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247 > TEST 1 > Flashcards

TEST 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Fertilization

A

Fusing of ovum and sperm

*Starting point of pregnancy //typically occurs around 2 weeks after last normal menstrual period in 28-day cycle

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2
Q

How many sperm are contained in ejaculated semen?

A

200 mil/ML

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3
Q

Zona Pellucida

A

Clear protein layer blocks sperm

Disappears in about 5 days

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4
Q

Sex determination is determined when and how

A

at fertilization and on whether the ovum is fertilized by Y bearing sperm or X bearing sperm.

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5
Q

XX zygote becomes?
XY zygote becomes?

A

XX - Female
XY - Male

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6
Q

Ectoderm forms?

A

Central nervous system, special senses, skin and glands

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7
Q

Mesoderm forms

A

Skeletal, urinary, circulatory, and reproductive organs

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8
Q

The endoderm forms?

A

Respiratory system, liver, pancreas and digestive system

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9
Q

Where does fertilization take place?

A

In ampulla of fallopian tube

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10
Q

Union of sperm and ovum forms?

A

zygote (46 chromosomes)

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11
Q

Cleavage cell division continues to form a

A

Morula (mass of 16 cells)

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12
Q

The inner cell mass is called?
Which forms?

A

Blastocyst
Forms embryo and amnion

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13
Q

The outer cell mass is called?
which forms?

A

Trophoblast
Placenta and chorion

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14
Q

Implantation occurs –how many days>? and where

A

7-10 days after conception in endometrium

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15
Q

When do the embryonic membranes begin to form?

A

around time of implantation

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16
Q

What does the chorion consist of?

A

Trophoblast cells and mesodermal lining

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17
Q

Chorionic villi?

A

Finger like projections from chorion

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18
Q

What does the amnion originate from?
What is amnion?
Expands until?

A

-Ectoderm germ layer
-It is a thin protective membrane that contains amniotic fluid.
-It expands until it touches the chorion (outer layer)
*These two layers form fluid filled amniotic sac

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19
Q

How much amniotic fluid is there at term?

A

approx 1 L

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20
Q

Where is amniotic fluid derived from?

A

Fluid transported from maternal blood across the amnion and fetal urine

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21
Q

What does amniotic fluid do?

A

-Help maintain consistent body temp
-Permit symmetric growth and development, -Cushion the fetus from trauma
-Allow umbilical cord to be free from compression
-Promote fetal movement to enhance musculoskeletal development.

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22
Q

Amniotic fluid is composed of ?
Alkaline or acidic?
Contains?

A

98% water, 2% organic matter
-Slightly alkaline
-Contains albumin, urea, bile, renin, glucose, hormones, uric acid, creatinine, bilirubin, lecithin, sphingomyelin, epithelial cells, vernix and fine hair.

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23
Q

Oligohydramnios

A

Too little amniotic fluid <500 mL at term

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24
Q

What is oligohydramnios associated with

A

uteroplacental insufficiency, fetal renal abnormalities, and higher risk of surgical births and low birth weight

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25
Q

Hydramnios

A

too much amniotic fluid
(>2000mL at term)

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26
Q

What is hydramnios associated with

A

maternal diabetes, neural tube defects, chromosomal deviations and malformations of CNS and/or GI tract that prevent normal swallowing of amniotic fluid by fetus
**threaten premature rupture of membranes due to uterine over distention

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27
Q

Umbilical cord is formed from

A

amnion

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28
Q

Umbilical cord contains how many veins and arteries?

A

1 large vein
2 small arteries

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29
Q

Wharton jelly?

A

Specialized connective tissue
SUrrounds 3 blood vessels in umbilical cord to prevent compression

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30
Q

Umbilical cord reaches max length at?
Avg cord is how long

A

30 weeks
22 inches long, 1 inch wide

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31
Q

What are the precurser cells of placenta?

A

Trophoblasts

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32
Q

What makes hCG and what does it do?

A

as early as 3 days after conception, the trophoblasts make hCG

hCG hormone ensures the endometrium will be receptive to implanting the embryo.

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33
Q

What does the placenta do?

A

Makes hormones to control basic physiology of the mother so fetus is supplied with nutrients and oxygen

Protects fetus from immune attack

Removes waste products

Induces mother to bring more food

HOrmones to ready fetal organs for life

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34
Q

Placenta function depends on

A

Maternal blood pressure supplying circulation

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35
Q

Placental barrier

A

Fetal tissues that separate maternal blood and fetal blood

Materials are only interchanged through diffusion

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36
Q

What delivers nutrients to the placenta?

What carries fetal waste away?

A

Maternal uterine arteries

Mothers uterine veins carry fetal waste away

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37
Q

What week is the structure of the placenta completed?

A

usually week 12

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38
Q

Chorionic gonadotropin (CG)

A

Preserves the corpus luteum and its progesterone production so that the endometrial lining is maintained.

*The basis for pregnancy test

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39
Q

Prolactin

A

Mediates maternal metabolic adaptations to pregnancy by regulating insulin production and sensitivity; plays an important role in lactation

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40
Q

Human placental lactogen (hPL)

A

modulates fetal and maternal metabolism, participates in the development of maternal breasts for lactation, and decreases maternal insulin sensitivity to increase its availability for fetal nutrition

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41
Q

Estrogen (Estriol)

A

Causes enlargement of a womans breasts, uterus, and external genitalia, stimulates myometrial contractility

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42
Q

Progesterone (progestin)

A

Maintains the endometrium, decreases the contractility of the uterus, stimulates maternal metabolism and breast development, provides nourishment for early conceptus

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43
Q

Relaxin

A

Potent vasodilator and regulates maternal hemodynamics. Acts synergistically with progesterone of the pelvic ligaments, soften cervix in prep for birth

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44
Q

Teratogens

A

Substances that cause birth defects

(alcohol, drugs, infections, radiation, nutritional deficiencies

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45
Q

Fetal stage

A

from 8th week until birth

Longest period of prenatal development

Conceptus is mature enough to be called fetus

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46
Q

The lung function is taken over by what during fetal life? and where does fetal circulation oxygenation occur?

A

Placenta & placenta

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47
Q

What 3 shunts are present during fetal life?

A

Ductus venosus
Ductus arteriosus
Foramen ovale

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48
Q

Ductus venosus

A

Bypasses liver and connects the umbilical vein to inferior vena cava

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49
Q

Ductus arteriosus

A

bypasses the lungs and connects the main pulmonary artery to descending aorta

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50
Q

Foramen ovale

A

bypasses the right ventricle and lungs via an anatomic opening between the right and left atrium

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51
Q

What carries oxygenated blood from placenta to fetus?

What carries unoxygenated blood from?

A

umbilical vein

2 umbilical arteries

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52
Q

Genetics
Genomics

A

Genetics - study of heredity and its variation

Genomics - study of all genes and includes interactions among genes and its environment

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53
Q

Amniocentesis and chorionic villus sampling test what

A

confirm genetic anomaly

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54
Q

a fetal nuchal translucency test can suggest

A

presence of trisomy 21 or down syndrome if nuchal thickness is found

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55
Q

Genome

A

entire hereditary information encoded on DNA

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56
Q

Each chromosome is made up of_____
and define

A

Genes - individual units of heredity of all traits and are organized into long segments of DNA that occupy a specific location on a chromosome to determine a particular characteristic in an organism

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57
Q

Genotype

A

Genotype - specific genetic makeup of an individual, usually in form of DNA

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58
Q

Allele

A

1 of 2 or more alternative versions of a gene at a given position or locus on chromosome

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59
Q

Phenotype

A

the observed or outward characteristics of an individual

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60
Q

Homozygous
Heterozygous

A

Homozygous - same for charaterisitc
Heterozygous - different

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61
Q

Humans have how many chromosomes?
How many nonsex or autosomes and how many sex?

A

46
22 pairs of non sex
1 pair of sex

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62
Q

Karyotype

A

pictorial analysis of the number, form and size of an individuals chromosomes

Ex 46, XX for a female
46 XY for a male

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63
Q

Mendelian laws of inheritance

A

Patterns occur because a single gene is defective and disorders that result are referred to as monogenic or mendelian

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64
Q

Monogenic disorders include:

A

Autosomal dominant
Autosomal recessive
X-linked dominant
X-linked recessive

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65
Q

Autosomal dominant inheritance disorder

A

occur when a single gene in the heterozygous state is capable of producing the phenotype

**mutant gene overshadows normal gene and person will show signs

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66
Q

Common types of genetic disorders that follow autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance include

A

neurofibromatosis, marfan syndrome, hungtington disease, achondroplasis, polycystic kidney disease

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67
Q

Autosomal recessive inheritance disorders

A

occur when 2 copies of the mutant gene in homozygous state are necessary to produce the phenotype

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68
Q

Common types of genetic disorders that follow autosomal recessive inheritance include

A

Cystic fibrosis
phenylketonuria
Tay-sachs disease
Sickle cell disease

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69
Q

X-linked inheritance disorders

A

associated with altered genes present on X chromosome

Male - will express conditon bc they have only one X

Females - have 2 X so either heterozygous or homo

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70
Q

X linked recessive inheritance

A

demonstrated recessive pattern of inheritance

More affected males than females bc all genes on male are X so it will be expressed

Females will need 2 abnormal X to exhibit otherwise are carriers

No male to male transmission // male will have carrier daughters

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71
Q

Common types of genetic disorders that follow X linked recessive include

A

Hemophilia
Color blindness
Duchenne muscular dystrophy

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72
Q

X-linked dominant inheritance

Conditions

A

When a male has abnormal X chromosome or female has 1 abnormal X

**have lethal results in males

Rare

Hypophophatemic rickets and fragile X syndrome

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73
Q

Multifactorial inheritance disorders

A

thought to be caused by multiple gene and environment factors

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74
Q

Nontraditional inheritance patterns and examples

A

Do not follow typical patterns

Mitochondrial inheritance and genomic imprinting

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75
Q

Mitochondrial inheritance

Examples

A

Usually passed from mother to offspring

Often seen in one or more organs - brain, eye and skeletal muscle

Often assoc with energy deficits in cells with high energy requirements such as nerve and muscle cells

Ex. Kearns-Sayre syndrome and lebers hereditary optic neuropathy

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76
Q

Genomic imprinting

A

Phenomenon by which the expression of a gene is determined by its parental origin //both maternal and paternal alleles are present but only 1 is expressed

Ex Prader-willi syndrome, angelman syndrome, beckwith-wiedemann syndrome

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77
Q

Chromosomal abnormalities

A

Do not follow striaghtforward pattern of inheritance
Occur due to random events during formation of reproductive cells
-most occur due to error in egg or sperm

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78
Q

Mosaicism

A

when chromosomal abnormalities do not show up in every cell

Symptoms are usually less severe

79
Q

Abnormalities of chromosome number

A

due to nondisjunction (failure of separation of chromosome pair during cell division, meiosis or mitosis)

Most result in spontaneous abortion

80
Q

Two common abnormalities of chromosome number are

Monosomies
Trisomies

A

Monosomies - only 1 copy of a particular chromosome instead of a pair
*surivial only seen in mosaic forms
Trisomies - 3 of a chromosome (down syndrome, trisomy 18 and 13)

81
Q

Abnormalities of Chromosome structure

A

Occur when there is a breakage and loss of portion of one or more chromosomes and during repair the broken ends are rejoined incorrectly

82
Q

Examples of structural rearrangements that can be balanced

A

Inversions - turned upside down
Translocation - portion transferred to another chromosome
Ring - form a ring

83
Q

Sex chromosome abnormalities

A

Affect sexual development, may cause infertility, growth abnormalities, possibily behavioral and learning problems

Tuner syndrome in females
Klinefelter syndrome in males

84
Q

One spermatogonium gives rise to how many spermatozoa?

A

4

85
Q

Morula
“little mulberry”

A

solid ball of cells after 4 cleavages of a zygote

Fluid enters morula and a blastocyst is formed

86
Q

Meiosis

A

reduces the number of chromosomes in the parent cell by half and produces four gamete cells

87
Q

Mitosis

A

a type of cell division that results in two daughter cells each having the same number and kind of chromosomes as the parent nucleus, typical of ordinary tissue growth.

88
Q

What categories of signs and symptoms have pregnancy been grouped into

A

Presumptive
Probable
Positive

89
Q

What are presumptive signs of preg?

A

Signs that the mother can perceive

Ex. absent of menstruation, nausea, fatique, breast tenderness, urinary freq,

*least reliable indicators bc they can be caused by other conditions

90
Q

What are probable signs of pregnancy

A
  • Those that can be detected on physical examination by health care provider
  • Softening of lower uterine segment or isthmus, softening of cervix, bluish purple coloration of vaginal mucosa and cervix, changes in shape of uterus, abdominal enlargement, braxton hicks, ballottement

**pregnancy test considered a probable sign

91
Q

What is the hormone detected in pregnancy tests?
Levels considered negative and positive?

A

Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) - bioprotien and earliest marker

lower than 5mIU/ML = negative
higher than 25 mIU/ML = positive

92
Q

What are low levels of hCG associated with?
Higher levels?

A

Lower - ectopic pregnancy
Higher - molar preg & multiple gestational pregnancies

93
Q

What are striae gravidarum?

A
  • Stretch marks
  • Irregular reddish streak that appear on abdomen, breast and butt
  • Estrogen, relaxin and adrenocorticoid contribute to these changes
94
Q

Why are Iron and Folic acid needed to be supplemented in pregnancy?

Recommended amount?

A
  • Increased requirements too great for food alone
  • Needed to form new blood cells for expanded maternal blood volume and to prevent anemia. Iron is essential for fetal growth and brain development. Prevent neural tube defects
  • 27mg of ferrous iron and 400-800mcg of folic acid per day
95
Q

The current DRI suggest to increase a pregnant womans intake of
Protein
Iron
Folic acid
calories

A

Protein - from 60-80g/day
Iron - from 18-27g/day
Folic acid - 400 to 800 mcg/day
calories - increase by 300 for a 1800-2200 cal amount

96
Q

FDA and EPA suggest pregnant woman and nursing mothers to avoid?

A
  • -FIsh with moderate to high mercury
  • SHark, swordfish, king mackerel, orange roughy, ahi tuna, and tilefish
  • Eat up to 12oz of weekly fish with low mercury (shrimp, canned tuna, salmon, lobster, sole, tilapia, cod, haddock, pollock and catfish)
  • Check local advisory about safety of fish caught by family and friends
97
Q

Where is listeria commonly found? what foods

A

Processed and prepared foods, raw or unpasteurized milk

98
Q

What are the pregnancy weight recommendations based on BMI?

A

Underweight (BMI less than 18.5) = 28-40lb
**Normal weight (BMI 18.5-24.9) **25-35lbs
**Overweight (BMI 25-29.9) **15-25lbs
Obese (BMI 30 or higher) 11-20lbs

99
Q

For women who are in the normal weight limits how much should they gain each trimester?

A

1st - 3.5-5
2&3 - 1lb per week

100
Q

For women who are under or overweight how much weight should they gain each trimesters

A

1st - underweight =5lb. overweight 2lb
2&3 - underweight = slightly more than 1lb/wk
overweight - 2/3lb/week

101
Q

If a woman is lactose intolerant how can she get additional sources of calcium?

A

peanuts, almonds, sunflower, broccoli, salmon, kale and molasses

102
Q

If a woman is vegetarian how can she increase her
Protein
Iron
Calcium
Vit B12

A

Protein - Soy foods, beans, lentils, nuts, grains and seeds
Iron - variety of meat alternatives along with vit c rich foods
Calcium - soy, calcium fortified orange juice, soy
Vit B12 - soy and b12 supplement

103
Q

Pica

A

Describe intense craving for and eating nonfood items over a period of time of atleast 1 month

More common un US and afraican america

Ex. dirt, clay, laundry starch, burnt matches, stones, charcoal, ice

104
Q

What does consuming the following do to nutritional
Soil
Clay
Ice
Laundry starch

A

Soil - causes iron deficiency anemia
Clay- constipation, can contain toxic substance and cause parasitic infection
Ice - cause iron deficiency anemia, tooth fractures, freezer burn
Laundry starch- leads to iron deficiency, replaces protein metabolism = depriving fetus of amino acids needed for proper development

105
Q

The success of pregnancy depends on what 5 things

A
  1. fertilization and implantation
  2. development and function of placenta
  3. Adaptation of maternal physiology to accept fetus and supply its nutritional, metabolic and physical demands
  4. Approp growth and development of organs and homeostatic systems in fetus
  5. Proper timing of birth so fetus can survive outside
106
Q

Hegar sign

A

demonstrated as a softening in the consistency of the uterus, in the lower segment or isthmus

107
Q

Goodell sign

A

Softening of cervix
6-8 weeks
due to vasocongestion and estrogen

108
Q

Chadwick sign

A

bluish-violet discolouration of the mucous membranes of the vulva, vagina (particularly on the anterior vaginal wall), and the cervix

due to vascularization

109
Q

Ballottement

A

med a technique of feeling for a movable object in the body, esp confirmation of pregnancy by feeling the rebound of the fetus following a quick digital tap on the wall of the uterus

110
Q

What other conditions can change uterine shape?

A

Tumors, polyps, infection, pelvic congestion

111
Q

WHat is cervical ripening and when does it happen

A

softening, effacement and increased distensibility
4 weeks before birth

112
Q

Leukorrhea

A

increased vag discharge that is acidic, white, thick

*normal excpt w/ itching & irritation = candida albicans & can be transmitted to neonates who then develop thrush

113
Q

Why does ovulation cease during pregnancy

A

bc of elevated estrogen and progesterone which block FSH and LH

114
Q

What hormones affect breasts in pregnancy
What is purpose of sebaceous glands in breasts

A

Estrogen & progesterone
To keep nipples lubricated

115
Q

Ptyalism

A

excessive salivation
Caused by decrease in unconscious swallowing

116
Q

why is the risk of gallstone formation increased in preg

A

emptying of gallbladder is prolonged due to smooth muscle relaxation from progesterone. Hypercholesterolemia can follow increasing gallstone formation

Laproscopic cholecystectomy is safe in all trimesters

117
Q

What is the med used to treat morning sickness

A

Doxylamine succinate 10mg/pyridoxine hydrochloride 10mg (Diclegis)
2tab at bedtime

118
Q

Physiologic anemia of pregnancy

A

dilution of RBCs
Reflected in lower hematocrit and hemoglobin

119
Q

What can increase slow venous return, pooling and dependent edema?
as well as venous thrombosis

A

Increased fibrin and plasma fibrinogen along with various clotting factors coupled with venous statis secondary to venous pooling
Occurs in late pregnany after long periods of standing

120
Q

What can cause congestion, nosebleed, rhinitis in pregnancy

A

Increased vascularity of respiratory tract, rising levels of sex hormone, heightened levels of sensitivity to allergens

121
Q

Dilation of kidneys and ureters can increase potential for

A

urinary stasis and infection

122
Q

Will pregnant women need higher or lower doses of drugs?

A

drugs excreted thorugh kidneys might require higher doses and more freq doese to maintain therapeutic levels

123
Q

Why is maternal thyroid hormone important to fetus

A

critical for fetal brain development, neurogensis and organizational processes prior to 20 weeks when fetal thyroid production is low

124
Q

What inhibits direct influence of prolactin on breasts?

A

Progesterone

125
Q

What is one of the key changes in adrenal glands during pregnancy and what does it do

A

increase in cortisol
regulates carb and protein metabolism & helpful in times of stress
*cortisol increases in response to increased estrogen

126
Q

What are 4 things cortisol does in pregnancy

A
  1. helps keep up level of glucose in plasma by breaking down noncarb sources
  2. breaks down proteins to repair tissues and make enzymes
  3. antiinsulin, antiinflam, antiallergic actions
  4. Needed to make precursor of adrenaline
127
Q

Growth hormone does what

A

Promote protein synthesis

128
Q

What is the purpose of prolactin

A

promote breast develop and lactation
*secreted in pulses and increases 10 fold

129
Q

Melanocyte stimulating hormone (MSH)

A

Creates skin changes along with estrogen

130
Q

What is oxytocin responsible for

A

uterine contractions
bringing about delivery
Milk ejection
Contraction of myoepitheilia cells in mammary gland

131
Q

Role of vasopressin AKA ADH in pregnancy

A

inhibit formation of urine via vasoconstriction to increase BP to regulate water balance

132
Q

What is the period of greatest environmental sensitivity and consequent risk for the developing embryo

A

17 - 56 days after conception

133
Q

What is a reproductive life plan

A

individualized life plan of reproduction with goals based on personal beliefs and values

134
Q

What is the focus of the prenatal care

A

to reduce the risk of adverse health effects for woman, fetus and newborn by addressing modifiable risk factors and providing education about a healthy pregnancy

135
Q

What are the 2 methods prenatal care can be delivered

A

individually
in a group called “centering”

136
Q

Uncontrolled diabetes in pregnancy increases the risk of

A

Spontaneous abortion
Fetal anomalies
pre-eclampsia
fetal demise
Macrosomia
Neonatal hypoglycemia
hyperbilirubinemia

137
Q

What are the target blood sugar levels for woman with diabetes

A

Fasting: Lower than 95
1hour postprandial: lower than 140
2 hour postprandial: lower than 120

138
Q

What is Nageles rule

A
  1. use first day of last normal menstrual period
  2. Subtract 3 from the number of months
  3. Add 7 to the number of days
  4. Adjust the year by adding 1
  5. Estimated due date =
139
Q

Gravid

A

The state of being pregnant

140
Q

Gravida/Gravidity

A

The total number of times a woman has been pregnant, regardless of birth or multiples

141
Q

Nullgravida

A

A woman who has never expierenced pregnancy

142
Q
A
143
Q

Primigravida

A

A woman pregnant for the first time

144
Q
A
144
Q

Secundigravida

A

A woman pregnant for the 2nd time

145
Q

Multigravida

A

a woman pregnant for at least the 3rd time

146
Q

Para

A

The number of times the woman has given birth to a fetus of at least 20 wks (viable or not) counting multiples as 1

147
Q

Parity

A

of pregnancies carried to the point of viability (not number of fetuses)

148
Q

Nullipara (Para 0)

A

A woman who has not produced a viable offspring

149
Q

Primipara

A

a woman who has given birth once after a pregnancy of at least 20 wks
aka “Primp”

150
Q

Multipara

A

A woman who has had 2 or more pregnancies of at least 20 wks resulting in viable offspring
“Miltip”

151
Q

GTPAL or TPAL?

A

G - Gravida (current preg to be included in count)
T - Term births (Delivered between 38-42wks)
P - Preterm birth (ending before 20wks or viability but before 37wks)
**A - abortions **(before 20wks)
L - Living children

151
Q
A
152
Q

High levels of estrogen during preg place women at a higher risk of

A

DVT

153
Q

What 3 measurements are assessed for pelvis

A
  1. Diagonal conjugate
  2. True conjugate
  3. ischial tuberosity
154
Q

What is the diagonal conjugate?
What do measurements represent?

A

Distance between anterior surface of sacral prominence and anterior surface of inferior margin of symphysis pubis

12.5cm or greater represented the anteroposterior diameter of the pelvic inlet through which the fetal head passes through

most useful measurement for esta pelvic size because a misfit with the f

155
Q

What is the Ischial tuberosity diameter

A

transverse diameter of pelvic outlet
Measurement is made outside the pelvis at lowest aspect of ischial tuberosities
*diameter of 10.5 or more is considered adequate for passage of fetal head

156
Q

What is true conjugate aka obstetric conjugate

A

Measurement from anteriror surface of sacral prominence to posterior surface of inferior margin of symphysis pubis

*estamated by subtracting 1-2cm from diagonal conjugate measurement
**Avg is at least 11.5cm

Smallest front to back diameter through which the fetal head must pass

157
Q

What is the recommended follow up visit schedule for a healthy pregnant woman?

A

Every 4 weeks up to 28 weeks
Every 2 weeks from 28-36 weeks
Every week from 37 to birth

158
Q

After the first prenatal visit what is assessed at each subsequent visit?

A

-Weight and bp compared with baseline
-Urine testing for protien, glucose, ketones and nitrites
-Fundal height measurements
-Assess for quickening
-Assess fetal heart rate (110-160bpm)

159
Q

When is screening for gestational diabetes best done?

A

Between weeks 24-28

160
Q

What is the process of gestational diabetes testing?

A

A blood glucose level is obtained using an oral 50g glucose load followed by 1 hour plasma glucose determination.

  • if result is more than 140mg/dl further testing such as a 3 hour 100g glucose test is warranted
161
Q

If mother is Rh-negative and her antibody titer is evaluated, what is given if indicated?
and what does the med do?

A

RhoGAM
PRevent development of antibodies to Rh-positive red cells whenever fetal cells are known to enter maternal circulation

*Also recommended of a prophylaxis at 28 wks and following birth of a Rh-positive baby

162
Q

How do you measure fundal height

A

Distance in CM with a tape measure from top of pubic bone to top of uterus with client lying on back with knees slightly flexed

*Reflects fetal growth and provides a gross estimate of duration of pregnancy / Should measure approx equal the number of weeks gestation until 36

Termed McDonald method

163
Q

Between 12-14 weeks where can fundus be palpated?

A

Above symphysis pubis

164
Q

When does fundus reach level of umbilicus and what does it measure

A

20wks
20cm

165
Q

What is a normal fetal heart rate?

A

110-160bpm

166
Q

What are signs of preterm labor?

A

Contractions every 10 mins and more freq
Change in vag discharge
Pelvic pressure
low dull backache
pelvic cramps
diarrhea

167
Q

Preterm infants can suffer what problems?

A

intellectual disability
Chronic lung disease
Cerebal palsy
Seizure disorder
Blindness

168
Q

If a woman expierences cramps occuring every 10 mins with a backache what should she do?

A

Lie down on left side for 1 hour and drink 2-3 glasses of water
if symptoms get worse or do not subside after 1 hour call HCP

169
Q

When can a transvaginal ultrasound not be performed in 1st trimester

A

ectopic preg
Molar preg

170
Q

A second ultrasound is usually done when?
and looks for?

A

18-20wks
Looks for congenital malformations, verifies dates and growth

171
Q

A 3rd ultrasound is usually done when and looks for what?

A

around 34 wks
Eval fetal size, growth and verify placental position

172
Q

What is doppler ultrasonography used for

A

Uses sound waves to examine flow of blood in vessels

173
Q

What is alpha fetoprotein

A

Glycoprotein produced initially by yolk sac and fetal gut and alter in fetal liver

*Elevated levels were first linked to fetal neural tube defects

**optimal time for screening is 16-18wks

174
Q

What are some situations that can cause elevated materal serum AFP

A

Open neural tube defects
underestamation of gestational age
multiple fetuses
Gi defects
low birth weight
oligohydramnios
maternal age
diabetes and decreased maternal weight

175
Q

What are some situations that can cause decreased materal serum AFP

A

fetal gestational age is overestimated
fetal death
hydatidiform mole
increased maternal weight
Maternal type 1 diabetes
fetal trisomy 21 or 18

176
Q

When are most marked screening tests performed?
Except for free cell fetal DNA which is performed?

A

15-22wks
9-10wks

177
Q

WHat is the advantage of the cell free fetal DNA test?

A

detecting trisomy 21 with high sensitivity (99%) and specificity (98%) at an earlier time frame

178
Q

What can alter the levels of MSAFP

A

A variation of 2 weeks of gestational age
Maternal overweight over 250lb
ethnicity
smoking
fetal gender
gravidity
para status
insulin dependant diabetes

179
Q

What are the risks of amnioentesis

A

lower abdominal discomfort and cramping, spontaneous abortion, maternal or fetal infection, postamniocentesis chorioamniontsis, fetal-maternal hemorrhage and leakage of amniotic fluid

180
Q

What parameters in the BPP test are controlled by what part of brain?
FEtal tone
FEtal movement
Fetal breathing
Amniotic fluid

A

Fetal tone - cortex
FEtal movement- cortex and motor nuceli
Fetal breathing - centers close to 4th ventricle, posterior hypothalamus and medulla
Amniotic fluid-fetal urine volume

181
Q

What are some personal hygeine recommendations for pregnant woman

A

-Avoid hottub, sauna, whirlpool, tanning beds = fetal tachycardia
-Use cotton underwear, no douch, panty liners. Avoid perfumed soaps, lotions,etc
-Good dental hygeine. Avoid XRAYs
-150 mins of moderate excerise per week

182
Q

What vaccines are considered during preg
What vaccines are contrindicated

A

Considered - Hep B, flu, Tdap, rabies
Contraindicated - live flu nasal spray, MMR, Varicella, tuberculosis, thypoid

183
Q

Lamaze Method

A

Psychopophylacic method of preparing for labor and birth that promotes the use of specific breathing and relaxation techniques

*belived to conqur fear through knowledge and support

Included info on toning excercises, relaxation, breathing methods for labor

184
Q

Lamaze
Paced breathing -
Slow paced breathing -

A

**Paced breathing **- breathing used to decrease stress response and decrease pain. Start by taking a cleansing breath at onset and end of each contraction

**Slow paced breathing **- Assoc with relaxation. 1/2 normal breathing rate (6-9 breaths per min). REcommended thorugh out labor

185
Q

Lamaze
Modified paced breathing
Patterned paced breathing

A

**Modified paced breathing **- to increase altertness. Quite upper chest breath. Inhalation and exhalation are equal
Patterned paced breathing- Rhythmic pattern, 4 upper chest breathes followed by exhalation

186
Q

Bradley (partner-coached) method

A

Uses various exercises and slow controlled abdominal breathing to achieve relaxation
*concentrate on sensations while tuning in to their own bodies.
Coach is trained in massage and comfort techniques

187
Q

Dick-Read method

A

Believed that the attitude of the woman had toward her birthing process had considerable influence
*fear is primary pain producer
Woman arms herself with knowledge and relaxation

188
Q

AAP recommends breast feeding for how long?

A

Exclusively for 6 months and continue for a year or as long as desired

189
Q

Infants who are fed formula have an increased risk for what

A

otitis media
Diabetes
Asthma
Atopic dermatitis
Reflux
Diarrhea
Colic
Constipation
lower respiratory infections

190
Q

what level laceration can a midwife treat?

A

1st and 2nd

191
Q

How much weight should a person gain in pregnancy
Underweight
Normal
Overweight

A

Under - 30lbs
Normal - 20
Over - 15lbs

247 (11 decks)

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