Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pharm > Test 1 > Flashcards

Test 1 Flashcards

1
Q

How can you reduce medication errors?

A

Write legibly

Provide complete information

Use Zeros before decimals

Only use approved abbreviations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

B1 selective adrenergic antagonists are? (-olol)

A
  • Atenolol
  • Betaxolol
  • Esmolol (approved for thyroid storms)
  • Metoprolol
  • Nebivolol (may have nitric oxide vasodilating effect)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

At what dose does dopamine stimulate A1 receptors?

A

High dose >10mcg/kg/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Mixed A1 and non-specific B blockers are? (vowel-lol)

A
  • Carvedilol (HTN and CHF)
  • Labetalol - PO/IV (severe HTN, PO preferred for Pregnancy) (useful for elderly and black HTN Pts that cannot tolerate increases in PVR)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Anyphylactic shock, Bronchospasms, Cardiac arrest, and anesthetic adjunct are the clinical uses of what?

A

Epinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  • Drug that may or may not compete with agonist.
  • Permanently antagonizes agonist and reduces the efficacy of the agonist.
A

Irreversible antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Drugs that reduce or prevent the effects of normal physiologic cell regulators or agonists.

A

Antagonists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Immunologic hypersensitivity occuring as the result of unusual sensitivity to a medicine.

A

Allergic reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Neuromuscular Blocking agents are clinically useful for what specifically? (3)

A
  • Intubation
  • Paralyze Vent Pts
  • Relax muscles during surgery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The study of substances that interact with living systems through chemical processes, especially by binding to regulatory molecules and activating or inhibiting normal body processes.

A

pharmacology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

gtt or gtts means?

A

drop or drops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When a drug favors one receptor. The higher this is, the fewer adverse reactions it will cause.

A

Selectivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What receptor is not well understood, but thought to play a role in fat breakdown?

A

B3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Receptor that is involved in stimulation of the bladder, exocrine glands and smooth muscle is?

A

M3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Alpha specific Direct acting Adrenergics that Increase BP are?

A

Phenylephrine (Sudafed PE, Neosynephrine)

Midodrine (prodrug)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What direct acting catecholamine is a prodrug used to decrease Intraocular pressure (gloucoma)?

A

Dipivefrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

qs means?

A

add quantity sufficient to make

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What anticholinergics are used for their action in the CNS in an attempt to restore the balance of ACh and dopamine?

A
  • Benztropine (helps control extrapyramidal disorders)
  • Trihexyphenidyl
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The conversion of Tyrosine to Epinephrine involves three other molecules. What are they in order?

A

Tyrosine >> DOPA >> Dopamine >> Norepinephrine >> Epinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What direct acting non-catecholamine is used for overactive bladder?

A

Mirabegron (Only B3 drug covered)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Direct acting non-catecholamine used for severe hypertension that is 6x more potent than dopamine for producing renal vasodilation is?

A

Fenoldopam (D1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Exocrine glands secrete their products (e.g., digestive enzymes) where?

A

into a duct that leads to the environment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

This type of drug will block acetylcholine’s interaction with either a muscarinic or nicotinic receptor.

A

Anticholinergic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Epinephrine is commonly associated with treatment of arrythmias, however there is no mortality difference between Epinephrine and what?

A

Norepinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

au means?

A

both ears

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What direct acting catecholamine is used in Critical Care for cardiac and septic shock?

A

Dopamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Nicotine in low doses can depolarize autonomic ganglia and cause euphoria, but in large doses it can decrease BP and cause respiratory paralysis. Nicotine is a?

A

Ganglionic stimulant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Drugs that compete by interacting witih opposing regulatory pathways.

A

Physiologic antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Non-specific Alpha and Beta receptor Adrenergic antagonists are?

A
  • Phenoxybenzamine (NonCompetitive blocker for pheochromocytoma management)
  • Phentolamine (Competitive blocker for diagnosis of pheochromocytoma)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What direct acting A1 and A2 agonist used for ocular and nasal vasoconstriction is also associated with rebound congestion.

A

Oxymetazoline (eye drops/ nasal spray)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The amount of drug necessary to elicit a response is called?

A

Potency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Drugs that may act as either agonist or antagonist.

A

Partial agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

IVPB means

A

intravenous piggyback

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The competitive indirect cholinergics are?

A
  • Edrophonium (M.G. and Nerve agents)
  • Neostigmine (M.G. and Nerve agents)
  • Physostigmine (M.G. and Nerve agents)
  • Pyridostigmine (M.G./ Nerve agents/ N.A. prophylaxis)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Drugs that inhibit the release of acetylcholine from nerve fibers at neuromuscular junctions are?

A
  • Onabotulinumtoxin A (horse botulism antitoxin used as antidote)
  • Incobotulinum toxin A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Drugs that bind to the same receptor site as the agonists, and prevent binding that leads to reduction of agonist potency.

A

Competitive Antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Neuromuscular blocking agent that you should never give as a continuous infusion is?

A

Succinylcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Short acting beta 2 agonists are?

A
  • Albuterol (Drug of choice for respiratory relief)
  • Levalbuterol (isomer of albuterol)
  • Metaproterenol
  • Terbutaline (rarely bronchodilator. Primarily premie preventor)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

A drugs ability to produce a desired or intended result is called?

A

Efficacy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Drugs that bind to a different site on the receptor, and indirectly block the agonist. Cannot be overcome by increasing dose.

A

Non-competitive antagonists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What factors effect a drugs effect on its target site?

A
  • Route of administration
  • Extent and rate of absorption
  • Distribution of drugs in body compartments
  • Effects of protein binding and tissue binding
  • Rate of metabolism
  • Rate of elimination (clearence) from the system
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Malignant hyperthermia is a genetic disorder that accelerates the metabolism of skeletal muscle. What is the antidote?

A

Dantrolene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

1 tsp = ?mls

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

The parasympathetic and sympathetic systems are both parts of what?

A

Autonomic nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

The use of a drug for an indication that has not been approved by the FDA is called?

A

unlabeled use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Direct acting synthetic catecholamines are?

A

Dobutamine (selective B1)

Isoproterenol (non-selective B1 = B2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Receptor that is responsible for increasing BP as a result of vasoconstriction is?

A

A1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the rationale for writing prescriptions?

A
  1. Make specific diagnosis
  2. Consider the pathophysiology of the diagnosis
  3. Select the therapeutic objectives
  4. Select a drug of choice
  5. Determine the appropriate dosing regimen
  6. Devise a plan for monitoring the drugs action and determine an endpoint
  7. Plan a program of patient education
49
Q

When writing a prescription what information goes in the prescription body?

A

Superscription (Rx)

Inscription (Name and strength)

Subscription (quantity prescribed)

Signature/Sig/Directions

Refill information

50
Q

Who determines if a drug will be Legend or OTC?

A

Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

51
Q

What anticholinergics are used in the eye?

A
  • Atropine (14 day recovery)
  • Cyclopentolate
  • Tropicamide (preferred- shorter recovery time)
52
Q

Drugs that produce a response by activating a receptor.

A

Agonists

53
Q

1 tbsp = ?mls

A

15mls

54
Q

This drug dilates the eyes, increases HR, decreases GI spasms, and is sometimes paired with an indirect acting cholinergic to treat Nerve agent exposure.

A

Atropine

55
Q

What drugs block ACh at parasympathetic sites in smooth muscle, secretory glands and the CNS, decreasing GI spasms?

A
  • Dicyclomine
  • Belladonna alkaloids (combo anticholinergic)
56
Q

Monoamine oxidase and Catechol-o-methyltransferase are involved in the termination of what?

A

Norepinephrine

57
Q

What the drug does to the body is?

A

Pharmacodynamics

58
Q

Non-specific beta adrenergic antagonists are?

A
  • Prepanolol (Crosses BBB, DOC for Thyroid storms)
  • Nadolol (Migrain prophylaxis)
  • Timolol (opthalmic/PO rarely used)
59
Q

A1a specific Adrenergic antagonists are?

A

Tamsulosin (only BPH) Priapism/IFIS

Silodosin (only BPH) Not for Renal Pts

60
Q

OU means?

A

both eyes

61
Q

The direct acting Cholinergics are?

A
  • Acetylcholine (eye procedures)
  • Pilocarpine (gloucoma and xerostomia)
  • Bethanecol (Urinary retention)
62
Q

Long acting B2 agonists are?

A

Arformoterol (COPD only)

Formoterol

Salmeterol

Indacterol (COPD only)

63
Q

How is a graded response measured?

A

by continuous variables like BP, enzyme activity and change in muscle tension.

64
Q

What patient information is included on a prescription?

A

Name

Address

Phone number

Social Security Number

65
Q

Endocrine glands secrete hormones where?

A

directly into the bloodstream

66
Q

“Reversible” pertains to which type of cholinergics?

A

Competitive indirect acting

67
Q

Anti-Muscarinics can be used for what?

(PMSDOCBRB)

A
  • Parkinson’s
  • Motion Sickness
  • Sedation
  • Diarrhea
  • Overactive bladder (OAB)
  • Cholinergic Intoxication
  • Bronchospasm (COPD)
  • Reduce Secretions
  • Bradycardia
68
Q

The degree to which something is successful in producing a desired result is?

A

Effectiveness

69
Q

Receptor that is involved in secretions from salivary glands and stomach is?

A

M1

70
Q

Alkalizing urine will have what effect on the elimination of an acidic drug?

A

Increase elimination

71
Q

Pharmacotherapeutic class and Target physiologic system are used for what?

A

Systems for Classifying Drugs

72
Q

How is a quantal response measured?

A

The number of subjects showing an “all or nothing” response. Such as pain relief, death, and number anesthetized.

73
Q

Mixed direct acting Adrenergic agonists displace Norepinephrine. List them.

A
  • Ephedra (Workout stimulant banned Apr2004)
  • Ephedrine (Use: bronchospasms, nasal congestion, hypotension)
  • Pseudophedrine (Direct acting A/B agonist)
74
Q

Pharmacokinetic parameters are measurements that help determine the dosage regimen. What are they?

A
  • Bioavailability
  • Volume of Distribution
  • Drug Accumulation
  • Clearance
  • Elimination
75
Q

Synthesis of Norepinephrine involves Tyrosine being converted to what?

A

L-DOPA

76
Q

Direct acting endogenous catecholamines are?

A
  • Epinephrine
  • Norepinephrine
  • Dopamine
77
Q

Alpha 2 specific Direct acting adrenergics are?

A
  • Clonidine (decreases BP) (DC slowly to prevent HTN crisis)
  • Brimonidine (eye drops/ gloucoma)
78
Q

Cholinergics can be used to treat what?

(AMGUACXC)

A
  • Alzheimers
  • Myasthenia Gravis
  • Gloucoma
  • Urinary Retention
  • Anti-Cholinergic OD
  • Curare Poisoning
  • Xerostomia (dry mouth)
  • Constipation
79
Q

Non-specific Nicotinic neural receptor blockers that are no longer used therepeutically are?

A

Ganglionic Blockers

80
Q

What information is included in the prescribers signature area of a prescription?

A

Name printed and signed

Branch of service

DEA number or social

81
Q

What things should be considered when writing a prescription?

A
  • Type of medication (Legend Rx or OTC)
  • Use (labeled or unlabeled)
  • Chance for abuse
  • Brand or Generic
  • Quantity of medication
  • Directions for use
  • Refills
  • Reducing medication errors
82
Q

Neuromuscular blocking agents that work in sync with acetylcholine esterase to prevent depolarization are?

A

Atracurium (seizure risk) (intermediate)

Cisatracurium (intermediate)

Rocuronium (intermediate)

Vercuronium (intermediate)

Pancuronium (Long acting)

83
Q

Receptor that is responsible for presynaptic negative feedback of multiple neurotransmitter outflow is?

A

A2

84
Q

Any unexpected, unintended, undesired, or excessive response to medicine.

A

Adverse drug reaction

85
Q

Indirect-acting adrenergic agonists are?

A
  • Dextroamphetamine (schedule II)
  • Methamphetamine (schedule II)
  • Cocaine (topical anesthesia) (schedule II)
  • Tyramine (not a drug, Found in fermented foods) (Can interact with MAOI and cause HTN crisis)
86
Q

as, ad mean?

A

left ear, right ear

87
Q

At what dose does dopamine favor B1?

A

Medium dose 5-10mcg/kg/min

88
Q

What drugs are used for bronchodilation and respiratory secretion decrease in the treatment of COPD?

A

Ipratropium (short acting)

Tiotropium (long acting)

89
Q

Synthesis of Norepinephrine involves the conversion of L-DOPA to what?

A

Dopamine

90
Q

Inactivates the agonist of interest by modifying or sequestering it.

A

Chemical antagonist (Neutralizing Antagonist)

91
Q

What statement is included in prescriptions for controlled substances written by non-physicians?

A

May be filled at any MHS pharmacy where this provider is privileged

92
Q

A1 specific Adrenergic antagonists are? (-zosin) (4)

A

Prazosin (PTSD) (Not for BPH)

Doxazosin (HTN, XL dose only for BPH)

Terazosin (BPH and HTN)

Alfuzosin (Only for BPH, but not A1a specific)

93
Q

This class within cholinergic drugs is effective because of its similarity to Acetylcholine.

A

Direct acting cholinergics

94
Q

Abnormal susceptibility to a medication that is peculiar to the individual.

A

Idiosyncratic reaction

95
Q

Beta blockers with intrinsic sympathomimetic activity (ISA) aka partial agonists were designed to weakly stimulate B1 and B2 receptors. They are? (-olol)

A
  • Acebutolol (B1 specific blocker)
  • Pindolol (non-specific B blocker)
  • Penbutolol (non-specific B blocker, not as much ISA prop.)
96
Q

Prescriptions for children under 12 includes what?

A

age and weight

97
Q

Drugs that are considered to have abuse potential are monitored by who?

A

The Drug Enforcement Agency (DEA)

98
Q

What the body does to the drug is called?

A

Pharmacokinetics

99
Q

The primary catecholamine is what?

A

Norepinephrine

100
Q

When a drug has one effect and only one effect on all biological systems.

A

Specificity

101
Q

PV means?

A

Vaginally

102
Q

Any preventable event that may cause or lead to inappropriate med use, or patient harm while the medication is in the control of the provider, patient, or consumer.

A

Medication error

103
Q

od, os mean

A

od- right eye, os- left eye

104
Q

Name the drugs that decrease bladder constriction, and constrict the sphincter.

A
  • Oxybutynin (patch)
  • Darifenacin (M3)
  • Solifenacin (M2)
  • Tolterodine
  • Fesoterodine
  • Trospium (Less CNS S.E.)
105
Q

Receptor that is involved in bladder stimulation, smooth muscles, and Cardiac cells is?

A

M2

106
Q

Anticholinergic used for motion sickness, and a prophylactic for nausea post op.

A

Scopolamine (patch)

107
Q

Receptor involved in stimulating the lungs, skeletal muscle blood vessels, glucose production, and accomodation of the eye is?

A

B2

108
Q

The Somatic and Autonomic systems are both divisions of what?

A

Peripheral nervous system

109
Q

When writing the amount to be dispensed, why would you spell and number the quantity?

A

For Controlled substances

110
Q

Increase in the number of receptors on target cells.

A

Up-regulation

111
Q

What receptor plays a role in renin release, but is primarily Cardiac?

A

B1

112
Q

Acidification of the urine will have what effect on the elimination of a basic drug?

A

Increase elimination

113
Q

A patient that presents with Hypotension and low HR can be effectively treated without risk of reflex tachycardia by what direct acting catecholamine?

A

High dose Dopamine (>10mcg/kg/min)

Stimulates A1 and B1

114
Q

Noncompetitive indirect acting cholinergics aren’t used regularly anymore, but because ISIS and Kim Jong Un are real, name them.

A
  • Serin (warfare nerve agent)
  • Parathion (insecticide)
  • Ecothiopate (gloucoma eye drops)
115
Q

What Cholinergic type acts by inhibiting Acetylcholinesterase in the PNS?

A

Indirect acting

116
Q

What drug is only effective if given in enough time?

Nerve agent antidote

A

Pralidoxime

117
Q

Cholinergics that are preferential to the CNS are?

A
  • Tacrine (alzheimer’s - QID)
  • Donepezil (alzheimer’s)
  • Galantamine (alzheimer’s - BID/QD)
  • Rivastigmine (alzheimer’s - patch)
118
Q

Any substance that brings about a change in biologic function through its chemical action.

A

Drug

119
Q

What are the types of adverse drug events?

A

Medication Error

Allergic Reaction

Idiosyncratic Reaction

Pharm (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions