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Interanal Medicine 3 > SA PQ's 2019 > Flashcards

SA PQ's 2019 Flashcards

1
Q

Which statement is NOT true for PSS in dog?

A) The extra-hepatic PSS occurs in large bred dogs
B) The symptoms of PSS can worsen after feeding of protein rich food (meat)
C) The post-prandial bile acid level of the blood is higher than normal in PSS
D) In congenital PSS the nervous symptoms are episodic

A

A) The extra-hepatic PSS occurs in large bred dogs

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2
Q

Oliguria – Definition, dog:

A

Urine output < 6-10 mL/ttkg/day (low amount of urine)

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3
Q

Oliguria – Etiology, dog:

A

Inadequate water intake, dehydration, acute nephrosis

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4
Q

Which statement is WRONG?
In acute kidney failure, mannitol infusion…
A) Can be repeated up to 5 times in case of anuria
B) Should only be given to a previously rehydrated patient
C) Can be repeated many times if diuresis is present
D) Is recommended in oliguric patients

A

A)Can be repeated up to 5 times in case of anuria

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5
Q

Neurophysiological background of botulism:

A

General muscular paralysis due to inhibited release of ACh at the pre-synaptic motor nerve endings

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6
Q

IAD (small animal) treatment:

A

Incontinence Associated Dermatitis (In eq IAD is Inflammatory Airway Disease)

TX: Steroid

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7
Q

Systolic murmur grades:

A

I – Barely audible
II – Faint but easily audible
III – Loud murmur without a palpable thrill
IV – Loud murmur with a palpable thrill
V – Very loud murmur heard with stethoscope lightly on chest
VI – Very loud murmur that can be heard without a stethoscope

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8
Q

Aortic insufficiency – Cardiac murmur – Characteristics:

A

III-VI / VI Descendo, holodiastolic murmur, often heard in the thoracic inlet as well

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9
Q

Decompressed congestive heart failure in dogs: meds(?)

maybe means decompensated CHF - ans would be furesommide parenteral, salt restriction, additional diuretics, increased dose of pimobendan and sildendafil if severe pul. hypertension, amlodipine or hydralazine (ca channel blockers) to help dilate vessels too.

A

ACE inhibitors, Furosemide, Pimobendan

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10
Q

Temporohyoid osteoarthropathy – Clinical signs:

A

Loss of appetite, salivation, reflux

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11
Q

Beta-blocker anti-arrhythmic drugs:

A

Atenolol, Propanolol, Estiolol

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12
Q

Pathophysiology of obesity – Which of the following statements is true?

A

Hyper-plastic obesity occurs mainly in growing animals

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13
Q

Which statement is NOT true?

A) The bilirubinuria is always pathogenic in cat, associated with hyper-bilirubinaemia
B) The ALT and AST are hepato-cellular enzymes
C) The bile acid, ALP, GGT levels are elevated in cholestasis
D) The ALP-isoenzymes in the cat – Liver, bone, steroid, induced isoenzymes

A

D) The ALP-isoenzymes in the cat – Liver, bone, steroid, induced isoenzymes

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14
Q

Ectopic ureters…Which answer is WRONG?

A) Are causing constant urine dripping
B) Are occurring only in females
C) Can be diagnosed by X-ray or CT exam

A

B) Are occurring only in females

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15
Q

Small strongyles may cause:

A

intussuception

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16
Q

Ethmoid hematoma cause:

A

Angiomatous tissue over-growth

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17
Q

NYHA classification of heart disease:

A

I – Asymotmatic, no CS even with exercise
II – Clinical signs only during strenous activity
III – Clinical signs with routine daily acitivty or mild exertion
IV – Severe clinical signs, even at rest

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18
Q

Signs of Congestive heart failure Stage 3 NYHA grading:

A

Fatigue, collapse caused by exercise, abdominal oedema, ascites

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19
Q

Rabies vs. Aujeszky disease – Differences in symptoms in dog and cat:

A

Anisocoria and paresthesia are common in Aujeszky disease. Attacking behaviour is common in rabies

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20
Q

Which statement is NOT true for chronic hepatitis in dog?

A) Centro-lobular mono-nuclear cell infiltration, inflammation, centro-lobular necrosis, fibrosis
B) Peri-portal mono-nuclear cell infiltration, inflammation, periportal necrosis, fibrosis
C) Chronic procedure, no improvement for 4-6 weeks
D) The histopathology is independent from the case

A

A) Centro-lobular mono-nuclear cell infiltration, inflammation, centro-lobular necrosis, fibrosis

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21
Q

Treatment of benign prostatic hypertrophy in dogs:

A

Only in symptomatic cases, castration, Finasteride

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22
Q

Prerenal azotaemia…Which is the WRONG answer?

A) Could be due to dehydration
B) May cause kidney damage without treatment
C) Can be corrected with fluid therapy
D) May be caused by urine leaking through the wall of the urinary organs

A

D) May be caused by urine leaking through the wall of the urinary organs

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23
Q

Regurgitation definition:

A

Retrograde evacuation of undigested food from the oesophagus by a passive way

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24
Q

The most important aspect of struvite urolithiasis in dogs?

A

Urine acidification

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25
Q

Feline Viral Leukaemia – Etiology:

A

Pathogen: Retrovirus, Oncorna virnae family (FeLV)
Infection: Via saliva, via nasal secretions, in outdoor cats

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26
Q

Paraprostic cysts are:

A

Remnants of the Mullerian duct or Retention cysts

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27
Q

Rabies incubation period:

A

Usuaully 2-4 weeks, but can be shorter or longer, depending on which body part was infected
Incubation period is 2-8 weeks and disease lasts for 4-6 days

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28
Q

Characteristics of iatrogenic osteoporosis – Dog:

A

After long-term glucocortocid therapy - ↓ osteoblast activity and ↓ Ca utilisation

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29
Q

Which is NOT associated with nephrosis syndrome?

A) Sub-cutaneous oedema
B) Glomerulonephropathies
C) Hypotension
D) Higher thrombosis risk
E) Hyper-tension is ALWAYS associated with kidney disease!
A

C) Hypotension

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30
Q

Common symptoms of chronic renal disease:

A

Non-regenerative anaemia, hyper-tension, blindness

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31
Q

Laryngeal paralysis – Dog – Infectious origin:

A

Rabies, Aujeszky disease, botulism

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32
Q

Fanconi symptoms in dogs. Which answer is WRONG?

A) Ketonuria
B) Glosuria
C) Metabolic acidosis
D) Aminoaciduria

A

A) Ketonuria

(Fanconi - A general term for a group of diseases marked by dysfunction of the proximal renal tubules with
multiple defects in reabsorption. Occurs as an inherited disorder in Basenji dogs but has been described
in Norwegian Elkhounds and rarely in other breeds. There is increased urinary excretion of glucose (in
the absence of diabetes mellitus), phosphorus, sodium, uric acid and amino acids, and metabolic acidosis.)

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33
Q

Which drug is NOT anti-histamine?

A) Chlorpiramine
B) Flumetazon
C) Hydroxyzine
D) Dimetindene-maleate

A

B) Flumetazon

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34
Q

In which endocrine disorder is there NO polydipsia / polyuria?

A) Hypo-thyroidism
B) Diabetes mellitus
C) Diabetes insipidus
D) Cushing’s syndrome
E) Hyper-thryoidism
A

A) Hypo-thyroidism

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35
Q

Tracheal hypo-plasia dog – Radiographic size:

A

Trachea / Thoracic inlet > 0.2 0.16 0.12 or width of the 3 rib 3x

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36
Q

Feline bronchial disease / Feline asthma:

A

Paroxysmal, dry, ‘hacking’ cough, open mouth (loud) breathing, prolonged expiration

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37
Q

What is associated with portal hyper-tension?

A

Arterio-portal / Arterio-venosus fistula

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38
Q

Which is NOT associated with portal hyper-tension?

A) Aterioportal / Arterio-venosus fistula
B) Idiopathic non-cirrhotic porate hypoplasia
C) Hepatoportal fibrosis
D) Hepatic micro-vascular hypoplasia

A

D) Hepatic micro-vascular hypoplasia

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39
Q

Renal amyloidosis typically found in which cat breed?

A

Abyssinian

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40
Q

The effect of Pimobendan:

A

Positive inotropic drug, with some vasodilatory effect

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41
Q

A feature of the von Willebrand’s disease:

A

Prolonged surgical bleeding

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42
Q

Is this true?

The blood level of hepato-cellular enzymes (ALT, AST) is elevated in case of necrosis, inflammation,
increased permeability of the hepatocyte membrane

A

yes

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43
Q

Acute pancreatitis – Symptoms in dog:

A

Vomiting, abdominal pain, anorexia

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44
Q

Addison’s disease in dogs – Diagnosis:

A

Na+
/K+ < 27
Cl- ↓
ACTH-stimulation test +

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45
Q

IRIS stage-1 chronic renal failure is associated with:

A

Decreased specific gravity of urine

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46
Q

Acute pancreatitis – Pathogenesis – Dog:

A

Premature, cascade-like activation of pancreas enzymes results in auto-digestion of pancreas

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47
Q

Which treatment is suggested in the long-term treatment of canine atopic dermatitis?

A

Allergen specific immunotherapy (hyposensibilisation)

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48
Q

Which parasite does NOT cause parasitic encephalitis / myelitis?

A) Gasterophilus larvae
B) Strongylus vulgaris larvae
C) Habronema spp.
D) Setaria spp.

A

A) Gasterophilus larvae

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49
Q

1st degree atrio-ventricular block – Characteristics:

A

Prolonged PQ interval

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50
Q

2nd degree atrio-ventricular block – Characteristics:

A

P-wave present, ventricular complex absent (= QRS)

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51
Q

3rd degree atrio-ventricular block – Characteristics:

A

Multiple P waves and no QRS complex

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52
Q

Which statement is NOT typical for cat?

A) The portal hyper-tension, ascites and PU/PD are common signs in hepatopathies in cats
B) The common bile duct joins to the major pancreatic duct before entering the duodenum
C) The acute neutrophil cholangitis is the consequence of ascending bacterial infection
D) The hepatic encephalopathy is a common consequence of the feline hepatic lipidosis due to the argini
deficiency

A

A) The portal hyper-tension, ascites and PU/PD are common signs in hepatopathies in cats

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53
Q

Nomotopic impulse formation disorders:

A

Sinus tachycardia, respiratory arrhythmia, sick sinus syndrome

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54
Q

The approximate upper limit of inorganic phosphate in the plasma of the dog and car is:

A

2.0 mmol/L

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55
Q

Canine chronic bronchitis symptoms:

A

Daily cough for more than 2 months, prolonged expiration and an expiratory push

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56
Q

Forms of lymphoma in dogs:

A

Mediastinal, alimentary, multi-centric

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57
Q

What is polycythaemia absoluta vera?

A

Benign bone marrow neoplasm, which is causing elevated packed cell volume

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58
Q

Rodenticide poisoning diagnostic tests:

A

Clotting time > 20 mins.

Prothrombin time > 15 secs

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59
Q

Causes of acute interstitial nephritis in small animals:

A

Leptospirosis

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60
Q

Food allergy diagnosis in dog, cat:

A

Hypoallergenic monodiet then provocation with the suspected causative agent

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61
Q

Congenital heart diseases causing volume overload:

A

PDA, VSD

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62
Q

Physioloigcal coagulation time (in glass tube) in dog:

A

Less than 5-10 mins.

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63
Q

Acute colitis – Dog, cat - Clinical signs:

A

Small amount, pudding-like, mcuinous, bloody (haematocheria) diarrhea

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64
Q

Is this true?

Collie and Shetland sheepdog are predisposed to dermatomycosis

A

yes

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65
Q

How would you treat a cat diagnosed with intersitial cystitis (FIC)?

A

Increase water intake

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66
Q

Causes of acromegaly in dog and cat:

A

Dog: Progesterone treatment, mammary gland tumour, ovarian cysts
Cat: Pituitary tumour

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67
Q

The progression of renal diseases caused by… Which is NOT correct?

A) Proteinuria
B) Hyper-parathyroidisim
C) Isostenuria
D) Glomerular hyper-tension

A

C) Isostenuria

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68
Q

Parvo viral enteritis in dog – Therapy:

A

Intestinal diet or Enteral nutriiton, antibiotic, fluid therapy

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69
Q

Common symptoms of chronic renal disease:

A

Abdominal pain, polyuria, hypocalcemia

70
Q

A feature of von Willebrand’s disease:

A

Prolonged surgical bleeding

71
Q

Acute pancreatitis – Symptoms – Dog:

A

Vomiting, abdominal pain, anorexia

72
Q

Beta-blocker anti-arrytmic drugs:

A

Atenolol, Propanolol, Esmolol

73
Q

Nomotopic impulse formation disorders:

A

Sinus tachycardia, respiratory arrythimia, sick sinus syndrome

74
Q

Neuro-physiological background of Botulism:

A

General muscular paralysis due to inihibited ACh at the pre-synaptic motor nerve endings

75
Q

Acute blood loss anaemia, therapy:

A

Stop bleeding, HAES, whole blood transfusion

76
Q

Decompensated congestive heart failure – Drugs:

A

ACE inhbiition, Furosemide, Pimobendan

77
Q

Nasal tumours, treatment and prognosis:

A

Neither early recognition, radiotherapy, chemotherapy, nor surgery can significanlt prolong the survivial
time

78
Q

Examinations of the abdominal distension for SA:

A

Undulation, US, X-ray, abdominocentesis

79
Q

Benign prostatic hyper-plasia treatment:

A

Only in symptomatic patients, castration Finestride

80
Q

Cystitis in cat treatment:

A

Increase water intake

81
Q

Nomotrop impulse formation disorder:

A

Sinus tachycardia, respiratory arrhyymia, sick sinus syndrome

82
Q

Copper storage treatment:

A

D-penicillamine (chelating agent)

83
Q

Dierhofer triangle border:

A

In front: Caudal part of heart

From behind: Diaphragmatic line

84
Q

FORL treatment:

A

feline odontoclastic resorptive lesion

Tx: Extraction of teeth

85
Q

Acromegaly treatment:

A

Ovariehysterectomy

86
Q

Hypo-adrenocorticisim, change in hormones:

A

Primary cortisol decreased and aldosterone decrease

87
Q

The bacterial rhinitis is almost always a secondary disease, usually with viral infection in the
background. T/F?

A

True

88
Q

Addison’s:
Definition –
Lab values –
Diagnosis –

A

Definition – Primary hypo-adrenocorticism (= Addison’s disease) – Destruction of the adrenal cortex most
commonly immune mediated. Leads to mineral corticoid and glucocorticoid deficiencies.

Lab values – Na < 140 mmol/L (hypo-natremia) – K > 5.6 mmol/L (hyper-kalemia) – Na:K ratio less than
15:1 is virtually diagnostic – USG < 1.030 (due to medullary washout from Na loss)

Diagnosis – Uncommon in dog, rare in cats. Clinical signs of acute presentation = Addisonian crisis
(vomit, diarrhoea, lethargy, weakness, anorexia, PU / PD). Chronic intermittent GI signs. Biochemistry,
haematology, electrolytes, urinalysis – Electrolyte abnormalities – ACTH stimulation test

89
Q

Addison’s disease in dogs – Causes, pathogenesis:

a) The primary is due to auto-immune inflammation of the adrenals. The secondary disease is caysed by
incorrect glucocorticoids therapy
b) Primary: Cortisol ↑ Aldosterone ↓ Secondary: Cortisol ↓ Aldosterone same
c) The primary disease is due to incorrect glucocorticoid therapy. The secondary disease is caused by
auto-immune inflammation of the adrenals
d) Primary: Cortisol ↓ Aldosterone ↓ Secondary: Cortisol same Aldosterone ↓

A

?a primary bc autoimmune inflam of adrenals, 2ndary bc incorrect GCC tx

90
Q 
Which is NOT zoonotic?
True:
✓ Sarcoptes
✓ Demodicosis
✓ Trichophyton
A

?

91
Q

Treatment of CKD patients include… Which is NOT correct?

A) Diuretics per os
B) Renal diet, phosphorus binders
C) ACE inhibitors, anti-hypertensive drugs
D) Erythropoietin injection, potassium supplementation

A

A) Diuretics per os

92
Q

The glutaraldehyde test from blood is detecting:

A

Positive acute phase proteins, like globulin, fibrinogen

93
Q

Which treatment is NOT adequate for a dog that drank anti-freeze 12 hours ago?

A

D-penicillamine (Chelating agent for Cu and some others, don’t remember)

94
Q

I degree atrio-ventricular block – Characteristics:

A

Prolonged PQ interval

95
Q

Hypo-adrenocorticism of dogs – Therapy:

A

Crisis: 0.9% saline, hydrocortisone
Later: Fludrocortisone, Prednisolone, salt

Hyper-Adrenocorticism TX: Trilostane

96
Q

Borders of the Diernhofer triangle:

A

In front: Caudal part of heart
From behind: Diaphragmatic line

The enlarged cardiac dullness and behind it the Diernhofer triangle including an air-containing lung lobe
between the diaphragm and the caudal border of the heart. In this area, the percussion sound of the
thorax is normal in healthy animals

97
Q

Immune-mediated haemolytic anaemia, characteristic laboratory findings:

A

Regenerative anaemia, auto-agglutination, spherocytosis

98
Q

Blood in the urine is detected with:

A

Benzidine test

99
Q

Which hereditary skin disease is lethal?

A

Grey collie syndrome

100
Q

Diabetes insipidus, which is correct?

A

The most effective drug in the central form is Desmopressin

101
Q

Thromboembolic meningoencephalitis (TEME) – Prognosis and treatment:

A

Sulfonamides, antibiotics might help in early stage

102
Q

Cervical stenotic myelopathy – Diagnostics:

A

Myelography

103
Q

ACE inhibitors (want 3):

A

Ramipril, Enalapril, Benazepril

104
Q

Treatment of smoke inhalation:

A

Tracheostomy in case of severe laryngeal odema, oxygen, bronchodilators, analgesics, glucocorticoids
only in acute cardiovascular shock

105
Q

Subjective Body Condition Scoring – BCS system. Most often applied scale:

A

Used scale: 1-5 or 1-9

106
Q

Causes of paralytic ileus:

A

Enteritis, peritonitis, abdominal surgery (post-operative stage)

107
Q

Pharmacological classification of Vincristine:

A

Chemotherapeutic drug

108
Q

Nomotopic impulse formation disorders:

A

Sinus tachycardia, respiratory arrhythmia, sick sinus syndrome

109
Q

Renal cysts are (How are they most often discovered?):

A

Mainly incidental findings

110
Q

What is 2/3rd rule in connection with canine splenic disorders:

A

2/3rd of the splenic disorders are neoplastic processes

111
Q

Rubber jaw – Underlying disorders – Dog:

A

Chronic renal disease – Secondary hyper-parathryoidism

112
Q

EPI (Exocrine Pancreatic Insufficiency) – Diagnosis – Dog:

A

Serum TLI (Trypsin-Like Immunoreactivity) measurement

113
Q

What is the first choice drug in the treatment of primary Copper storage disease of the liver?

A

D-penicillamine

114
Q

Which dermatological additional examination are they true for: It is quick, can be done in situ, it
can be evaluated in 10 mins, it may be helpful to distinguish the inflammatory from the neoplastic
procedure:

A

Cytology

115
Q

Which is the main and initiating cause of the calcium-phosphorus imbalance in chronic renal
failure?

A

Retention of phosphorus

116
Q

Causes of hyper-tension in kidney patients. Which answer is NOT correct?

A) Prolonged activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system
B) Increased peripheral resistance
C) Systemic vasoconstriction
D) Dehydration

A

D) Dehydration

117
Q

Stomatitis – Clinical signs:

A

Drooling, halitosis, reddening of the mucous membrane of the oral cavity

118
Q

Temporohyoid osteoathropathy – Diagnostics. Which is NOT true?

A) X-ray
B) Ultrasound
C) Endoscopy
D) CT

A

B) Ultrasound

119
Q

Mega-oesophagus – Cause – Dog:

A

Disorders accompanied with neuromuscular dysfunction

120
Q

Anti-emetics – Dog (4 answers):

A

Chlorpromazine, Teithylperazine, Maropitant, Metoclopramide

121
Q

Hypo-thryoidsim of dogs – Symptoms:

A

Activity ↓ obesity, alopecia, thick skin, bradycardia, fertility ↓

122
Q

Pleuritis, purulent-exudative – Cat – Symptoms:

A

Fever, thoracic exudate, mixed dyspnoea with increase inspiratory efforts, disappearance of the
Diernhofer triangle

123
Q

Teratology of Fallot consists from:

A

Ventricular septal defect, aorta-transposition, pulmonary stenosis, right ventricular hypertrophy

124
Q

Idiopathic head shaking – Cause:

A

Trigeminal neuralgia

125
Q

Which statement is NOT true for chronic hepatitis in dog?

A) Centro-lobular mono-nuclear cell infiltration, inflammation, centro-lobular necrosis, fibrosis
B) Peri-portal mono-nuclear cell infiltration,
C) Chronic procedures, no improvement for 4-6 weeks
D) The histopathology is independent from the cause

A

A) Centro-lobular mono-nuclear cell infiltration, inflammation, centro-lobular necrosis, fibrosis

126
Q

Decompensated congestive heart failure – Dogs:

A

ACE-inhibitors, Furosemide, Pimobendane

127
Q

Brachycephalic airway syndrome:

A

Secondary to congenital airway malformations (Stenotic nares, elongated soft palate, hypoplastic trachea
– Laryngeal saccular oedema and eversion)

128
Q

Mild, acute, small intestinal diarrhoea – Suggested additional examinations – Dog, cat:

A

Faecal analysis: Parasitological examination and bacteriological culture

129
Q

Prevention of epileptic seizures – Medicament – Dog:

A

Phenobarbital, potassium-bromide

130
Q

Heterotrop impulse formation disorders – Ventricular:

A

Paroxysmal ventricular tachycardia, ventricular fibrillation, ventricular flutter

131
Q

Fat derived peptides – Effects of cytokines and hormones produced by adipocytes:

A

Mild chronic inflammation, long-lasting oxidative stress

132
Q

What is flea bite dermatitis?

A

Allergic dermatitis in dogs become allergic to the flea saliva protein after repeated flea bite challenge,
localisation: lumbo-sacral region

133
Q

Ketone bodies in the urine are detected by:

A

Sodium nitroprussid agent

134
Q

Squamous cell carcinoma – Occurrence – Cat:

A

The most common malignant tumour of the oral cavity

135
Q

Diseases with haemorrhagic diathesis:

A

Chronic kidney disease, DIC, von Willebrand’s disease

136
Q

Chronic endocardiosis in Dogs – Occurrence rate on the cardiac valves:

A

Mitral: 60% - Tricuspid 10% - Mitral and tricuspid 30%

137
Q

Dogs: Appropriate speed of losing BW?
Cats: Appropriate speed of losing BW?

A

Ca: 1-2% of BW/week
Fe: 0.5-1% of BW/week

138
Q

Fungal rhinitis, which species:

A

Aspergillus or Cryptococcus in the origin

139
Q

What is the most important test for diagnosing glomerulonephropathies?

A

Detection of severe proteinuria

140
Q

CKD – Which answer is WRONG?

A) There are 4 stages determined by the serum creatinine levels
B) There are substages based on the presence of proteinuria
C) In state I – The creatinine level is only mildly elevated
D) There are stages based on serum creatinine

A

C) In state I – The creatinine level is only mildly elevated

141
Q

Clinical signs of rabies – Order of paralysis:

a) Cranial nerve paralysis, spreading backwards from the forelegs to the hindlegs
b) Cranial nerve paralysis, followed by ascending paralysis, followed by ascending paralysis of the limbs
c) Descending paralysis of the limbs followed by cranial nerve paralysis
d) Behavioural abnormalities, then forelimb paralysis, then hind limb paralysis, finally dysphagia

A

d?

142
Q

Hepatitis cause by viruses – Dog and cat:

a) Canine distemper virus (CAV-1), Calici virus, FIV
b) Rubarth disease (CAV-1), Panleukopenia, FeLV
c) Rubarth disease (CAV-1), Herpes virus caused hepatitis, FIP
d) FIP, Calici virus, Mycoplasmosis

A

?

143
Q

Severe, chronic, small-intestinal diarrhoea – Characteristics - Dog and cat:

a) Patient has lost weight, has got blood stripped diarrhoea with pudding-like consistency for more than
3 weeks
b) Patient has NOT lost weight, has got diarrhoea with pudding-like consistency for 1 week
c) Patient has lost weight, has got watery diarrhoea for more than 3 weeks
d) Patient has lost weight, has got water, blood-stripped diarrhoea for 1 week

A

c?

144
Q

PSS diagnosis:

A

Intermittent clinical symptoms, neural digestive urinary symptoms, plasma ammonia, FBA-PP bile acid ↑,
doppler ultrasonography

145
Q

The most common cardiac disease in cats:

A

HCM Hypertrophic CardioMyopathy

146
Q

Symptoms of haemolytic anaemia:

A

Icterus, haemoglobinuria, bilirubinuria, splenomegaly

147
Q

Characteristics of endocrine skin disorders:

A

Symmetrical hyper-pigmentation, alopecia on the skin, abnormal skin thickness or thinness, chronic
course

148
Q

Acute blood loss anaemia – Therapy:

a) Stop bleeding, Balansol, whole blood transfusion
b) Stop bleeding, Alkaligen, whole blood transfusion
c) Stop bleeding, mannitol, whole blood transfusion
d) Stop bleeding, HAES, whole blood transfusion
e) Strop bleeding, HAES, fresh frozen plasma

A

d?

149
Q

Acute respiratory distress syndrome:

A

Acute hypoxemic respiratory failure caused by lung injury and pulmonary capillary permeability ↑

150
Q

Food allergy dermatitis – Characteristics:

A

Allergic dermatitis in dogs becoming allergic to specific protein components of the food, localisation:
mainly head, limbs, axillary and inguinal regions

151
Q

Parvo viral enteritis in dogs – Therapy:

A

Intestinal diet or Enteral nutrition, antibiotics, fluid therapy

152
Q

Tetralogy of fallot:

A

Aortic displacement, ventricular septal defect, RV hypertrophy and pulmonary stenosis

153
Q

Babesiosis treatment:

A

Imidocarb dipropionate, Diminazene aceturate, Atavaquone, Azithromycin

154
Q

Which drug is NOT anti-fungal agent?

A) Marbocyl
B) Itraconazole
C) Terbinafine
D) Local konazole

A

A) Marbocyl

155
Q

The reticulocyte index (RI) in regenerative anaemia:

A

> 1.5

Dog: An anemia is considered regenerative if the corrected reticulocyte percentage is > 1%

Cat: An anemia is considered regenerative if the corrected reticulocyte percentage is > 0.4% in the cat.

156
Q

Tracheal hypo-plasia – Dog – Radiographix size:

A

Trachea cross-section diameter : Thoracic inlet diameter < 0.16
Normal is > 0.16

157
Q

Which drug is LESS effective in canine demodicosis?

A

Amitraz containing collar

Good efficacy: Washing with Amitraz solution, Ivermectin per os, Advocate spot on

158
Q

Small intestinal diarrhoea – Characteristics – Dog, cat:

A

Faeces: Large amount, watery, may contain undigested food particles

159
Q

Prostatic tumours in Dogs – Which is NOT true?

A) May occur in castrated males
B) Can be removed by surgery
C) Mostly adenocarcinoma
D) Can be diagnosed from a biopsy specimen

A

B) Can be removed by surgery

Prostatic tumours – Generally adenocarcinoma (old dogs, also in neutered males). Metastasis, urethral
compression. Treatment is castration (BUT! castration increases risk of prostatic tumours, so dont know why castration is the treatment?)

160
Q

Tetanus – Aetiology, pathogenesis – Dog:

A

Anaerobe wound + Clostridium tetani infection – Tetanospasmin formation – GABA and Glicin inhibition

161
Q

Which drug CANNOT be applied for Feline auto-immune dermatopathies?

A) Azathioprine
B) Cyclosporine
C) Prednisolone
D)Dexadresone

A

A) Azathioprine (Toxic for cats!)

162
Q

AHDS – Acute Haemorrhagic Diarrhoea Syndrome – Dog, cat:

A

Former name: HE – Haemorrhagic GastroEnteritis

Believed to be either due to hyper-sensitivity or Clostridium toxins

163
Q

Ventricular septal defect – Detection – Dog:

A

Doppler echocardiography: Localization usually just below the aortic root

164
Q

Pathophysiology of obesity – true or false?

Hyper-plastic obesity occurs mainly in growing animals

A

True

165
Q

Which treatment is NOT affecting the severity of proteinuria?

A) Renal diet 
B) Anti-hypertensive drugs 
C) Omega-3 fatty acids 
D) ACE-inhibitors
E) All of them decrease proteinuria
A

E) All of them decrease proteinuria

166
Q

Rhinitis – Causes – Dog:

A

Foreign body, allergy, Aspergillus infection
Viral: Canine distemper, CHV
Bacterial: (Usually secondary to viral, FB, tumour, disruption) – Pasteurella, Streptococcus,
Staphylococcus, Bordetella, Chlamydia
Mycotic: Aspergillus > Cryptococcus
Other: Polyps, FB, and allergy

167
Q

Possible causes of hydro-nephrosis:

A

Ureter stone

168
Q

Transitional cell carcinoma in the bladder - treatment:

A

May react to NSAID e.g. Piroxicam treatment

169
Q

Which disease accompanied by ascites in Cat?

A

Lymphocytic cholangitis

170
Q

Lymphangiectasis – Characteristics – Dog, cat

A

Leads to protein losing enteropathy in severe case

171
Q

Characteristics of MEED. Which is NOT true?

A) Diarrhoea
B) Skin lesions
C) Hypo-albuminemia, liver enzymes ↑ + absorption tests
D) Gastrointestinal reflux

A

D) Gastrointestinal reflux

Interanal Medicine 3 (7 decks)

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