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Interanal Medicine 3 > PQs > Flashcards

PQs Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which is not zoonotic?

a) Sarcoptes
b) Demodicosis
c) Trichophyton

A

b) Demodicosis

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2
Q
  1. Most common causes of lower urinary tract disease in cats?

a) Bladder tumour, prostate alterations
b) Anatomical disorders, foreign bodies
c) Bacterial infection, urolithiasis
d) Interstitial cystitis, urolithiasis

A

d) Interstitial cystitis, urolithiasis

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3
Q
  1. Thromboembolic meningoencephalitis (TEME)/ features:

a) Disease of feedlot lambs caused by adenovirus, fever, sudden neurological signs, somnolence (sleeping disease) coma, death within 2 days
b) Haemophilus somnus disease of feedlot bulls with septicaemia, purulent pneumonia -encephalitis; progressive apathy, opisthotonus, lateral recumbency, strabismus, somnolence
c) Streptococcus-caused disease of calves, disorders of the respiratory organs, followed by neurological signs, somnolence (sleeping disease) coma, death within one weeks

A

b) Haemophilus somnus disease of feedlot bulls with septicaemia, purulent pneumonia -
encephalitis; progressive apathy, opisthotonus, lateral recumbency, strabismus, somnolence

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4
Q
  1. Bronchodilators for horses in emergency treatment (in RAO/COPD)?

a) Triamcinolone, fluticazon
b) Bromhexine, dembrexine
c) Albuterol, clenbuterol
d) Atropine, ipratropium

A

d) Atropine, ipratropium

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5
Q
  1. What serum parameters would be increased in this foal with Se- Vitamin -E deficiency?

a) AST, CK, LDH
b) GGT, AST, ALT
c) CK, SDH, GLDH
d) Creatinine, ALT, CK

A

a) AST, CK, LDH

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6
Q
  1. Which is the appropriate liver enzyme group for ruminants´hepatic enzymes?

a) AST, ALT, GLDH, GGT, ALP
b) AST, SDH, GLDH, GGT, ALP
c) AST, SDH, GLDH, GGT, ALP, bilirubin
d) AST, CK, GLDH, GGT, ALP, troponin

A

b) AST, SDH, GLDH, GGT, ALP

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7
Q
  1. The course of botulism in cattle:

a) Only peracute or acute
b) Can be peracute, acute or subacute
c) Only acute
d) Only subacute and chronic

A

b) Can be peracute, acute or subacute

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8
Q
  1. Equine pneumonia/treatment/antibacterial drugs?

a) Ampicillin, lincomycin, metronidazole
b) Amoxicillin, gentamicin, metronidazole
c) Clindamycin, metronidazole, neomycin
d) Erythromycin, clarithromycin, amphotericin

A

b) Amoxicillin, gentamicin, metronidazole

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9
Q
  1. Laboratory findings of a hepatopathy in horses?

a) ALT ↑, AST ↓, SDH ↑, total protein ↑, blood anaemia ↓
b) Erythrocyte count ↓, left shift of the granulocytes, bilirubin ↑, bile acids ↓
c) Bilirubin ↑, bile acids ↑, AST ↑, GGT ↑, GLDH ↑, SDH ↑
d) BUN ↑, ammonia ↑, total protein ↑, creatinine ↑

A

c) Bilirubin ↑, bile acids ↑, AST ↑, GGT ↑, GLDH ↑, SDH ↑

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10
Q
  1. Gingivostomatitis in cats. Possible aetiology.

a) Mycoplasma haemofelis
b) Brachyspira hyosdisenterica
c) FIP
d) FIV
e) Isospora felis

A

d) FIV

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11
Q
  1. The most common congenital cardiac disease of swine from the list below:

a) Congenital ventricular septal defect
b) Tetralogy of Fallot
c) Congenital mitral valve dysplasia
d) Congenital atrial septal defect

A

a) Congenital ventricular septal defect

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12
Q
  1. Heterotrop impulse formation disorders/ventricular?

a) Paroxysmal ventricular tachycardia, ventricular fibrillation, ventricular flutter
b) Ventricular extrasystole, atrioventricular block, ventricular tachycardia
c) Ventricular tachycardia, fascicular block, ventricular flutter
d) Vandering pacemaker, AV block, ventricular fibrillation

A

a) Paroxysmal ventricular tachycardia, ventricular fibrillation, ventricular flutter

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13
Q
  1. What disorder could cause the alterations in this picture? (enlarged mandible, bone tumour)

a) Hypertrophic ostheopathy (acropachia)
b) Craniomandibular osteopathy
c) A hypervitaminosis
d) Rachitis

A

b) Craniomandibular osteopathy

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14
Q
  1. Vegetative endocarditis/swine/most commonly affected cardiac valve?

a) Aortic valve
b) Mitral valve
c) Tricuspid valve
d) Pulmonic valve

A

b) Mitral valve

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15
Q
  1. Which statement describes sycosis horses?

a) Folliculitis on the back due to the untended saddle
b) Folliculitis long hair follicles on the hock, dorsal margin of the neck, root of the tail
c) Painful pustulous skin disease appearing on the skin of neck, back due to poor handling

A

b) Folliculitis long hair follicles on the hock, dorsal margin of the neck, root of the tail

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16
Q
  1. DIC: therapy?

a) Transfusion, fluid therapy, acetylic acid
b) Transfusion, vitamin-K, fluid therapy
c) Transfusion, heparin, fluid therapy
d) Transfusion, fluid therapy, acetylic acid, pentoxifylline
e) Transfusion, fluid therapy, acetylic acid, furosemide

A

c) Transfusion, heparin, fluid therapy

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17
Q
  1. Fog fever/cattle/substance damage the alveoli?

a) 3-methylindole
b) L-triptophan
c) 18-S-protein
d) Fumonisine B1

A

a) 3-methylindole

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18
Q
  1. Dental diseases in horses/signs?

a) Riding difficulties, decreased appetite, weight loss, diarrhoea
b) Riding difficulties, decreased appetite, weight loss, nasal discharge
c) Dysphagia, nasal discharge, head tilt
d) Dysphagia, diarrhoea, nasogastric reflux

A

b) Riding difficulties, decreased appetite, weight loss, nasal discharge

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19
Q
  1. Paraesthesia in cattle? For what disease is this symptom characteristic?

a) Rabies
b) TEME
c) Aujeszky disease (pseudorabies)
d) Acute lead poisoning

A

c) Aujeszky disease (pseudorabies)

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20
Q
  1. Hyperlipidaemia of horses/occurrence/aetiology?

a) In maiden mares, high fat diet
b) Breed predisposition (ponies, miniature, thoroughbreds), anorexia after parturition, stress
c) Breed predisposition (ponies, miniature), pregnancy, obesity, stress, anorexia
d) Breed predisposition (thoroughbreds), stress, anorexia

A

c) Breed predisposition (ponies, miniature), pregnancy, obesity, stress, anorexia

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21
Q
  1. Diseases with haemorrhagic diathesis:

a) Chronic liver disease, DIC, von-Willebrand’s disease
b) Chronic kidney disease, DIC, von-Willebrand’s disease
c) Chronic liver disease, DIC, Raynaud’s syndrome
d) Rodenticide poisoning, DIC, Harada’s disease

A

a) Chronic liver disease, DIC, von-Willebrand’s disease

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22
Q
  1. COPD (RAO)/ Bronchoalveolar lavage sample

a) Neutrophils <2%, eosinophils >2%
b) Mast cells >20%
c) Eosinophils >2%, neutrophils >5%
d) Neutrophils >20%

A

d) Neutrophils >20%

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23
Q
  1. Hypoadrenocorticism of dogs: therapy?

a) Crisis: 0.9% saline, hydrocortisone, Later: fludrocortisone, prednisolone, salt
b) Crisis: 0.09% saline, hydrocortisone, Later: fludrocortisone, prednisolone, salt
c) Crisis: 0.9% saline, hydrocortisone, Later: progesterone, prednisolone
d) Crisis: 0.9% saline, fludrocortisone, Later: hydrocortisone, prednisolone, salt

A

a) Crisis: 0.9% saline, hydrocortisone, Later: fludrocortisone, prednisolone, salt

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24
Q
  1. Polydipsia/definition/dog and cat?

a) Dog and cat: water intake >50ml/bwkg/day
b) Dog: water intake >80-100ml/bwkg/day, Cat: water intake >100ml/bwkg/day
c) Dog and cat: water intake >100ml/bwkg/day
d) Dog: water intake >50ml/bwkg/day, Cat: water intake >100ml/bwkg/day

A

b) Dog: water intake >80-100ml/bwkg/day, Cat: water intake >100ml/bwkg/day

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25
Q
  1. Photosensitisation/Which statement is true?

a) Hypericum perforatum (St. John’s wort) causes primary photosensitisation
b) Lupinus albus causes only primary photosensitisation, but not 2ndary photosensitisation
c) Hypericum perforatum (St. John’s wort) causes only secondary photosensitisation
d) The colchicine causes only secondary photosensitisation

A

a) Hypericum perforatum (St. John’s wort) causes primary photosensitisation

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26
Q
  1. Congenital heart diseases causing volume
    overload?

a) Aortic stenosis, tricuspid dysplasia
b) Fallot tetralogy, pulmonic stenosis
c) PDA, VSD
d) ASD, mitral dysplasia, PPDH

A

c) PDA, VSD

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27
Q
  1. Equine pneumonia/treatment/antibacterial drugs?

a) Ampicillin, lincomycin, metronidazole
b) Amoxicillin, gentamicin, metronidazole
c) Clindamycin, metronidazole, neomycin
d) Erythromycin, clarithromycin, amphotericin

A

b) Amoxicillin, gentamicin, metronidazole

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28
Q
  1. Paraprostic cysts are?

a) Caused by ascending infections (e.g. E. coli)
b) Caused by prostatic tumour or squamous metaplasia
c) Remnants of the Müllerian-duct or retention cysts
d) Small fluid filled cavities

A

c) Remnants of the Müllerian-duct or retention cysts

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29
Q
  1. What kind of alteration could cause the symptoms shown on the picture?

a) Reflux syndrome
b) Anterior functional stenosis
c) Frothy bloat
d) Torsion of the uterus

A

b) Anterior functional stenosis

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30
Q
  1. Rhodococcus equi/horse?

a) Occurs in foals between 1-6 months
b) Occurs exclusively in immunosuppressed individuals
c) Occurs in neonatal foals
d) Causes bronchitis in adult horses

A

a) Occurs in foals between 1-6 months

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31
Q
  1. Which statement is NOT true?

a) The bilirubinuria is always pathologic in cats associated with hyperbilirubinaemia
b) The ALP-isoenzymes in the cat: liver, bone, steroid induced isoenzymes
c) The ALT and AST are hepatocellular enzymes
d) the bile acid, ALP, GGT levels are elevated in cholestasis

A

b) The ALP-isoenzymes in the cat: liver, bone, steroid induced isoenzymes

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32
Q
  1. Guttural pouch mycosis/signs?

a) Unilateral nasal bleeding, fever, halitosis
b) Bilateral nasal discharge, fever, cough
c) Epistaxis, nasal discharge, dysphagia, laryngeal paralysis, Horner syndrome
d) Swollen parotid region, loss of appetite, weightloss, cough

A

c) Epistaxis, nasal discharge, dysphagia, laryngeal paralysis, Horner syndrome

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33
Q
  1. Which drug can not be applied for feline autoimmune dermatopathies?

a) Cyclosporine
b) Prednisolone
c) Azathioprine
d) Desadresone

A

c) Azathioprine

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34
Q
  1. Which statement is NOT characteristic for the primer Cu accumulation?

a) Progressive, life-long Cu accumulation
b) Centrolobular zona
c) Beddlington terrier, Labrador and Dalmatian have primer Cu accumulation
d) The Cu accumulation is caused by cholestasis

A

d) The Cu accumulation is caused by cholestasis

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35
Q
  1. Congenital heart diseases causing pressure overload?

a) Aortic stenosis, pulmonic stenosis
b) Fallot tetralogy, tricuspid dysplasia
c) PDA, VSD
d) ASD, mitral dysplasia, PPDH

A

a) Aortic stenosis, pulmonic stenosis

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36
Q
  1. Traumatic/perforating pericarditis/specific symptoms/cattle?

a) Increased, absolute cardiac dullness, auscultation decreased or missing cardiac sounds,
splashing sounds over the cardiac region, congested jugular vein, brisket oedema
b) Horizontal dullness in the thorax, dystolic cardiac murmur, congested jugular vein, + venous pulse
c) Absolute cardiac dullness, pericardial cardiac murmurs, insp. dyspnoea, Diernhofer-triangle disasa
d) Convex, dorsal dullness in the thorax, rubbing sounds, congested jugular vein, - venous pulse

A

a) Increased, absolute cardiac dullness, auscultation decreased or missing cardiac sounds,
splashing sounds over the cardiac region, congested jugular vein, brisket oedema

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37
Q
  1. Pathomechanism of colic / abdominocentesis, what is in the image ?

a. protein: 2,0 g/dl, white blood cell: 3000/ul, negative
b. protein: 2,0 g/dl, white blood cell: 5000/ul, acute abdomen/peritonitis
c. protein: 6,5 g/dl, white blood cell: 3000/ul, negative
d. protein: 6,5 g/dl, white blood cell: 5000/ul, abdomen/peritonitis

A

b. protein: 2,0 g/dl, white blood cell: 5000/ul, acute abdomen/peritonitis

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38
Q
  1. Common symptoms of chronic renal diseases?

a) Abdominal pain, polyuria, hypocalcaemia
b) Papillary oedema, hypokalaemia, dysuria
c) Regenerative anaemia, hypertension, hypophosphataemia
d) Non-regenerative anaemia, hypertension, blindness

A

d) Non-regenerative anaemia, hypertension, blindness

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39
Q

41.Secretolytics for horses?

a) Atropine, terbutaline, dembrexine
b) Acetylcysteine, bromhexine, dembrexine
c) Terbutaline, clenbuterol, dexamethasone
d) Clenbuterol, albuterol, dembrexine

A

b) Acetylcysteine, bromhexine, dembrexine

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40
Q
  1. Skin lesions of acute porcine erysipelas:

a) Necrosis, exfoliation of the skin
b) Vesicles with serous content, later eruptions - skin ulceration
c) Diffuse erythema, hemorrhages, diamond-shap red raised discolouration of skin
d) There are no skin lesions

A

c) Diffuse erythema, hemorrhages, diamond-shap red raised discolouration of skin

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41
Q
  1. Aortic insufficiency/cardiac murmur/characteristics?

a) III-VI/VI decrescendo, holodiastolic murmur, often heard in horacic inlet as well
b) III-VI/VI crescendo-decrescendo, diastolic murmur, often heard in thoracic inlet as well
c) III-VI/VI decrescendo, systolic murmur, often heard over the right hemithorax
d) I-IV/VI decrescendo, diastolic murmur, often heard in the thoracic inlet as well

A

b) III-VI/VI crescendo-decrescendo, diastolic murmur, often heard in thoracic inlet as well

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42
Q
  1. Free abdominal fluid: which statement is true?

a) Chyle is a milk-like fluid
b) The protein content of exudate is low
c) In case of hypoalbuminaemia, modified transudate accumulates in the abdomen
d) In case of urinary bladder rupture, creatinine conc is higher in blood, than in abdomen
e) Intraabdominal bleeding causes iron deficiency anaemia

A

a) Chyle is a milk-like fluid

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43
Q
  1. Caused by what disease and what sound produced by these cattle?

a) Aujeszky’s disease (pseudorabies), lion-like roaring
b) Tracheal paralysis, tracheal stridor
c) Rabies, donkey-like roaring
d) Rabies, lion-like roaring

A

c) Rabies, donkey-like roaring

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44
Q
  1. Immune-mediated haemolytic anaemia, characteristic laboratory findings?

a) Non-regenerative anaemia, anisocytosis, autoagglutination
b) Regenerative anaemia, hypochromasia, microcytosis
c) Positive osmotic fragility test, autoagglutination, neutropenia
d) Regenerative anaemia, autoagglutination, sphaerocytosis

A

d) Regenerative anaemia, autoagglutination, sphaerocytosis

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45
Q
  1. What is the most common underlying disease in the case of bacterial folliculitis in dogs?

a) Atopic dermatitis
b) Hypothyroidism
c) Diabetes mellitus
d) Keratoseborrboric disorders

A

a) Atopic dermatitis

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46
Q
  1. Rhinitis/cause/dog

a) Foreign body, allergy, Aspergillus infection
b) Canine distemper, rhinotracheitis (calicivirus), mycotic rhinitis
c) Rhinopneumonitis (herpesvirus), Rubarth-disease, canine distemper
d) canine distemper, leptospirosis, mycotic rhinitis

A

a) Foreign body, allergy, Aspergillus infection

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47
Q
  1. Which statement is TRUE for the laboratory signs of fatty liver syndrome in cows?

a) The blood ammonia concentration usually does not change
b) The blood non-esterified fatty acid concentration (NEFA) usually does not change
c) The blood urea concentration usually decreases
d) The blood urea concentration usually increases

A

c) The blood urea concentration usually decreases

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48
Q
  1. Feline viral leukaemia/aetiology?

a) Pathogen: Lentivirus, Oncoviridae family (FeLV), infection by inhalation in indoor cats together
b) Pathogen: oncovirus (FIV), infection via faeces, in old male cats
c) Pathogen: retrovirus, Oncornavirinae family (FeLV), infection: via saliva, via nasal
secretions, in outdoor cats
d) Pathogen: retrovirus, Caliciviridae family (FeLV), infection: via urine, faeces

A

c) Pathogen: retrovirus, Oncornavirinae family (FeLV), infection: via saliva, via nasal
secretions, in outdoor cats

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49
Q
  1. Atrial fibrillation in horses:

a) Quinidine sulphate
b) Procainamide
c) Lidocaine
d) Propranolol

A

a) Quinidine sulphate

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50
Q
  1. How would you treat a cat diagnosed with interstitial cystitis (FIC)?

a) Antibiotics
b) Urine acidifying diet
c) Catheterisation, flushing out of the bladder with isotonic saline
d) Increase water intake

A

d) Increase water intake

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51
Q
  1. Pathophysiology of post-exercise myopathy (myoglobinuria paralytica)/Horse?

a) Muscular-glycogen ↑ -> local lactic acid ↑ -> vasoconstriction due to hypoxaemia ->
Zenker type myopathy -> muscular-paralysis + myoglobinuria
b) Hypoxia -> anaerobe glycolysis ↑-> local lactic acid ↑ -> myonecrosis -> + myoglobinuria +
tubulonephrosis
c) Hypoxia -> anaerobe glycolysis ↑ -> local lactic acid ↑ -> Zenker type myopathy -> +
myoglobinuria + immune-mediated glomerulonephritis

A

a) Muscular-glycogen ↑ -> local lactic acid ↑ -> vasoconstriction due to hypoxaemia ->
Zenker type myopathy -> muscular-paralysis + myoglobinuria

52
Q
  1. Oesophageal obstruction/cattle/symptoms?

a) Dysphagia due to secondary pharyngeal paralysis, regurgitation, tympany
b) Oesophageal spasm, retching, regurgitation, secondary ruminal tympany
c) Inability to swallow, oesophageal paralysis, ruminal atony
d) True colic, kyphosis, dilation of the rumen

A

b) Oesophageal spasm, retching, regurgitation, secondary ruminal tympany

53
Q
  1. COPD(RAO)

a) Allergic disease
b) Chronic fungal infection
c) Chronic bacterial infection
d) Chronic viral infection

A

a) Allergic disease

54
Q
  1. Equine motor neuron disease/cause?

a) Selenium toxicity
b) Vitamin E deficiency
c) Vitamin B1 deficiency
d) Unidentified clostridium strain

A

b) Vitamin E deficiency

55
Q
  1. What can you see in this image?

a) Hyperaemia and hyperkeratosis
b) Small soliter or multifocal erosions, ulcers
c) Multifocal bleeding ulcers on the glandular portion
d) Multifocal bleeding ulcers on the non-glandular portion

A

c) Multifocal bleeding ulcers on the glandular portion

56
Q
  1. Which statement is NOT characteristic for the seconder Cu accumulation?

a) The liver damage is not proportional with the Cu level of the liver
b) Periportal
c) Dobermann, Labrador, and Dalmatian have seconder Cu accumulation
d) The Cu accumulation is caused by cholestasis

A

c) Dobermann, Labrador, and Dalmatian have seconder Cu accumulation

57
Q
  1. Tetanus/aetiology, pathogenesis/dog?

a) Clostridium tetani infection -> encephalitis -> spastic paralysis
b) Anaerobe wound + Clostridium tetani infection -> tetanospasmin-formation -> GABA and
glicin inhibition
c) Enteral absorption of tetanospasmin -> neuromuscular paralytic effect
d) Enteral absorption of tetanospasmin -> GABA and glicin activation

A

b) Anaerobe wound + Clostridium tetani infection -> tetanospasmin-formation -> GABA and
glicin inhibition

58
Q
  1. Dysphagia/causes/horse?

a) Disorders of the V, VII, IX, X, XII cranial nerves
b) Disorders of the V, VI, IX, X, XI cranial nerves
c) Disorders of the IV, IX, XII cranial nerves
d) Disorders of the III, VII, X, XI, XII cranial nerves

A

a) Disorders of the V, VII, IX, X, XII cranial nerves

59
Q
  1. What is the 2/3rd rule in connection with canine splenic disorders?

a) 2/3rd of the splenic disorders are inflammatory processes
b) 2/3rd of the splenic disorders are necrotic
c) 2/3rd of the splenic disorders are hematoma
d) 2/3rd of the splenic disorders are neoplastic processes

A

d) 2/3rd of the splenic disorders are neoplastic processes

60
Q
  1. Temporohyoid osteoarthropathy/diagnostics/which is NOT true?

a) X-ray
b) Ultrasound
c) Endoscopy
d) CT

A

b) Ultrasound

61
Q
  1. What would cause central distension of the jugular vein in the horse?

a) Thrombophlebitis
b) Pericardial effusion or tricuspid insufficiency
c) Cor pulmonale
d) AO insufficiency

A

a) Thrombophlebitis

62
Q
  1. In what kind of disease is this breed predisposed?

a) familiary, chronic hepatitis
b) epulis
c) congenital aortic stenosis
d) tracheal hypoplasia

A

a) familiary, chronic hepatitis

63
Q
  1. Treatment of laryngeal edema?

a) Prednisolone, laryngotomy, edrophonium bromide
b) Laryngotomy, prednisolone, bromhide injection
c) Prednisolone, tracheotomy, antihistamine
d) Clenbuterol, furosemide, lidocaine

A

d) Clenbuterol, furosemide, lidocaine

64
Q
  1. Left-sided abomasal displacement/auscultation with percussion above displaced abomasum:

a) Diagnostic accuracy of 100%
b) Diagnostic accuracy of 50-60%
c) Diagnostic accuracy of 30-40%
d) Diagnostic accuracy of 90-95%

A

d) Diagnostic accuracy of 90-95%

65
Q
  1. ACE-inhibitors

a) Ramipril, benazepril, amlodipine
b) Ramipril, enalapril, benazepril
c) Ramipril, kaptopril, hidralazin
d) Zofenopril, captopril, diovan

A

b) Ramipril, enalapril, benazepril

66
Q
  1. Which treatment is not affecting the severity of proteinuria?

a) Renal diet
b) Antihypertensive drugs
c) Omega-3 fatty acids
d) ACE-inhibitors
e) All of them above decrease proteinuria

A

e) All of them above decrease proteinuria

67
Q
  1. Causes of water belly?
    a) Urinary calculi
    b) Encephalomalacia
    c) Allergy
    d) UTI
A

a) Urinary calculi

68
Q
  1. Portosystemic shunt. Diagnosis?

a) Icterus, ascites, anorexia, vomiting, hepatomegaly
b) Intermittent clinical symptoms, neural/digestive/urinary symptoms, plasma azotaemia,
increase bile acids (PPBA), doppler ultrasonography
c) Ultrasonography, hepatomegaly, AST, ALT increased, biopsy
d) Ascites, hypoproteinaemia, haematuria, ALT increased

A

b) Intermittent clinical symptoms, neural/digestive/urinary symptoms, plasma azotaemia,
increase bile acids (PPBA), doppler ultrasonography

69
Q
  1. Ethmoid hematoma surgery, which is not true?

a) Dimethyl-sulfoxide injection
b) Formalin injection
c) Laser surgery
d) Surgical removal

A

a) Dimethyl-sulfoxide injection

70
Q
  1. Pulmonic oedema/swine/aetiology?

a) Fumonisin B1 toxin
b) Haemophilus parasuis
c) Aflatoxicosis
d) Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
e) Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae

A

a) Fumonisin B1 toxin

71
Q
  1. What is in the image? Rectal examination (picture of colon on right side of abdomen).

a) Caecal meteorism
b) Right dorsal displacement of the large colon
c) Pelvic flexure impaction
d) Small intestinal torsion

A

b) Right dorsal displacement of the large colon

72
Q
  1. This picture is characteristic for? (picture of pomeranian with fur only on head and extremeties, skin is normal)

a) Demodicosis
b) Hyperthyroidism
c) Alopecia-X
d) Cushing’s disease

A

c) Alopecia-X

73
Q
  1. What is shown in this picture? (picture of bone in the skull)

a) Fracture of the os basispenoidale
b) Guttural pouch emphysema
c) Cerebral neoplasia
d) Cholesteatoma

A

a) Fracture of the os basispenoidale

74
Q
  1. Diabetes insipidus, which is correct:

a) Clinical manifestation PD/PU, hypersthenuria
b) The most effective drug in the central form is desmopressin
c) The ADH production of the kidney is insufficient in the nephrogenic form
d) Diagnosis; modified water deprivation test, ADH- stimulation test

A

b) The most effective drug in the central form is desmopressin

75
Q
  1. Bovine ringworm/occurence, etiology?

a) Mainly in adult cattle, microsporum canis + predisposing factors
b) Mainly in calves, Trichophyton verrucosum infection + predisposing factors
c) Mainly in calves, Cryptococcus neoformans infection + predisposing factors
d) Both in adult cattle and calves, Wolbachia pipietis + predisposing factors

A

b) Mainly in calves, Trichophyton verrucosum infection + predisposing factors

76
Q
  1. Aujeszky-disease (pseudorabies)/swine/which statement is true?

a) Adults: neuro deficits are common (tic,ataxia,convulsion), resp. signs are rare and mild
b) Piglets: only respiratory symptoms but often fatal haemorrhagic pneumonia
c) Adults: neurological deficits are rare (tic, ataxia), mainly respiratory symptoms
d) Adults: neurological deficits are common (tic,ataxia,convulsions), severe resp. symptoms

A

c) Adults: neurological deficits are rare (tic, ataxia), mainly respiratory symptoms

77
Q
  1. Congestive heart failure/3rd stage, NYHA-grading?

a) Fatigue, recumbency during most of the time, cyanosis, bronchitis, limb oedema
b) Fatigue, collapse caused by exercise, abdominal oedema, ascites
c) Fatigue, dyspnoea also at rest, cough, oedema
d) Left atrial and ventricular dilation with echocardiography

A

b) Fatigue, collapse caused by exercise, abdominal oedema, ascites

78
Q
  1. The approx. upper limit of inorganic phosphate in the plasma of the dog and cat is?

a) 1.2 mmol/l
b) 3.5 mmol/l
c) 2.0 mmol/l
d) 0.8 mmol/l

A

c) 2.0 mmol/l

79
Q
  1. IBD (inflammatory bowel disease)/diagnosis/dog, cat?
    a) After exclusion of diseases with similar symptoms, because it is an idiopathic disorder

b) With abdominal ultrasonography
c) With routine laboratory blood tests
d) With histopathologic examination of stomach/intestines

A

d) With histopathologic examination of stomach/intestines

80
Q
  1. Pathomechanism of colic. What is not typical?

a) Hypovolaemia
b) Hyperthermia
c) Endotoxaemia
d) Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy

A

b) Hyperthermia

81
Q
  1. Temporohyoid osteoarthropathy/clinical signs?

a) Cough, nasal discharge
b) Extended neck
c) Loss of appetite, salivation, reflux
d) Neurological, e.g. head tilt, nystagmus

A

d) Neurological, e.g. head tilt, nystagmus

82
Q
  1. Dermatomycosis of sheep/etiology:

a) Trichophyton verrucosum + dermatophilus congolensis
b) Trichophyton verrucosum + candida albicans
c) Trichophyton verrucosum + microsporum canis
d) Cryptococcus neoformans, aspergillus fumigatus

A

c) Trichophyton verrucosum + microsporum canis

83
Q
  1. Which statement is NOT true for chronic hepatitis in dog?

a) Periportal mononuclear cell infiltration, inflammation, periportal necrosis, fibrosis
b) Centrolobular mononuclear cell infiltration, inflammation, centrolobular necrosis, fibrosis
c) Chronic procedure, no improvement for 4-6 weeks
d) The histopathology is independent from the cause

A

b) Centrolobular mononuclear cell infiltration, inflammation, centrolobular necrosis, fibrosis

84
Q
  1. Equine laryngeal hemiplegia/diagnosis?

a) Grade 1: obvious asymmetry at test, no movements
b) Grade 3: asynchronous movement, no complete opening
c) Grade 1: asyncrhonicity, tremor, weak movements, complete open with nasal occlusion
d) Grade 3: synchronicity, complete closure and opening

A

b) Grade 3: asynchronous movement, no complete opening

85
Q
  1. This radiographic image is characteristic for the following respiratory disorder? (picture of radioopaque area in ventro-medial area of thorax)

a) Lung lobe torsion
b) Lung neoplasm
c) Hernia diaphragmatica
d) Aspiration pneumonia

A

d) Aspiration pneumonia

(Typical in cranial and medial lung lobes -> airways leading to these are the most ventral in a standing dog, so gravity causes fluid/feed to go here)

86
Q
  1. Pleuropneumonia/horse/predisposing factors?

a) Weaning
b) Long distance transport
c) Vaccination
d) Overcrowding

A

b) Long distance transport

87
Q
  1. Rubber jaw/Underlying disorders/dog

a) Chronic thyroid disease, secondary hypothyroidism
b) Chronic thyroid disease, secondary hyperthyroidism
c) Chronic renal disease, secondary hypoparathyroidsm
d) Chronic renal disease, secondary hyperparathyroidism

A

d) Chronic renal disease, secondary hyperparathyroidism

88
Q
  1. Characteristics of hydrocephalus in calves?

a) Hereditary or intrauterine BVD-virus; distorted skull. Opisthotonus, spastic legs
b) Intrauterine herpesvirus infection, high forehead, limb paralysis
c) Intrauterine blue-tongue-virus infection, depression, ataxia, tetraparalysis

A

a) Hereditary or intrauterine BVD-virus; distorted skull. Opisthotonus, spastic legs

89
Q
  1. Causative agent of equine proliferative enteropathy?

a) E. coli
b) Lawsonia intracellularis
c) Clostridium difficile
d) Clostridium perfringens D

A

a) E. coli

b) Lawsonia intracellularis

90
Q

91.Hoflund syndrome (vagus indigestion) which statement is NOT TRUE?

a) The posterior functional stenosis is characterized by a papple-shaped abdomen
b) The posterior functional stenosis occurs at the omaso-abomasal orifice, resulting in
obturation of the omasum with rough fodder
c) The posterior functional stenosis occurs at the pylorus, resulting in elevation of the Clconcentration in the rumen
d) The posterior functional stenosis can occur during left-sided abomasal displacement. In this case,
fluid electrolyte replacement is necessary

A

b) The posterior functional stenosis occurs at the omaso-abomasal orifice, resulting in
obturation of the omasum with rough fodder

91
Q
  1. What may cause hypoglycaemia in the diabetic patient treated with insulin?

a) Progestogen treatment
b) Concurrent diabetes insipidus
c) Castration of male dog/cat
d) Anorexia, vomiting

A

d) Anorexia, vomiting

92
Q
  1. Normal values of blood serum potassium in cattle?

a) 2-3 mmol/liter
b) 3-5 mmol/liter
c) 5-7 mmol/liter
d) 8-10 mmol/liter

A

b) 3-5 mmol/liter

93
Q
  1. Addison’s disease in dogs/diagnosis?

a) Na+/K+ >27, Cl-↓, ACTH-stimulation test +
b) Na+/K+ <27, Cl-↓, ACTH-stimulation test +
c) Na+/K+ <27, Cl-↓, LDDST +
d) Na+/K+ <27, Cl-↑, LDDST +

A

b) Na+/K+ <27, Cl-↓, ACTH-stimulation test +

94
Q
  1. Which statement is wrong? In acute kidney failure mannitol infusion…

a) Should only be given to a previously rehydrated patient
b) Can be repeated up to 5 times in case of anuria
c) Can be repeated may times if diuresis is present
d) Is recommended in oliguria

A

b) Can be repeated up to 5 times in case of anuria

95
Q
  1. What is flea bite dermatitis?

a) Allergic dermatitis in dogs becoming allergic to the flea saliva protein after repeated fleebite challange; localization: lumbo-sacral region
b) A meachanical dermatitis in poorly groomed dogs caused by fleas: it heals after improvement of
hygiene of the dog-shelter or kennel
c) Allergic dermatitis in dogs becoming allergic to the flea saliva protein after repeated flee-bite
challange; localization: axillary and inguinal regio
d) A mechanical dermatitis in poorly groomed dogs caused by fleas; localization; foots

A

b) A meachanical dermatitis in poorly groomed dogs caused by fleas: it heals after improvement of
hygiene of the dog-shelter or kennel

96
Q
  1. Tongue paralysis of horses/causes?

a) Paralysis of the n. vagus, strangles
b) Rabies, botulism, equine leukoencephalomalacia (ELE)
c) Rabies, narcolepsy, rhinopneumonitis
d) Polyneuritis equi, equine dyautonemia (grass sickness), n. accessories paralysis

A

b) Rabies, botulism, equine leukoencephalomalacia (ELE)

97
Q
  1. Characteristics of urticaria in horses?

a) Can be caused by inhaled allergens (fungi), rounded wheals on the skin within minutes or
hours. Usually fast healing, but it might reoccur
b) Can be caused by inhaled allergens (dust), rounded wheals on the skin within days. Always fast
healing
c) Can be caused by fodder (e.g. oat), rounded wheals on the skin always together with small
bleedings of mucosa membranes (nose, mouth)
d) Caused by nettle plant, allergic reaction with pruritus and alopecia, rapid regeneration

A

a) Can be caused by inhaled allergens (fungi), rounded wheals on the skin within minutes or
hours. Usually fast healing, but it might reoccur

98
Q
  1. Secondary, chronic-recurrent ruminal bloat/aetiology?

a) Hoflund-disease, stricture of the oesophagus, chronic rumen acidosis
b) Rumen putrefaction, obstruction of the oesophagus, paratuberculosis
c) Reticuloperitonotitis, compression of oesophagus, partial obstruction of cardia
d) Tetanus, frothy bloat, reflux syndrome

A

c) Reticuloperitonotitis, compression of oesophagus, partial obstruction of cardia

99
Q
  1. What do you see in the image (right 10th intercostal space)? (US picture)

a) Pleural effusion
b) Full stomach
c) Normal lung tissue
d) Defect of the US machine

A

c) Normal lung tissue

100
Q
  1. The suspicion of antifreeze poisoning is supported by? Which answer is wrong ?

a) The demonstration of calcium-dihydrate crystals in urine sediment
b) The detection of ethylene-glycol in blood
c) Detection of ethylene-glycol in urine
d) The observation of marked halo-signs in the kidneys during ultrasonography

A

d) The observation of marked halo-signs in the kidneys during ultrasonography

101
Q
  1. Small strongyles may cause?

a) Intussusception
b) Severe diarrhoea
c) Diarrhoea, small intestinal obturation
d) Gastric ulceration

A

a) Intussusception

102
Q
  1. Which viruses can elicit polyfactorial calf diarrhoea?

a) VD, rota-coronavirus
b) Adeno-, aphto-, rotavirus
c) Entero-, adeno-, coronavirus
d) Lentivirus, oncovirus, morbillivirus

A

a) VD, rota-coronavirus

103
Q
  1. What do you see on the endoscopy image? (pictures are in the doc INTERNAL MED PQs)

a) Pulmonary neoplasia
b) Guttural pouch emphysema
c) Bronchospasm
d) Pharyngeal paralysis

A

c) Bronchospasm

104
Q
  1. Acute pancreatitis/pathogenesis/dog?

a) Premature activation of pancreas enzymes occurs in small intestines
b) Enzyme production of pancreas is insufficient due to severe pancreas atrophy
c) Premature, cascade-like activation of pancreas enzymes = autodigestion of pancreas
d) Severe damages of defence mechanisms against autodigestion lead to EPI

A

c) Premature, cascade-like activation of pancreas enzymes = autodigestion of pancreas

105
Q
  1. Campylobacter spp./cat therapy?

a) Life threatening infection, always treat
b) Cats are asymptomatic carriers, never treat
c) Treat if relevant clinical signs appear (e.g. acute [bloody] diarrhoea, fever)
d) Although cats are asymptomatic carriers, treatment is obligatory because of zoonosis

A

c) Treat if relevant clinical signs appear (e.g. acute [bloody] diarrhoea, fever)

106
Q
  1. Displacement of the abomasum (DA)/ pathogenesis/cattle?

a) Feeding more grain and less fibre -> ++ VFA -> abomasal atony -> increased abdominal pressure
during calving -> DA
b) Lack of fibre -> rumen acidosis -> abomasal atony -> abomasal dilation -> DA
c) Feeding more grain and less fibre -> + + VFA -> abomasal atony -> abomasal dilation ->
postpartum period, small rumen -> DA

A

c) Feeding more grain and less fibre -> + + VFA -> abomasal atony -> abomasal dilation ->
postpartum period, small rumen -> DA

107
Q
  1. Atropine toxicosis/horse/treatment?

a) Pilocarpine
b) Physostigmine
c) Metoclopramide
d) Lidocaine

A

b) Pilocarpine

108
Q
  1. Treating congestive heart disease, emergency situation/dog, cat?

a) Oxygen, furosemide iv, or im, dobutamine infusion
b) Oxygen, furosemide iv, pimobendane infusion
c) Furosemide iv, enalapril, spironolactone
d) Spironolactone, carnitine, digoxin

A

b) Oxygen, furosemide iv, pimobendane infusion

109
Q
  1. Severe acute gastroenteritis/nutrition/dog, cat?

a) Fasting for 3-5 days
b) Enteral feeding is not possible because of diarrhoea
c) Fasting is not suggested at all, due to severe malnutrition may develop even in few hours
d) Enteral feeding is suggested despite diarrhoea

A

d) Enteral feeding is suggested despite diarrhoea

110
Q
  1. Which is the first-choice drug in the treatment of primary Copper storage disease?

a) D-penicillamine
b) Glucocorticoid
c) Omeprazole
d) Zn and cholagogue drugs

A

a) D-penicillamine

111
Q
  1. Neonatal pharyngeal weakness/foal?

a) Clinical signs: milky nasal discharge, bruxism, fever
b) Physiologic up to 2-4 weeks of age
c) Treatment with calcium
d) Treatment with antibiotics and NSAIDs

A

b) Physiologic up to 2-4 weeks of age

112
Q
  1. Which is NOT associated with nephrosis syndrome?

a) Subcutaneous oedema
b) Glomerulonephropathies
c) Hypotension
d) Higher thrombosis risk

A

c) Hypotension

113
Q
  1. Which therapeutic measures decrease blood potassium level during the treatment of hyperkalaemia?
    Choose the wrong answer!

a) Intravenous calcium
b) Potassium free infusion and furosemide
c) Glucose containing infusions
d) Rapid acting insulin applications

A

a) Intravenous calcium

114
Q
  1. What kind of disease would cause this symptom? (picture of cow with a lot of hairless skintags on neck)

a) Parakeratosis due to Zn deficiency
b) Squamous cell carcinoma
c) Papillomatosis
d) Skin keratosis

A

c) Papillomatosis

115
Q
  1. Severe acute nephrosis/combined aetiology/horse?

a) Endotoxaemia + repeated flunixin meglumine + dehydration
b) Endotoxinaemia + repeated flunixin meglumine + overdosed HAES-infusion
c) Repeated flunixin meglumine + NSAID + cephalosporins
d) Clostridium botulinum toxin + repeated furosemide infections

A

a) Endotoxaemia + repeated flunixin meglumine + dehydration

116
Q
  1. Clinical features of congenital hyposomatotropism?

a) Yorkshire terrier, pituitary tumour, liver failure, alopecia
b) German shepherd, pituitary cysts, proportionate dwarfism, alopecia
c) Great Dane, enzyme deficiency, kidney failure
d) Beagle, IGF-1 decreases, disproportionate dwarfism

A

b) German shepherd, pituitary cysts, proportionate dwarfism, alopecia

117
Q
  1. IRIS stage-I chronic renal failure is associated with?

a) Azotaemia
b) Anaemia, metabolic acidosis
c) Uraemia
d) Decreased specific gravity of urine

A

d) Decreased specific gravity of urine

118
Q
  1. Fanconi syndrome symptoms in dogs: which answer is wrong?

a) Glucosuria
b) Metabolic acidosis
c) Aminoaciduria
d) Ketonuria

A

d) Ketonuria

119
Q
  1. Which is associated with ?

a) Hepatic microvascular hypoplasia
b) Arterioportal/arterio-venous fistula
c) Congenital portosystemic shunt
d) Hepatic lipidosis

A

b) Arterioportal/arterio-venous fistula

120
Q
  1. There dermatological lesions are typical for?
    (picture of crusty irreglar lesion on skin)

a) Papillomatosis
b) Sarcoid
c) Skin carcinoma
d) Frostbite

A

b) Sarcoid

121
Q
  1. Heterotop impulse formation disorders/ventricular?

a) Paroxysmal ventricular tachycardia, ventricular fibrillation, ventricular flutter
b) Ventricular extrasystole, atrio-ventricular block, ventricular tachycardia
c) Ventricular tachycardia, fascicular block, ventricular flutter
d) Vandering pacemaker, AV block, ventricular fibrillation

A

a) Paroxysmal ventricular tachycardia, ventricular fibrillation, ventricular flutter

122
Q
  1. Chronic endocardiosis in dogs/characteristics?

a) Occurs mainly in medium-aged females of small breeds
b) Typically results in mitral valve, sometimes tricuspid valve insufficiency
c) Digoxin and pimobendane are always contraindicated
d) Occurs mainly in medium-aged males of large breeds

A

b) Typically results in mitral valve, sometimes tricuspid valve insufficiency

123
Q
  1. Grass sickness/horse/characteristics?

a) Draft horses on pasture, myopathy
b) Young horses on pasture, myopathy
c) Older horses on pasture, dermatologic disease
d) Young horses on pasture, neurologic disease

A

d) Young horses on pasture, neurologic disease

124
Q
  1. What may cause hyper-glycemia in the diabetic patient treated with insulin?

a) Liver failure
b) Concurrent addison’s disease
c) The somogyi effect
d) Xylitol-toxicosis
e) Neutering the bitch after 2-5 days

A

c) The somogyi effect

125
Q
  1. Prostatic tumors in dogs, which is not true?

a) Can be removed by surgery
b) May occur in castrated males
c) Mostly adenocarcinoma
d) Can be diagnosed from a biopsy specimen

A

a) Can be removed by surgery

Interanal Medicine 3 (7 decks)

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