Test 1 Flashcards
What is the definition of a Casualty Collection Point (CCP)?
Predesignated points along the axis of advance or evacuation routes planned at the Role 1 level.
What are the planning factors to consider in determining the need for an AXP?
Casualty estimates, availability of evacuation assets, security, and communications.
How many platoons are in the MEDEVAC company? How are the platoons broken down?
5 Platoons: 1 ASMP and 4 FSMP
Golden Hour Summary
+15 min: MEDEVAC Launch +20 min Enroute Flight +5 min Ground Time +20 min Enroute Flight =60 min
Who determines mission feasibility? Approves at specific risk level?
Mission Launch Approval
Name the four members of the MEDEVAC crew?
PC (Pilot-in-command) PI (Pilot) CE (Crew Chief) MO (Flight Medic)
Flight Surgeon is a nonrated crewmember (NRCM)? True/False?
FALSE
The ECCN Role when available is to supervise the MO during MEDEVAC missions? True/ False?
FALSE
Commander’s program for training combat-ready rated and nonrated aviation crew members?
Aircrew Training Program (ATP)
To be considered current in the aircraft, individuals must take part in flight every ____ days?
60 days
The ATP developed the APART requirements to test what?
Annual Proficiency
How many hours a month must you fly to maintain flight pay?
4 hours a month (RA) 2 hours a month in a calendar year
How many aircraft in a FSMP?
3 aircraft
After beginning progression, what RL level is fully mission capable?
RL 1 (Readiness Level 1)
When is APART conducted
Three month period ending in the last day of ACM’s birth month.
What are the safety features provided by the aircraft in the event of a crash?
1: The aircraft structural shell (Fuselage) 2: Landing Gear 3: Crashworthy Seats 4: Personnel Restrain System 5: Post-Crash Factors
How much energy can be absorbed by the dual stage strut in the UH-60 Blackhawk?
39 feet/second or ~11.25G’s of energy
Approved clothing and equipment authorized by AR 95-1?
1: Leather Boots 2: Flight Helmet 3: Flight Suit 4: Flight Gloves 5: Cotton, wool, or NOMEX underwear 6: ID Tags
Purpose of the HGU-56/P Chinstrap?
Assists in holding the helmet in place for the wearer.
What can you use to clean the outer shell of the HGU-56/P?
Mild soap and a soft non-abrasive cloth
Why is it important not to starch the Aircrew uniform?
Reduces flame resistant capabilities
What is the purpose of removing any pin on badges before entering the flight line?
Helps mitigate the potential for “Foreign objects debris” (FOD) associated with army accidents.
What are the uses a crewmember can use the safety restraint tether and extraction strap?
The Only authorized uses of these two straps are for emergency extraction purposes only.
On the GEN III, PSGC how many platforms does the air warrior vest have available for the ACM to use?
There are two platforms on the GEN III PSGC: First Aid and Signaling Platform
What can happen as a result of inappropriate procedures and unsafe acts around an aircraft?
Death or injury
What are the Danger Areas of the UH-60 and where are they located?
12 O’clock (nose), Exhaust, and Tail Rotor
Procedure for emergency engine shutdown?
Engine PCL off, Engine fuel system selector off, Fuel boost pump switches off
What is the rotor brake used for?
To stop or hold the rotor during start and shutdown. Rotor stop during and emergency.
The power control levers and fuel selectors are located on what console?
The upper console
Some required safety items on board a UH-60
Fire Extinguisher Crash Axe First Aid Kit
How are Emergency Exit Handles Labeled?
Black and Red or Black and Yellow
What is the definition of FOD?
Foreign Object and Debris
How often should a FOD check be completed?
Weekly PreFlight PostFlight
Name some hazardous noise?
1: You must raise your voice to be heard. 2: You can’t hear someone speaking from two feet away. 3:Ringing or Pain (tinnitus) after exposure to noise.
The surgeon general’s maximum level of continuous unprotected exposure to steady-state noise for 8 hours?
85 decibels
Sources of vibration?
Increased speed internal and external loading Environmental factors Transition from hover to cruise
Long term effects of vibration?
Backache bones organs
Examples of toxic substances in an Aviation environment?
Fuel solvents degreasers lubricants hydraulic fluids fire extinguishers composites and plastics
how to protect yourself from toxic substances
1: Wear of PPE 2: Prevent contamination of flight suit 3: Smoke/ eat only in authorized areas 4: hand washing decreases toxic ingestion
Significance of altitude with respect to atmospheric pressures exerted on the body?
Total atmospheric pressure exerted on the body and partial pressure of oxygen decrease as the altitude increase
what is the atmospheric pressure at sea level in mmHg?
760 mmHg
What are the physiologic zones of the atmosphere
Efficient: 0-10,000 Deficient: 10,000-50,000 Equivalent: >50,000
Type of hypoxia caused by a reduction of PO2 in lungs?
Hypoxic Hypoxia
Type of hypoxia caused by a decrease in oxygen carrying capacity of blood?
Hypemic Hypoxia
True/ False: Wet gases expand more than dry gases?
True. Wet gases expand 3X as much as dry gases
True/ False: Sinus bloc most often occurs on descent?
TRUE
What type of DCS involves larger joints, such as knees and shoulders and a dull pain that progresses if ascent continues?
Type I Bends (Pain in joints: Bends0
Type of hypoxia that results in the reduction in total cardiac output, pooling of blood. or restriction of blood flow?
stagnant hypoxia
what type of hypoxia is caused by poisoning of the cytochrome oxidase enzyme system?
Histotoxic Hypoxia
What type of DCS has symptoms occurring in the thorax, described as burning stabbing pain and inhalation becoming markedly deeper, dry cough with a sensation of suffocation, bluish skin, and very rare in aviation?
Type II
Henry’s law is important to aviators why?
Decompression Sickness (DCS)
What organization investigates human factors in aviation safety, aircraft design, and aviation mishaps?
The USACRC
what organization conducts research on aviation life support equipment?
USAARL
Who is the rated crewmember within the medical healthcare team?
Flight Surgeon
Who is SME for human factors related to accident investigations?
Aeromedical Psychologist
what is the aviation medicine program designed to do?
Promote and maintain the aviation fighting force through health promotion
How often is a comprehensive FDME performed?
every 5 years between the ages if 20-50
How many birth month extensions can be requested and granted?
A one time extension may be granted by the provider.
What type of aeromedical provider can sign a DD 2992?
Flight Surgeon Aeromedical PA (APA) Aeromedical Nurse Practitioner (AMNP) Aviation medical examiner
Who requires a Flight Surgeon counter-signature if the physical was complete by an Army Aeromedical provider?
All OTHER DOD components
Can a permanent disqualifying condition change into a requalifying condition?
yes, all criteria for the condition must be met in the APL and a waiver is submitted for approval of the condition.
Who approves a waiver for flight personnel in the USAR
Army HRC-Pay Incentive Branch
Recreational diving risk with flying?
Potential to cause DCS
Wait to fly timeframe after flu shot?
minimum 12 hours
Organizations maintaining aviation medical standards?
AAMA, US Combat Readiness Center, USAARL, DAM
Timeframe FDME or FDHS must be started and completed
during your three month birth month window
Final approving authority of a DD Form 2992?
Unit Commander
Difference between a temporary and permanent medical disqualification?
temporary: <365 days permanent: >365 days
Definition of inertia?
Resistance to change the state of rest or motion.
If the rate of onset of acceleration increases, the severity of the effect on the body will….?
increase
if body area or size increases, the severity of acceleration on the body will….?
Decrease
low-magnitude acceeration
1-10 G’s lasting for several seconds
high-magnitude acceleration
> 10G for <1sec
True/ False: a Positive G maneuver will cause a “Red Out” for the pilot?
False: Positive G: Black Out Negative G: Red Out
True/ False: Decelerative forces can cause incapacitation of the ACM?
TRUE
Aircraft Occupant Survivability Criteria?
The Amount of force transmitted to Occupiable living spaces and aircraft design features
What acronym describes design features that enhance crash survivability?
CREEP
what is spatial disorientation?
Erroneous perception of position, attitude, or motion in relation to the gravitational vertical and the earth surface.
Major cause of spatial disorientation?
Orientation illusion
Environmental factors part of DVE?
Fog smoke dust snow rain sea spray low illumination
Corrective measure to be utilized if you recognize spatial disorientation?
announce SD and transfer controls and utilize instruments and reference points to gain bearings
What self-imposed stressor can have effects on the vestibular system if residual effects are still present?
alcohol
Central vision field of view
30-40 degrees
Plane landing at a private grass airstrip touched down short of runway, what spatial disorientation have you experienced?
Size Distance Illusion
Visual illusion caused by tall wavy grass that makes the pilot continuously put inputs into the flight controls
Induced Motion
True/ False: A false horizon sensory illusion causing the pilot to use the sloping clod layer as the horizontal reference can cause SD?
TRUE
Part of the vestibular system causes somatgyral illusions?
Semicircular Canals
The corolis illusion would most likely cause what type of SD?
Type 3 SD: Incapacitating
False perception of position or motion caused by the discordant or erroneous orientation information?
Orientation Illusion
Most dangerous type of SD
Type I SD: Unrecognized
Most dangerous of all Vestibular Illusions?
Coriolis Illusion
Chemical that allows us to see black, white, and gray colors at night?
Rhodopsin
Medical condition caused as a result of the eyes focal point is “behind” the retinal plane or wall, causing blurred vision?
Hyperopia (Farsightedness)
Medical Condition caused by the stiffening and loss of elasticity of the cornea as we age?
Presbyopia
Surgical procedure is less likely to cause permanent vision change due to the thinness of the flap?
LASEK
Three corneal refractive surgeries
PRK, LASIK, LASEK
Type of vision experienced on dimly it nights, causes loss of color perception, and requires peripheral vision and recognition of object silhouettes?
Scotopic
Vision type “most Dangerous”?
Mesopic
Most important cue to depth perception?
Motion Parallax
What does GRAM stand for?
Geometric Perspective, Retinal Image Size, Aerial Perspective, Motion Parallax
Average time required for dark adaptation?
30-45 minutes
Four types of flight hazards?
Bird Strike Laser Nerve Agents Solar Glare
Self-imposed stressor will make ACM’s likely to stare at objects and neglect proper scanning techniques?
Alcohol use
