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Rucker Test 1 > Test 1 > Flashcards

Test 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the definition of a Casualty Collection Point (CCP)?

A

Predesignated points along the axis of advance or evacuation routes planned at the Role 1 level.

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2
Q

What are the planning factors to consider in determining the need for an AXP?

A

Casualty estimates, availability of evacuation assets, security, and communications.

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3
Q

How many platoons are in the MEDEVAC company? How are the platoons broken down?

A

5 Platoons: 1 ASMP and 4 FSMP

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4
Q

Golden Hour Summary

A

+15 min: MEDEVAC Launch +20 min Enroute Flight +5 min Ground Time +20 min Enroute Flight =60 min

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5
Q

Who determines mission feasibility? Approves at specific risk level?

A

Mission Launch Approval

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6
Q

Name the four members of the MEDEVAC crew?

A

PC (Pilot-in-command) PI (Pilot) CE (Crew Chief) MO (Flight Medic)

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7
Q

Flight Surgeon is a nonrated crewmember (NRCM)? True/False?

A

FALSE

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8
Q

The ECCN Role when available is to supervise the MO during MEDEVAC missions? True/ False?

A

FALSE

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9
Q

Commander’s program for training combat-ready rated and nonrated aviation crew members?

A

Aircrew Training Program (ATP)

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10
Q

To be considered current in the aircraft, individuals must take part in flight every ____ days?

A

60 days

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11
Q

The ATP developed the APART requirements to test what?

A

Annual Proficiency

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12
Q

How many hours a month must you fly to maintain flight pay?

A

4 hours a month (RA) 2 hours a month in a calendar year

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13
Q

How many aircraft in a FSMP?

A

3 aircraft

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14
Q

After beginning progression, what RL level is fully mission capable?

A

RL 1 (Readiness Level 1)

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15
Q

When is APART conducted

A

Three month period ending in the last day of ACM’s birth month.

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16
Q

What are the safety features provided by the aircraft in the event of a crash?

A

1: The aircraft structural shell (Fuselage) 2: Landing Gear 3: Crashworthy Seats 4: Personnel Restrain System 5: Post-Crash Factors

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17
Q

How much energy can be absorbed by the dual stage strut in the UH-60 Blackhawk?

A

39 feet/second or ~11.25G’s of energy

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18
Q

Approved clothing and equipment authorized by AR 95-1?

A

1: Leather Boots 2: Flight Helmet 3: Flight Suit 4: Flight Gloves 5: Cotton, wool, or NOMEX underwear 6: ID Tags

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19
Q

Purpose of the HGU-56/P Chinstrap?

A

Assists in holding the helmet in place for the wearer.

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20
Q

What can you use to clean the outer shell of the HGU-56/P?

A

Mild soap and a soft non-abrasive cloth

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21
Q

Why is it important not to starch the Aircrew uniform?

A

Reduces flame resistant capabilities

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22
Q

What is the purpose of removing any pin on badges before entering the flight line?

A

Helps mitigate the potential for “Foreign objects debris” (FOD) associated with army accidents.

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23
Q

What are the uses a crewmember can use the safety restraint tether and extraction strap?

A

The Only authorized uses of these two straps are for emergency extraction purposes only.

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24
Q

On the GEN III, PSGC how many platforms does the air warrior vest have available for the ACM to use?

A

There are two platforms on the GEN III PSGC: First Aid and Signaling Platform

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25
Q

What can happen as a result of inappropriate procedures and unsafe acts around an aircraft?

A

Death or injury

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26
Q

What are the Danger Areas of the UH-60 and where are they located?

A

12 O’clock (nose), Exhaust, and Tail Rotor

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27
Q

Procedure for emergency engine shutdown?

A

Engine PCL off, Engine fuel system selector off, Fuel boost pump switches off

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28
Q

What is the rotor brake used for?

A

To stop or hold the rotor during start and shutdown. Rotor stop during and emergency.

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29
Q

The power control levers and fuel selectors are located on what console?

A

The upper console

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30
Q

Some required safety items on board a UH-60

A

Fire Extinguisher Crash Axe First Aid Kit

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31
Q

How are Emergency Exit Handles Labeled?

A

Black and Red or Black and Yellow

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32
Q

What is the definition of FOD?

A

Foreign Object and Debris

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33
Q

How often should a FOD check be completed?

A

Weekly PreFlight PostFlight

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34
Q

Name some hazardous noise?

A

1: You must raise your voice to be heard. 2: You can’t hear someone speaking from two feet away. 3:Ringing or Pain (tinnitus) after exposure to noise.

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35
Q

The surgeon general’s maximum level of continuous unprotected exposure to steady-state noise for 8 hours?

A

85 decibels

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36
Q

Sources of vibration?

A

Increased speed internal and external loading Environmental factors Transition from hover to cruise

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37
Q

Long term effects of vibration?

A

Backache bones organs

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38
Q

Examples of toxic substances in an Aviation environment?

A

Fuel solvents degreasers lubricants hydraulic fluids fire extinguishers composites and plastics

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39
Q

how to protect yourself from toxic substances

A

1: Wear of PPE 2: Prevent contamination of flight suit 3: Smoke/ eat only in authorized areas 4: hand washing decreases toxic ingestion

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40
Q

Significance of altitude with respect to atmospheric pressures exerted on the body?

A

Total atmospheric pressure exerted on the body and partial pressure of oxygen decrease as the altitude increase

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41
Q

what is the atmospheric pressure at sea level in mmHg?

A

760 mmHg

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42
Q

What are the physiologic zones of the atmosphere

A

Efficient: 0-10,000 Deficient: 10,000-50,000 Equivalent: >50,000

43
Q

Type of hypoxia caused by a reduction of PO2 in lungs?

A

Hypoxic Hypoxia

44
Q

Type of hypoxia caused by a decrease in oxygen carrying capacity of blood?

A

Hypemic Hypoxia

45
Q

True/ False: Wet gases expand more than dry gases?

A

True. Wet gases expand 3X as much as dry gases

46
Q

True/ False: Sinus bloc most often occurs on descent?

A

TRUE

47
Q

What type of DCS involves larger joints, such as knees and shoulders and a dull pain that progresses if ascent continues?

A

Type I Bends (Pain in joints: Bends0

48
Q

Type of hypoxia that results in the reduction in total cardiac output, pooling of blood. or restriction of blood flow?

A

stagnant hypoxia

49
Q

what type of hypoxia is caused by poisoning of the cytochrome oxidase enzyme system?

A

Histotoxic Hypoxia

50
Q

What type of DCS has symptoms occurring in the thorax, described as burning stabbing pain and inhalation becoming markedly deeper, dry cough with a sensation of suffocation, bluish skin, and very rare in aviation?

A

Type II

51
Q

Henry’s law is important to aviators why?

A

Decompression Sickness (DCS)

52
Q

What organization investigates human factors in aviation safety, aircraft design, and aviation mishaps?

A

The USACRC

53
Q

what organization conducts research on aviation life support equipment?

A

USAARL

54
Q

Who is the rated crewmember within the medical healthcare team?

A

Flight Surgeon

55
Q

Who is SME for human factors related to accident investigations?

A

Aeromedical Psychologist

56
Q

what is the aviation medicine program designed to do?

A

Promote and maintain the aviation fighting force through health promotion

57
Q

How often is a comprehensive FDME performed?

A

every 5 years between the ages if 20-50

58
Q

How many birth month extensions can be requested and granted?

A

A one time extension may be granted by the provider.

59
Q

What type of aeromedical provider can sign a DD 2992?

A

Flight Surgeon Aeromedical PA (APA) Aeromedical Nurse Practitioner (AMNP) Aviation medical examiner

60
Q

Who requires a Flight Surgeon counter-signature if the physical was complete by an Army Aeromedical provider?

A

All OTHER DOD components

61
Q

Can a permanent disqualifying condition change into a requalifying condition?

A

yes, all criteria for the condition must be met in the APL and a waiver is submitted for approval of the condition.

62
Q

Who approves a waiver for flight personnel in the USAR

A

Army HRC-Pay Incentive Branch

63
Q

Recreational diving risk with flying?

A

Potential to cause DCS

64
Q

Wait to fly timeframe after flu shot?

A

minimum 12 hours

65
Q

Organizations maintaining aviation medical standards?

A

AAMA, US Combat Readiness Center, USAARL, DAM

66
Q

Timeframe FDME or FDHS must be started and completed

A

during your three month birth month window

67
Q

Final approving authority of a DD Form 2992?

A

Unit Commander

68
Q

Difference between a temporary and permanent medical disqualification?

A

temporary: <365 days permanent: >365 days

69
Q

Definition of inertia?

A

Resistance to change the state of rest or motion.

70
Q

If the rate of onset of acceleration increases, the severity of the effect on the body will….?

A

increase

71
Q

if body area or size increases, the severity of acceleration on the body will….?

A

Decrease

72
Q

low-magnitude acceeration

A

1-10 G’s lasting for several seconds

73
Q

high-magnitude acceleration

A

> 10G for <1sec

74
Q

True/ False: a Positive G maneuver will cause a “Red Out” for the pilot?

A

False: Positive G: Black Out Negative G: Red Out

75
Q

True/ False: Decelerative forces can cause incapacitation of the ACM?

A

TRUE

76
Q

Aircraft Occupant Survivability Criteria?

A

The Amount of force transmitted to Occupiable living spaces and aircraft design features

77
Q

What acronym describes design features that enhance crash survivability?

A

CREEP

78
Q

what is spatial disorientation?

A

Erroneous perception of position, attitude, or motion in relation to the gravitational vertical and the earth surface.

79
Q

Major cause of spatial disorientation?

A

Orientation illusion

80
Q

Environmental factors part of DVE?

A

Fog smoke dust snow rain sea spray low illumination

81
Q

Corrective measure to be utilized if you recognize spatial disorientation?

A

announce SD and transfer controls and utilize instruments and reference points to gain bearings

82
Q

What self-imposed stressor can have effects on the vestibular system if residual effects are still present?

A

alcohol

83
Q

Central vision field of view

A

30-40 degrees

84
Q

Plane landing at a private grass airstrip touched down short of runway, what spatial disorientation have you experienced?

A

Size Distance Illusion

85
Q

Visual illusion caused by tall wavy grass that makes the pilot continuously put inputs into the flight controls

A

Induced Motion

86
Q

True/ False: A false horizon sensory illusion causing the pilot to use the sloping clod layer as the horizontal reference can cause SD?

A

TRUE

87
Q

Part of the vestibular system causes somatgyral illusions?

A

Semicircular Canals

88
Q

The corolis illusion would most likely cause what type of SD?

A

Type 3 SD: Incapacitating

89
Q

False perception of position or motion caused by the discordant or erroneous orientation information?

A

Orientation Illusion

90
Q

Most dangerous type of SD

A

Type I SD: Unrecognized

91
Q

Most dangerous of all Vestibular Illusions?

A

Coriolis Illusion

92
Q

Chemical that allows us to see black, white, and gray colors at night?

A

Rhodopsin

93
Q

Medical condition caused as a result of the eyes focal point is “behind” the retinal plane or wall, causing blurred vision?

A

Hyperopia (Farsightedness)

94
Q

Medical Condition caused by the stiffening and loss of elasticity of the cornea as we age?

A

Presbyopia

95
Q

Surgical procedure is less likely to cause permanent vision change due to the thinness of the flap?

A

LASEK

96
Q

Three corneal refractive surgeries

A

PRK, LASIK, LASEK

97
Q

Type of vision experienced on dimly it nights, causes loss of color perception, and requires peripheral vision and recognition of object silhouettes?

A

Scotopic

98
Q

Vision type “most Dangerous”?

A

Mesopic

99
Q

Most important cue to depth perception?

A

Motion Parallax

100
Q

What does GRAM stand for?

A

Geometric Perspective, Retinal Image Size, Aerial Perspective, Motion Parallax

101
Q

Average time required for dark adaptation?

A

30-45 minutes

102
Q

Four types of flight hazards?

A

Bird Strike Laser Nerve Agents Solar Glare

103
Q

Self-imposed stressor will make ACM’s likely to stare at objects and neglect proper scanning techniques?

A

Alcohol use

Rucker Test 1 (11 decks)

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