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ANAPAT > Terza settimana domande vecchie > Flashcards

Terza settimana domande vecchie Flashcards

1
Q

Acute purulent mastitis:
1. Typically occurs during breastfeeding
2. Most commonly caused by Gram-negative bacteria
3. Most commonly caused by Staphylococcus and Streptococcus
4. We can make diagnosis from a cytologic sample taken with aspiration biopsy…
A.The correct combination is 3, 4, 5;
B.The correct combination is 1, 4, 5;
C.The correct combination is 2, 3, 4;
D.The correct combination is 1, 2, 3;
E.The correct combination is 1, 3, 4

A

E

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2
Q

A 20-years old man refers one week of malaise and vomit, and he had vomit at the moment of recovery in
hospital. At the beginning he had haematuria, now he has oliguria (little urine). Which is the cause of his
clinical presentation?
Membranous glomerulonephritis;
Post-infective glomerulonephritis
Goodpasture syndrome;
ANCA glomerulonephritis;
Chronic IgA glomerulonephritis

A

Goodpasture syndrome;

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3
Q

Cervical smear:
1. taken from the vagina,
2. taken from the area of the transformation zone of the cervix
3. taken from the uterine cavity,
4. collocytes can be found in the smear,
5. contains cells of the flat and narrow epithelium of the cervix.
A.The correct combination is 3, 4, 5;
B.The correct combination is 1, 3, 5;
C.The correct combination is 2, 4, 5;
D.The correct combination is 3,5;
E.The correct combination is 1, 4, 5.

A

D

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4
Q

Breast cancer:
1. occurs more often in older women
2. is a characteristic disease of younger women
3. can be diagnosed in a cytological sample taken by aspiration biopsy with a thin needle
4. cytological signs of malignancy are equally pronounced in well and poorly differentiated cancers
5. Cytological signs of malignancy are more pronounced in poorly differentiated carcinomas.
A.The correct combination is 1, 2, 4, 5;
B.The correct combination is 1, 3, 5;
C.The correct combination is 2, 4, 5;
D.The correct combination is 2, 3, 4;
E.The correct combination is 3, 4, 5.

A

B

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5
Q

What type of hypersensitivity is caused by antibodies?
II;
I;
III;
I, II, III;
IV.

A

II

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6
Q

The characteristics of Sjögren’s syndrome are (3) :
a. The disease mainly affects men
b. It develops due to immune-mediated destruction of exocrine glands
c. Patients are at increased risk of developing salivary lymphoma
d. The disease is never associated with other autoimmune diseases
e. Patients have dry mouth and dry eyes

A

B, C, E

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7
Q

Which statement about celiac disease is NOT correct?
a. It causes stunted growth in children
b. Thyroid atrophy is present in the small intestinal mucosa
c. It most commonly occurs in children
d. It has no etiological link with diet
e. In the epithelium of the fringes. the upper epithelium of the mucosa is multiplied by T
lymphocytes

A

D

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8
Q

A flat intraepithelial lesion of the low level of the cervix is characterized by (PIL-NS low grade):
a. Koilocytes are seen in the cervical smear
b. In most cases, it progresses to squamous cell carcinoma
c. A scan of the cervix is not detected
d. It is associated with HPV infection
e. In most cases, it spontaneously resolves within 6-12 months

A

A, D, E

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9
Q

The characteristics of Goodpasture syndrome are:
a. It is caused by the deposition of immune complexes
b. It is clinically referred to as rapidly progressing glomerulonephritis
c. It occurs after another type of sensitization (II type)
d. A characteristic histopathological change is glomerular endocapillary proliferation and
exudation
e. A characteristic histopathological change is the diffuse extracapillary crescent
glomerulonephritis

A

B, C, E

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10
Q

Malignant malignancies are detected by ABTI (FNAB) supraclavicular lymph nodes in a woman
with lung cancer squamous cell carcinoma cells. The cytopathological diagnosis is: (2)
a. Confirmed reactive lymphadenitis
b. Contributed to the definition of the disease stage
c. Confirmed pleural carcinosis
d. Peritoneal carcinosis confirmed
e. Confirmed lymph node involvment by squamous cell carcinoma

A

B, E

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11
Q

What are the claims of acute post-infection glomerulonephritis? (4)
a. the major histomorphologic feature is glomerular endocapillary proliferation and exudation
b. prognosis (especially in children) is favorable
c. most commonly it occurs as a complication of streptococcal infection
d. results from the deposition of immune complexes
e. is caused by the direct effect of bacteria on the glomerulus

A

A, B, C, D

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12
Q

A fine needle aspiration biopsy (FNAB) obtained tissue from a tumor in the breast of a 21-year-old woman
ductal epithelium composed of small uniform cells and fragments of connective stroma. Most likely:
a. fat necrosis
b. fibrocystic changes
c. fibroadenoma
d. cancer
e. mastitis

A

C

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13
Q

Disease processes that can cause enlargement of lymph nodes are: (4)
a. infection
b. a cast of malignant melanoma
c. lymphoma
d. mioma
e. a cancer spell (=metastasis)

A

A, B, C, E

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14
Q

Vasculitis does NOT belong to ANCA (ANCA negative vasculitis)
a. Sjögren’s syndrome
b. Wegener’s granulomatosis
c. Churg-Straussin syndrome
d. Goodpasture syndrome
e. microscopic polyangiitis

A

A, D

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15
Q

A cytopathological examination of a fine needle aspiration biopsy specimen can be made diagnosis of
cancer based on assessment:
a. the inoculation of carcinoma cells into the tumor capsule
b. carcinoma lymphangiosis
c. cellular and nuclear signs of malignancy
d. perineural invasions
e. invasion of malignant cells into the veins

A

C

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16
Q

The cervical swab (Smear) is removed (is obtained):
a. as part of the ZORA screening program
b. as part of the SVIT screening program
c. in gynecological examination
d. as part of the DORA screening program
e. in order to detect precancerous changes

A

A, C, E

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17
Q

Ascites in a woman with serous ovarian cancer results from (1)
a. heart failure
b. peritoneal carcinoses
c. pleural carcinosis
d. pericardial carcinoses
e. liver cirrhosis

A

B

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18
Q

In a sample of aspiration biopsy from a painful breast tumor, which was sealed by a breastfeeding mother, we get a couple of drops of dense yellowish cloudy liquid. In the light: (3)
microscope, we see in smear:
a. macrophages
b. plasmatics
c. neutrophilic granulocytes
d. centroblasts
e. fibrin

A

A, C, E

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19
Q

An older woman noticed the entrained skin of her breast. In a sample of ABTI (FNAB) from a tumor that we had pinched in this region, we found numerous large cells lying down, with a ruptured nucleus-cytoplasmic proportions, pleomorphic and hyperchromic nuclei. Cytological
diagnosis is: (1)
a. fat necrosis
b. fibroadenoma
c. mastitis
d. fibrocystic changes
e. breast cancer

A

E

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20
Q

Which statements are correct for ordinary pemphigus? (3)
a. patients have bubbly lesions in the oral mucosa and skin
b. Positive pemphigoid antibodies are demonstrated in patients’ blood
c. the characteristic histological change is intraepidermal vesicles with acantholytic cells
d. by immunofluorescence examination, the linear binding of IgG antibodies to epidermal basement membrane
e. antibodies directed against desmosomes are crucial for the development of skin lesions

A

A, C, E

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21
Q

Acute T-cell renal transplant rejection is characterized by: (3)
a. activated macrophages are not present in the inflammatory infiltrate
b. a characteristic histological change is tubulitis
c. antibodies bind to the vascular endothelium and cause vasculitis
d. cytotoxic T lymphocytes invade the tubules and destroy the epithelium
e. interstitium is enlarged and infiltrated by mononuclear inflammatory cells

A

B, D, E

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22
Q

A sample of malignant melanoma may be suspected in the ABTI (FNAB) sample when: (1)
a. fine-grained blackish pigment in the cytoplasm
b. coilocyte
c. blue stained cytoplasm
d. mucin-filled vacuoles in the cytoplasm
e. necrotic debris in the background

A

A

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23
Q

Examination of ascites:
a. confirm peritoneal carcinosis
b. confirm pericardial carcinosis

A

A

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24
Q

A properly swabbed uterus (cervical smear) contains: (2)
a. glandular cells
b. flat cells (squamous epithelium)
c. transition cells
d. stroma cells
e. lympho

A

A, B

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25
Q

Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN):
a. associated with HPV 16, 18
b. associated with HPV 6.11
c. pre-cancerous invasive squamous cell carcinoma
d. pre-emptive invasive gland carcinoma
e. synonymous with cervicitis

A

A, C

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26
Q

Cytopathological examinations are made to determine:
a. the relationship between healthy and diseased tissue
b. there are no tissue relationships in the tissue!
c. cell shape and size
d. extracellular matrix
e. vascular properties

A

C, D

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27
Q

A 48-year-old male, positive c-ANCA, lung biopsy shows granulomas
a. Wegener’s granulomatosis

A

A

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28
Q

Glomerulonephritis
a. can in autoimmune diseases
b. can only take one kidney
c. can both kidneys

A

A, B, C

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29
Q

What is characteristic of glomerulonephritis in which immunofluorescence is detected
linear deposits?
a. develops as part of Goodpasture syndrome
b. autoantibodies against the α3 chain of collagen IV are present

A

A, B

30
Q

Hyperacute graft rejection:
a. HLA antibodies are already present before the transplantation in the recipient’s serum
b. antibodies against ABO antigens
c. something about cytotoxic T lymphocytes (are the red answers both wrong?

A

A, B ??

31
Q

The most common localization of breast cancer
a. Lower outer quadrant
b. The central particle
c. Upper outer quadrant
d. Lower inner quadrant
e. Upper inner quadrant

A

C

32
Q

The type 4 hypersensitivity response is or late sensitization
a. contact dermatitis
b. tuberculosis
c. Goodpasture syndrome
d. SLE (systemic lupus erythematosus)
e. asthma

A

A, B

33
Q

Acute graft rejection:
a. it may occur after a few months
b. characterized by CD4 + and CD8 + T lymphocytes
c. macrophages are found in the interstitium
d. mononuclear invasion of the tubules results in focal necrosis

A

TUTTE

34
Q

Identify a disease whose onset is associated with late cellular sensitization:
a. Goodpastur syndrome
b. Acute graft rejection
c. Contact dermatitis
d. Purulent angina
e. Glomerulonephritis

A

B, C

35
Q

Indicate what is type 1 sensitization:
a. urticaria (hives)
b. hay fever
c. asthma
d. contact dermatitis
e. glomerulonephritis

A

A, B, C

36
Q

What is characteristic of anaphylaxis:
a. constriction of the bronchi
b. urticaria (hives)
c. the patient may die within minutes of shock
d. it is caused by intravascular injection of the antigen

A

TUTTE

37
Q

Goodpasture syndrome is characterized by:
a. is a rapidly progressing disease
b. histopathologic picture: diffuse extracapillary crescent glomerulonephritis
c. results from the deposition of immune complexes
d. histopathologic picture: exudation and proliferative glomerulonephritis
e. occurs after another type of hypersensitivity (II)

A

A, B, E

38
Q

Electron microscopy is used in medicine for: (3)
a. Detection of extracellular immune deposits in skin and kidney
b. In the diagnosis of peripheral nerve disease
c. To determine the potential invasiveness of cancer cells
d. To demonstrate the presence of certain viruses in cells

A

A, B, D

39
Q

Goodpasture syndrome:
a. III. type of sensitization
b. anti-GBM is found in serum
c. we prove grain deposits
d. is an autoimmune disease of the lungs and kidneys
e. in crescents we find the parietal cells of Bowman’s capsule, macrophages, neutrophils and fibrin

A

B, D, E

40
Q

What applies to celiac disease:
a. characterized by atrophy of the fringes (villus)
b. at the top of the fringes, CD8 + lymphocytes, which are characteristic of celiac disease
c. occurs when consuming wheat, oats, barley, rye

A

A, B, C

41
Q

Crescent glomerulonephritis in Goodpastur syndrome:
a. destructured, collapsed glomeruli, destructed basal membrane of glomeruli
b. linear IgG and C3 deposits along the basal membrane of the distal tubules,glomerulov
c. a rare autoimmune disease
d. mainly men between the ages of 20 and 30 and women between the ages of 50 and 70 become ill
e. affects the lungs and kidneys
f. takes place after type II hypersensitivity

A

TUTTE

42
Q

Postinfective glomerulonephritis:
a. immunofluorescence examination revealed granular immune deposits in the capillary wall
b. immunofluorescence examination revealed banded immune deposits in the capillary wall
c. develops 4-8 weeks after infection
d. Type III hypersensitivity

A

A, D

43
Q

Glomerulonephritis: (1)
a. inflammation is limited to the renal vessels
b. is caused by a bacterial infection from the urinary tract
c. is never linked to immune mechanisms
d. it is most often caused by pathological deposition of the immune complex
e. never causes nephrotic syndrome

A

D

44
Q

Acute post-infectious glomerulonephritis: (3)
a. is caused by the direct effect of bacteria on glomeruli
b. occurs most often as a result of streptococcal infection
c. hemolytic streptococcus directly attacks the glomerul
d. is an incurable disease
e. it is histomorphologically characterized by a glomerular endocapillary proliferative exudate
f. occurs 1-4 weeks after infection

A

B, E, F

45
Q

Extracapillary proliferative glomerolnephritis:
a. it is indicated by a crescent-shaped capsule proliferation
b. occurs as a result of severe glomerular injury
c. it may be immunocomplex in nature
d. the disease usually ends abruptly with renal failure
e. it is never caused by the action of autoantibodies against antigens in the glomerular basal membranes

A

A, B, C, D

46
Q

For acute proliferation and exudation glomerulonephritis is characterized by:
a) the prognosis (especially in children) is good
b) arises from the deposition of immune complexes
c) histological picture: exudation and proliferative glomerulonephritis
d) occurs most often as a result streptococcal infections

A

TUTTE

47
Q

Sjögren’s syndrome is characterized by:
a) It is more common in men
b) patients are more likely to develop salivary gland lymphoma (non-Hodgkin lymphoma of the salivary gland)
c) is not associated with other immunological disorders
d) exocrine glands (glands with external secretion, most tear glands and salivary glands)
e) patients have dry mouth and dry eyes

A

B, D, E

48
Q

Linear deposits in the kidney:
* Good Pasture
* Autoimmune (anti-alpha auto-antibodies 3 Collagen Chains IV)

A
49
Q

Indicate the disease whose onset it is associated with late cellular sensitization: = 4. type
a) Goodpasteur syndrome
b) Acute graft rejection
c) Contact dermatitis
d) Purulent angina
e) Glomerulonephritis

A

C, b

50
Q

It is for Goodpasture syndrome typically: (3)
a. is a rapidly progressing disease
b. histopathologic picture: diffuse extracapillary crescent glomerulonephritis
c. arises from the deposition of immune alpha 3 chain antibody complexes collagen IV
d. histopathological picture: exudation and proliferative glomerulonephritis
e. is formed by another type hypersensitivity

A

A, B, E

51
Q

Patients with lung cancer performed cytopathological examination of the supraclavicular lymph nodes and find cells in it squamous cell carcinoma:
a. we confirmed squamous cell carcinoma in lymph nodes
b. confirm ….. cancer
c. the investigation helps determine the stage

A

A, C

52
Q

For actuarial T-cell graft rejection kidney is characterized by (acute T-cell renal transplant rejection):
a) activated macrophages are not in inflammatory inflitrate
b) the characteristic histological change is tubulitis
c) antibodies bind to the vascular endothelium and cause vasculitis
d) cytotoxic T lymphocytes invade tubules and destroying the epithelium
e) interstitium is widespread and infiltrated by mononuclear inflammatory cells

A

B, D, E

53
Q

What are the claims of acute postinfection are glomerulonephritis correct?
a) arises from the deposition of immune complexes
b) the main histopathological feature is glomerular endocapillary proliferation and exudation
c) prognosis (especially in children) is favorable
d) arise from direct effect bacteria on the glomerulus
e) it most often arises as a complication streptococcal infections

A

A, B, C, E

54
Q

The ABTI (FNAB) sample can be suspected to be a specimen malignant melanoma when found:
a) fine-grained blackish pigment in the cytoplasm
b) coilocytes
c) blue stained cytoplasm
d) vacuoles filled with mucin, v cytoplasm
e) necrotic debris in the background

A

A

55
Q

Immunohistochemistry:
a. desmin is an intermediate filament muscle cells
b. cytokeratin is characteristic of epithelial tumors
c. SPKF is only in the hyperplastic prostate, not in cancer
d. it is only important for the diagnosis of neoplasm
e. we can prove tumor markers that make it accurate diagnosis of the tumor

A

A, B, E

56
Q

Acute postinfection glomerulonephritis: (2)
a) arises from direct effect of bacteria on glomeruli
b) occurs most often as a result streptococcal infections
c) hemolytic streptococcus directly attacks the glomerulus
d) is an incurable disease → children acute (2-3 months. get over); adults more chronic
e) histomorphologically indicates it glomerular endocapillary proliferative exudate

A

B, E

57
Q

Extracapillary proliferative glomerolnephritis:
a) It is indicated by a crescent capsule proliferate
b) occurs as a result of severe glomerular injuries
c) may be of immunocomplex nature
d) the disease usually ends abruptly with renal failure
e) it never arises from action autoantibodies against antigens in glomerular basal membranes

A

A, B, C, D

58
Q

A low grade squamous intraepithelial lesion of the cervix is characterised by: (3)
a. In the cervical smear, we can see coillocytes
b. In most cases, it progresses to squamous cell carcinoma
c. Cervical smear examination does not detect it
d. It is associated with HPV infection
e. In most cases it resolves within 6-12 months

A

A, D, E

59
Q

Chemical mediators of inflammation
a. Of plasma origin
b. pituitary
c. cellular
d. vegetable
e. food

A

A, C

60
Q

Complement activation. Which inflammatory mediators are produced?
a. C1q
b. C5a
c. C3a
d. C5b-9
e. C4

A

B, C

61
Q

Chemical mediators of inflammation of cellular origin?
a. histamine
b. callicrein
c. hydrolitic enzymes
d. ROS
e. leukotrien

A

A, C, D, E

62
Q

Histopathological features of acute inflammation?
a. proliferation of the connective tissue
b. change in elastic type large turtles
c. vasodilatation
d. increased permeability of small blood vessels
e. Leukodiapaedesis + GMC, spasms, more mucus, chemotaxis + activation of eos. granulocytes

A

C, D, E

63
Q

Consequences of increased small vessels permeability in acute inflammation?
a. proliferation
b. exudation
c. necrosis
d. alternation
e. eritrodiapedesis

A

B, E

64
Q

Mast cell mediators released:
a. reduce mucus secretion
b. cause bronchial muscular constriction
c. cause systemic vasoconstriction
d. attract macrophages and lead to granuloma formation
e. cause chemotaxis of eosinophilis and neutrophilis

A

B, E

65
Q

The beneficial immune response after type I hypersensitivity is against:
a. spirochete
b. amyloid
c. tumours
d. dust
e. parasites

A

D, E

66
Q

Intermediate filament is not:
a. Actin
b. desmina
c. Glial fibrillary acidic protein
d. neurofilaments
e. vimentin

A

A

67
Q

Immunochemestry:
a. desmin is an intermediate filament of muscle cells
b. cytokeratin is characteristic of epithelial tumours
c. SPKF is only in hyperplastic prostate, not in carcinoma
d. it is important only for the diagnosis of neoplasms
e. we can demonstrate tumour markers that allow accurate tumour diagnosis

A

A, B, E

68
Q

Which intermediate filaments can be dimostrated in tissue?
a. vimentin
b. desmin
c. neurofilament
d. myozina
e. synaptophysin

A

A, B, C

69
Q

In acute pyelonephritis:
ascending infection
one kidney
can affect both kidneys

A

tutte

70
Q

Cytopathological examinations of the
tumour allow us to:
a. assessment of perinerval invasion
b. assessment of vascular invasion
c. assessment of nuclear and cellular
(morphological) changes
d. … lymphangiosis
e. assessment of capsular penetration

A

C

ANAPAT (3 decks)

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