular septal defect – Detection – Dog:
Doppler echocardiography: Localization usually just below the aortic root
164
Pathophysiology of obesity – true or false?
| Hyper-plastic obesity occurs mainly in growing animals
True
165
Which treatment is NOT affecting the severity of proteinuria?
```
A) Renal diet
B) Anti-hypertensive drugs
C) Omega-3 fatty acids
D) ACE-inhibitors
E) All of them decrease proteinuria
```
E) All of them decrease proteinuria
166
Rhinitis – Causes – Dog:
Foreign body, allergy, Aspergillus infection
Viral: Canine distemper, CHV
Bacterial: (Usually secondary to viral, FB, tumour, disruption) – Pasteurella, Streptococcus,
Staphylococcus, Bordetella, Chlamydia
Mycotic: Aspergillus > Cryptococcus
Other: Polyps, FB, and allergy
167
Possible causes of hydro-nephrosis:
Ureter stone
168
Transitional cell carcinoma in the bladder - treatment:
May react to NSAID e.g. Piroxicam treatment
169
Which disease accompanied by ascites in Cat?
Lymphocytic cholangitis
170
Lymphangiectasis – Characteristics – Dog, cat
Leads to protein losing enteropathy in severe case
171
Characteristics of MEED. Which is NOT true?
A) Diarrhoea
B) Skin lesions
C) Hypo-albuminemia, liver enzymes ↑ + absorption tests
D) Gastrointestinal reflux
D) Gastrointestinal reflux
