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ANAPAT > Prima settimana domande vecchie > Flashcards

Prima settimana domande vecchie Flashcards

1
Q

The basic pathological process is a greatly increased permeability of alveolar capillaries caused by damage to the alveolar epithelium and capillary endothelium:
a) brochopneumonia
b) interstitial pneumonia
c) ARDS
d) pulmonary edema
e)nodular pneumonia

A

C

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2
Q

The most common source of pulmonary thromboembolism:
a) from the deep veins of the lower extremities
b) other incorrect answers

A

from the deep veins in lower limbA)

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3
Q

Steatonecrosis of the pancreas:
a) acute pancreatitis
b) bleeding may be present
c) due to the action of proteolytic enzymes (lipases)
d) most often due to infarction of the artery that feeds the pancreas
d) due to ischemia

A

A, B, C

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4
Q

Liver congestion:
a) L heart failure
b) R heart failure
c) hepatocytes are normal
d) nutmeg structure
e) hepatocytes necrotic, atrophied

A

B, D, E (in zona centrolobulare)

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5
Q

Ulcerative colitis:
a) submucosa and mucosa
b) from the rectum upwards, continuously
c) may be precancerous
d) is a systemic disease
d) from the rectum to the mouth

A

A, B, C

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6
Q

For squamous cell metaplasia, it is typical
A it can be causally related to papilloma viruses
B can lead to precancerous and cancerous changes
C mature epithelial cells replace immature ones
D only epithelial cell metaplasia is possible

A

A, B

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7
Q

Prostate hyperplasia
A It is a precancerous change
B Epithelial, muscular, connective tissue is multiplied
C The periurethral part is enlarged
D enlarged peripheral part
E causes micturition disorders

A

B, C, E (SE la è specifica “in young ben allora è sbagliata)

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8
Q

Choose the correct statements
A Hemosiderin pigment most often accumulates in the parenchyma
B Hemochromatosis can be primary or secondary
C hemosiderin may accumulate in the pancreas
D lipofuscin is a hemoglobin pigment
E hemosiderin belongs to the bile pigments

A

A, B, C

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9
Q

Cell adaptation reactions do NOT include
fat transformation o dysplasia
atrophy
hypertrophy
hyperplasia
metaplasia

A

Fat transformation o dysplasia

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10
Q

Choose the correct statement:
A phlegmonous inflammation is most common in the subcutaneous tissue and muscles
B purulent ascending pyelonephritis is a destructive tubulointerstitial inflammation
C g.a. pyelonephritis is always bilateral
D hemolytic streptococcus releases elastase, which breaks down tissue
E g. a. pyelonephritis is caused by gram + bacteria

A

A, B

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11
Q

Tubercles are characteristic of:
Koch’s bacillus,
rheumatoid fever
rheumatoid arthritis
Crohn’s disease
sarcoidosis

A

Koch’s bacillus (Mycobacterium tubercolosis, TBC)

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12
Q

Sarcoid granulomas are most common in
a. lymph nodes of the pulmonary hilus
b. Skin
c. Eye
d. Spleen

A

lymph nodes of the pulmonary hilus

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13
Q

Select the WRONG claims about HP gastritis
A most common in children
B proliferative inflammation
C can lead to mucosal metaplasia
D always leads to the development of ulcers

A

A, D

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14
Q

Fibrin pericarditis
A copious exudate can be organized
B in the mild form, fibrin can be resorbed
C the heart is smooth, shining
D can be caused by a myocardial infarction
E most common is primary, viral pericarditis

A

A, B, D

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15
Q

Chronic catarrhal bronchitis
A it is characterized by hypertrophy and hyperplasia of the glands
B increased mucin excretion
C purulent exudate
D is caused by pollen allergy
E increased mucus secretion

A

A,B,E
c(?)

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16
Q

Alveolar pneumonia includes:
a) interstitial pneumonia
b) lobar pneumonia
c) nodular pneumonia
d) bronchopneumonia
e) ARDS

A

B, D (D=> most common alveolar pneumonia)

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17
Q

Dispersed purulent inflammation is also called:
a) abscess
b) phlegmon
c) gangrene
d) necrosis

A

B

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18
Q

White (anemic) infarction is characteristic of:
a) heart
b) lungs
c) kidney
d) gastrointestinal tract
d) liver

A

HEART

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19
Q

The origin of tromboembolism in the lungs is usually:
a) superficial veins of the lower extremity
b) deep veins of the lower extremity
c) superficial veins of the upper extremity
d) deep veins of the upper extremity
d) arteries of the lower extremity

A

Deep veins of the lower extremity

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20
Q

Characteristics of prostate hyperplasia:
a) causes micturition disorder in young men
b) the periurethral glands are multiplied
c) peripheral glands are multiplied
d) caused by hormonal imbalance with estrogen predominance
e) glands multiply, surrounding connective tissue and muscle

A

B, E

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21
Q

Changes in the cell in ischaemic failure are as follows
a) apoptosis
b) cell swelling
c) acidosis
d) cessation of ATP formation
e) deposition of calcium in the mitochondria

A

B,C,D, E

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22
Q

The characteristics of metaplasia are:
a) that it is reversible
b) that it is irreversible
c) that it is more common in mesenchymal cells
d) that it is more common in epithelial cells
e) that mature epithelial or mesenchymal cells of one species replace mature epithelial or mesenchymal cells of another species

A

A, D, E
[la E dovrebbe specificare che le cellule che hanno sostituito le precedenti devono essere di una tipologia non presente normalmente in quell’area]
Più comune nelle cellule epiteliali: https://www.sciencedirect.com/topics/biochemistry-genetics-and-molecular-biology/metaplasia

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23
Q

The underdevelopment of an organ due to the absence of genetic design is called:
a) hypoplasia
b) atrophy
c) agenesis
d) aplasia
e) atresia.

A

agenesis

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24
Q

Diffuse purulent inflammation is called:
a) abscess
b) empyema
c) phlegmon
e) granuloma
e) gangrene.

A

phlegmon

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25
Q

Among the diseases accompanied by an increased incidence of cancer are:
a) Barrett’s poser
b) peptic ulcer of the duodenum
c) ulcerative colitis
d) chronic atrophic gastritis
e) diverticulitis.

A

A, C, D

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26
Q

In chronic bronchitis, we can usually find:
a) hypertrophy of the submucosal glands
b) increased resistance to airflow through the airways
c) inflammatory infiltration with eosinophilic granulocytes
d) productive cough
e) markedly thickened basement membrane of the airway epithelium

A

A, B, D (dal file di siena)

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27
Q

Barrett’s poser means:
a) dysplasia of the mucosa of the esophagus
b) metaplasia of the mucosa of the esophagus into the glandular mucosa as normal in the stomach or intestine
c) stenosis in the middle third of the esophagus
d) diverticular bulge in the upper third of the esophagus
e) the appearance of numerous cystic spaces in the mucosa of the esophagus

A

Metaplasia of the mucosa of the esophagus into the glandular mucosa as normal in the stomach or intestine

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28
Q

Tuberculous granuloma:
A asteroid body
B epithelioid cells
C ferruginous bodies
D lymphocytes
E fibrinoid necrosis

A

B, D

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29
Q

Bile pigment:
A it belongs to the tyrosine group of pigments
B is similar to hemosiderin in terms of the basic ingredient
C its pathological deposition in the liver is associated with cholestasis and obstructive jaundice
D is caused by increased iron intake from food
E is formed from hemosiderin

A

C it’s pathological deposition in the liver is associated with cholestasis and obstructive jaundice

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30
Q

Adaptation processes do not include:
A hyperplasia
B metaplasia
C atrophy
D dysplasia
E hypertrophy

A

Dysplasia

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31
Q

HP infection is usually:
A associated with septicemia
B in relation to chronic active gastritis
C precursor of pernicious anemia
D present in more than 50 Slovenian populations
E with age less and less often

A

B in relation to chronic active gastritis
Io metterei anche C e forse D

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32
Q

Gall pigment:
a) consists of tyrosine
b) is similar to hemosiderin
c) is from the same group as hemosiderin
d) its deposition in liver cells is due to obstructive jaundice

A

d) its deposition in liver cells is due to obstructive jaundice

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33
Q

Acute interstitial nephritis:
a) is an incurable disease
b) the cause is certain medications
c) the cause is viral and bacterial infections
d) an inflammatory cell infiltrate is found in the renal interstitium
e) The glomerulus is always affected from the beginning

A

b) the cause is certain medications
c) the cause is viral and bacterial infections
d) an inflammatory cell infiltrate is found in the renal interstitium

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34
Q

Hemochromatosis
a) Fe accumulates in the region of hemosiderin
b) fulminant hepatitis develops due to the tox effect of Fe (=> VIRUSES)
c) gradual pathogenic overgrowth of the binder develops into
micronodular cirrhosis
d) is expressed in childhood due to inheritance

A

A, C, D (dal libro: raramente si esprime prima dei 40 anni)

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35
Q

histo znac. viral hepatitis:
a) malloryal hyaline
b) portal inflammation with lymphocytes
c) granulocyte inflammation
d) multiplication of bile ducts, destruction of hepatocytes
e) balloon hepatocytes
f) apoptosis of hepatocytes

A

B

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36
Q

which change is evidence of cell failure:

A

Pycnosis of the nuclei, lysis and rhexix of nuclei

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37
Q

Langhans giants:
a) are present in tuberculosis
b) are present in sarcoidosis
c) are present in foreign granuloma
d) have cores arranged in the shape of a wreath
e) the nuclei are arranged irregularly in the middle of the cytoplasm

A

A, B, C, D

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38
Q

Hemoglobin pigments are:
a) melanin
b) anthracotic pigment
c) lipofuscin
d) bile pigment
e) ceroid

A

D

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39
Q

Pyelonephritis:
a) is a very rare kidney disease
b) usually due to ascending infection with gram (-) bacteria
c) is an immunocomplex disease
d) there is never purulent inflammation
e) a chronic form of this disease cannot occur

A

b) usually due to ascending infection with gram (-) bacteria

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40
Q

Characteristics of autoimmune gastritis:
a) the most common form of chronic gastritis in our country
b) only the antral mucosa of the stomach is affected
c) serum antibodies to parietal cells are elevated
d) gastric cancer may occur as a complication

A

C, D

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41
Q

TUBERCOLOGICAL GRANULOMA:
a) asteroid bodies
b) lymphocytes
c) epithelioid cells
d) f? cells
e) central necrosis

A

Lymphocites
Epitelioid cells
Central necrosis (necrosi caseosa)

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42
Q

LIVER CIRRHOSIS (most common causes):
a) alcohol
b) viral hepatitis
c) hemochromatosis
d) bile duct obstruction

A

Alcohol
Viral hepatitis

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43
Q

THE BOTTOM OF A PEPTIC ULCER FORM:
a) fibrin exudate with leukocytes
b) peptic necrosis
c) granulation tissue and binder

A

B, C
A sarebbe giusta se fosse solo fibrin exudate e/o + granulocites

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44
Q

Koag. necrosis:
a) consequence of arterial thrombosis
b) it is observed in the elongated spinal cord
c) consequence of auto- and heterolysis
d) it is often accompanied by karyolysis
e) repeatedly affects the kidneys

A

D
A(?)

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45
Q

Progress. mitochondrial changes:
a) rupture of membranes
b) calcium precipitates
c) myelin figures
d) hypertrophy - adaptive change

A

A, B

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46
Q

Adaptation is not:
a) hyperplasia
b) hypertrophy
c) steatosis
d) metaplasia
e) atrophy

A

steatosis

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47
Q

The vital reaction is:
a) granulocyte infiltration
b) chemotaxis
c) cell hyperplasia

A

granulocyte infiltration

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48
Q

Electron microscopy is used in medicine for
A Identification of extracellular immune deposits in the skin and kidneys
B In the diagnosis of peripheral nerve disease
C To determine the potential invasiveness of cancer cells
D To prove the presence of certain viruses in cells

A

Metterei A e D
(dal file di siena è segnata anche la B)

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49
Q

Cytopathological examinations establish
A relationship between healthy and diseased tissue
B relationships between cells in the tissue
C shape and size of cells
D extracellular matrix
D vascular properties

A

C, D
shape and size of cells
Extracellular matrix

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50
Q

Metastatic calcification is a consequence of:
a) fatty necrosis
b) bone fractures
c) hypercalcaemia
d) malignant neoplasia
e) miliary tuberculosis

A

D;

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51
Q

Progressive changes in mitochondria:
a) rupture of membranes
b) calcium precipitates
c) myelin figures
d) hypertrophy - adaptive change?

A

a, b, c - are degenerative changes, and d is adaptive - what is
progressive now?

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52
Q

Intermediate filament is not (only one):
a) Actin
b) Desmin
c) Glial fibrillar acidic protein
e) Neurofilaments
e) Vimentin

A

A; Actin

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53
Q

Which intermediate filaments can be detected in the tissue:
A vimentin
B desmin
C neurofilament (including cytokeratins and glial fibrillar acidic
proteins)
D myosin

A

A
B
C
(anche GFAP e cheratin)

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54
Q

The vital reaction is: (inflammatory reaction in a living organism after tissue damage, usually with necrosis)
A inflammatory infiltration with granulocytes
B common in autolysis (autolysis is the postmortem decomposition of tissue or cells with their own enzymes, without a vital reaction)
C is found in cerebral infarction (heterolysis)
D is due to chemotaxis (heterolysis)
E is never present with anemic renal infarction
F cell hyperplasia

A

A; inflammatory infiltration with granulocites

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55
Q

Bile pigment:
A belongs to the tyrosine group of pigments (Hb, tyrosine is melanin)
B is similar to hemosiderin in terms of the basic ingredient
C its pathological deposition in the liver is associated with cholestasis and obstructive jaundice
D is caused by increased dietary iron intake (hemosiderin)
E is formed from hemosiderin (from heme)

A

C

56
Q

Megamitochondria:
A diameter of 1-2 microns
B are also described in relation to excessive alcohol
consumption
C accompanies organ atrophy
D can reach core size
E also visible light microscopically

A

B
https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/12611638/

57
Q

Coagulation necrosis:
A it is often caused by arterial thrombosis
B is observed several times in the elongated spinal cord (→coagulation necrosis)
C is due to autolysis and heterolysis
D is often accompanied by karyolysis
E often affects the kidneys (most often the heart and spleen)

A

A, D

58
Q

It’s cariorex
a) decomposition of the cytoplasm
b) cell membrane breakdown
c) decomposition of the core

A

C; decomposition of the core

59
Q

Apoptosis is an important histopathological feature
a) acute viral hepatitis
b) brown atrophy of the heart
c) renal transplant rejection
d) chronic alcoholic liver damage
e) bronchopneumonia

A

ad esclusione b e/o c

60
Q

Which of the following terms does not make sense for the others:
a) hypertrophy
b) hyperplasia
c) fatty infiltration
d) metaplasia
e) dysplasia

A

C
(tutti gli altri sono fenomeni adattativi)

61
Q

In which organ does involution not occur?
a) liver
b) thymus
c) ovary
d) uterus

A

(organ reduction, eg uterus after pregnancy)
[Thymus, Uterus, Mammary gland]

A- LIVER; C- OVARY

62
Q

Colic necrosis:
a. heart
b. cysts
c. hydrolytic enzymes (proteolytic?) -> enzymes secreted from
inflammatory cells

A

probabilmente è la stessa domanda di “haemorrhagic necrosis”

63
Q

Which two organelles are a sign of acute cell damage?
a) mitochondria
b) membrane
c) GER
e) Cytoskeleton
d) Lysosomes

A

Io metterei mitochondria e membrane (swelling signs)

64
Q

The passage of blood plasma components through dilated blood vessels in inflammation is:
a) diapedesis (blood cells - leukocytes migrate through the
endothelium)
b) transudation (itfast pressure, low protein plasma filtrate, <1,016g / dm3)
c) exudation (↑ vascular permeability, plasma with proteins and blood cells,> 1,016g / dm3)
d) bleeding
e) effusion

A

EXUDATION (C)

65
Q

Langhans Giants:
a) are present in tuberculosis
b) are in sarcoidosis
c) in alien granuloma -> Alien giants, disorganized
d) have cores arranged in the shape of a wreath
e) the nuclei are arranged irregularly in the middle of the Tujkova cytoplasm
f) Aschoff’s granuloma (rheumatic granuloma)

A

A, B, D

66
Q

The characteristics of a foreign granuloma are:
A foreign substance can be an endogenous or exogenous substance
B foreign body granuloma is formed due to mechanical and chemical irritation
C in the central part of the foreign granuloma is always an abundant purulent exudate
D in a foreign granuloma, Langhans giants are also often found (foreign giants: nuclei next to a foreign body or without order in ctpl)
E is caused by a secondary bacterial infection

A

A, B

67
Q

Diffuse purulent inflammation is called:
a) abscess
b) empyema
c) phlegmon
d) granuloma
e) gangrene

A

Phlegmon

68
Q

Inflammation mediators:
a) C2
b) C3a
c) C5a
d) C1q
e) C5b-9

A

C2

69
Q

Mediators of inflammation of cellular origin:
a) quinine
b) ROS
c) prostaglandins
d) complement fractions

A

ROS
anche c dovrebbe essere giusta

70
Q

Purulent inflammation
a) pyogenic bacteria
b) leukodiapedesis

A

A

71
Q

Inflammatory granuloma
a) A special form of inflammation
b) Organization of inflammatory infiltrate
c) The causative agent may be a foreign substance, infection, impaired immunity, allergy

A

C

72
Q

Non-caseous granulomas cause the following diseases, EXCEPT:
a) chronic beryllium
b) silicosis
c) sarcoidosis
d) histoplasmosis
e) TBC

A

TBC

73
Q

Associated with the development of thrombosis are:
a) activation of the coagulation mechanism
b) endothelial damage
c) formation of platelet aggregates
d) thrombocytopenia
e) blood stasis

A

[Triade di Virchow]
Endothelial demage; Blood stasis; Formation of platelet aggregation –> activation of the coagulation mechanism
A, B, C, E

74
Q

Hemorrhagic infarction is characterized by:
A the heart
B lungs
C intestines
D kidney
E the pancreas

A

B, C
Hemorrhagic infarctions are typically seen in the brain, lungs, and the GI tract, areas referred to as having “loose tissue [Wikipedia]

75
Q

The most common source of systemic thromboembolism
a) deep leg veins
b) saphenous vein - superficial leg vein
c) auricles
d) veins of the prostatic plexus
e) inferior vena cava

A

Auricles (C) [intracardiac mural thrombi]

76
Q

Platelet aggregation at the site of vascular injury is triggered by:
a) activation of Hageman’s f. (intrinsic path)
b) Platelet contact with subendothelial collagen
c) Lysosomal enzymes from neutrophils
d) Tissue thromboplastin release
e) Thrombin

A

E

77
Q

Pleural effusion is the most common:
a) fibrinous
b) purulent
c) hemorrhagic
e) serous

A

E

78
Q

Hydrothorax:
a) it can be caused by a tumor, aneurysms
b) fluid in the pleural space
c) may contain milk fluid
d) due to heart failure, liver

A

B

79
Q

Choose the most common source of pulmonary emboli:
a) veins of the prostatic plexus
b) sp.vena coffee
c) periuterine venous plexus
d) ileofemoral veins
e) right cervical

A

D

80
Q

The most common cause of pulmonary edema is:
a) hepatic failure
b) renal failure
c) right-sided heart failure
d) left-sided heart failure
e) pancreatic failure

A

D

81
Q

Which condition is chronological 4. after collection:
a) pulmonary infarction
b) pulmonary embolism
c) venous thrombosis
d) increased coagulability
e) cholecystoctomy

A

Pulmonary infarction (?)
(increased coagulation ◊ venous
thrombosis ◊ pulmonary embolism ◊pulmonary infarction)

82
Q

Prostatic hyperplasia:
A It is a precancerous change
B Epithelial, muscular, connective tissue is
multiplied
C Periurethral part is enlarged
D peripheral part enlarged
E causes micturition disorders

A

B, C, E

83
Q

Choose the correct statement:
A phlegmonous inflammation is most common in the
subcutaneous tissue and muscles
B purulent abscess pyelonephritis is a destructive
tubulointerstitial inflammation
C g.a. pyelonephritis is always bilateral (=> often
unilateral)
D haemolytic streptococcus releases elastase, which
breaks down tissue (=> hyaluronidase)

A

A, B

84
Q

Interstitial pneumonia is characterised by:
a) most often bacterial cause
b) most often caused by antibiotics and viral infections
c) interstitium is dominated by neutrophilic granulocytes
d) interstitium is dominated by plasmacytes, histiocytes, monocytes
e) there is a specific inflammatory infiltrate in the
alveoli

A

A, C E (?)
la E non torna in quanto l’infiltrato in questo caso è a livello interstiziale e non nell’alveolo

85
Q

What accumulates in the alveoli in
pulmonary oedema:
a) transudate
b) exudate
c) Inflammatory
infiltrate
(n) Water
d) blood

A

a) trasudate

86
Q

Peptic ulcer of the stomach
a) macroscopically, acute and chronic can be distinguished
b) often develops into carcinoma
c) separated from erosion by an inflammatory infiltrate
d) often in the antrum and lesser curvature
e) chronic is often more

A

D

87
Q

Fibrinous pericarditis
a) caused when bacteria and fungi invade the pericardium
b) blood dominates the pericardium
c) adhesive pericarditis develops
d) serous pericarditis may be a precursor
e) can be stuck without

A

C, D

88
Q

AMILOIDOSIS
A affected organs always macroscopically altered
B knowingly acquired
C thioflavin T binds to amyloid
D TTR is deposited in the heart in senile amyloidosis
E the cause of AL protein loading is monoclonal lymphoid proliferation. B or plasma cells

A

C, D, E

89
Q

CHRONIC PEPTIC ULCER
A the bottom of the ulcer is made of four layers
B extends beyond the muscularis mucosae
C most commonly in the stomach and duodenum
D cause may be H. Pylori
E goes through regeneration and reparation

A

C, D, E

90
Q

ATEROSCLEROSIS
A atheroembolism can be a complication of atherosclerosis
B cholesterol crystals are visible in foamy macrophages
C the intima is affected due to endothelial damage
D media never affected
E thoracic aorta affected more often than abdominal aorta

A

A, C
b

91
Q

Cirrhosis of the liver can be caused by:
a) metabolic-toxic liver damage
b) chronic hepatitis
c) Wilson’s disease
d) sclerosing cholangitis
e) primary hepatocellular carcinoma

A

A
(metterei anche B,C,D)

92
Q

Chron’s disease:
a) includes mucosa and submucosa
b) starts in the rectum and spreads retrogradely
c) covers the entire large intestine
d) can occur anywhere in the digestive tube
e) may be accompanied by sclerosing cholangitis

A

D
Metterei anche la a

93
Q

Prostatic hyperplasia:
a) is a volumetric increase in glands, not a numerical multiplication
b) it often develops into carcinoma
c) occurs more frequently in the central part of the gland
d) most often occurs before the age of 50

A

C

94
Q

Primary generalised haemochromatosis
a. excessive Fe absorption from the creves
b. excessive intake through food, transfusions, haemolysis
c. the liver is macronodular cirrhotic
d. more common in men

A

A, D

95
Q

Complications of leptomeningitis all EXCEPT:
a. encephalitis
b. hydrocephalus
c. meningitis
d. ependymiti

A

A

96
Q

Gallstones can indirectly cause:
a) inflammation of the gallbladder
b) primary biliary cirrhosis
c) carcinoma of the gallbladder
d) bile stasis
e) portal hypertension

A

A, D, E

97
Q

Pulmonary atelectasis is caused by:
a) respiratory tract injuries
b) airway obstruction
c) too much artificial ventilation
d) foreign matter in the chest cavity pressing on the lungs
e) pulmonary fibrosis

A

A, B (altre?)

98
Q

They are more likely to get tuberculosis:
a) Older
b) children
c) AIDS patients
d) patients with emphysema
e) patients with lymphoma

A

A
(metterei anche c)

99
Q

Inflammation of the soft membranes of the brain can occur as a result of:
a) hydrocephalus
b) spread of inflammation from the perinasal sinuses
c) adhesions mening
d) head injuries
e) septicaemia

A

B

100
Q

Amyloidosis of the kidney is characterised by:

A

-most commonly amyloid deposition AL

101
Q

Complications of lobar pneumonia include:
a) Empiema
b) Diffuse fibrosis
c) Chronic pneumonia
d) Septicemia

A

A, C, D

102
Q

Features of chronic peptic ulcer of the stomach:
a) The ulcer has a sharp edge
b) An ulcer always develops into a carcinoma
c) It most commonly occurs in the lesser curvature and antrum
d) If the stomach wall is punctured, bacterial peritonitis occurs.

A

C

103
Q

Features of prostatic hyperplasia:
a) An enlarged prostate causes bladder hyperplasia.
b) Prostatic hyperplasia often develops into carcinoma.
c) An enlarged prostate quickly closes the urethra.
d) Prostatic hyperplasia develops over a short period of time.
e) Glandular and connective tissue on the periphery of the prostate is multiplied.

A

C

104
Q

Features of prostatic hyperplasia:
a) causes micturition disorder in young men
b) periurethral glands are multiplied
c) peripheral glands are multiplied
c) caused by a hormonal imbalance with a predominance of oestrogens
d) glands, surrounding connective tissue and muscle tissue multiply

A

B, D

105
Q

Amyloid can be demonstrated by everything EXCEPT:
a) Congo by rdec
b) Sudan III
c) the fluorescent dye thioflavin T
d) using a polarising microscope
e) using monoclonal bodies

A

B

106
Q

An amyloid is:
a) fibrillar, congophilic protein
b) is always imposed in a generalised way
c) never arises on a familial basis as a genetic disorder
d) composed of starch
e) is never stored away in the heart

A

A

107
Q

Primary amyloidosis:
a) it is associated with multiple myeloma
b) under an electron microscope, it can be separated from the secondary
c) amyloid is deposited in the heart possibly blo (it is a systemic amyloid.)
d) is due to rheumatoid arthritis sec. amyloid. is associated with chronic inflammation
e) does not affect the kidneys

A

A (amiloide AL), C

108
Q

What characterises hyalinosis? (p. 89)
hyaline - acellular, homogeneous, formless eosinophilic substance (HE);
el.microsc. - homogeneous
structureless substance; in cytoplasm (Russell bodies - plasmodesmata), nuclei/cytoplasm. (viral
infections), Mallory’s hyaline - hepatocytes (allohepatitis), madcell substance (hyalinization scars; in
vascular walls and/or
glomerular mesanglion; colloid (thyroid); alveolar walls)

A
109
Q

Causes of arteriosclerosis:

A

due to chronic inflammation of the intima triggered by endothelial dysfunction hypertension,
hyperlipidaemia, haemodynamic factors, smoking

110
Q

Early onset of sexual activity and changing sexual partners are risk factors for:
a) cervical carcinoma
b) endometrial carcinoma
c) uterine leiomyoma
d) breast carcinoma
e) ovarian carcinoma.

A

A

111
Q

Diffuse alveolar defect:
a) represents morphological changes in ARDS
b) in early stage disease, hyaline membranes are common present
c) can be caused by pneumothorax
d) diffuse interstitial pulmonary fibrosis may develop
e) the lungs are overly collapsed.

A

A, B, D

112
Q

Which of the following factors does NOT cause diffuse alveolar damage:
a) Septic shock
b) Aspiration of herbaceous content
c) Viral infection e.g. CMV
d) Pneumothorax
e) Radiation pneumonitis is an inflammation

A

D

113
Q

Secondary generalised amyloidosis:
A) amyloid is deposited in brain, bone, tongue AL preferred;
B) as a result of chronic inflammation, autoimmune diseases, tumours
C) amyloid is made of light chains from AA (a serum protein produced by the liver in chronic inflammation, etc.)
D) is not deposited in the kidneys
E) familial amyloidosis, especially in mutant TTR (ATTR)

A

B
c

114
Q

Hydrocephalus
a) can be caused by degenerative diseases of the brain
b) the baby’s skull bones become dislocated
c) the ventricles are narrowed

A

A, B

115
Q

Brain artery aneurysm
a) often due to turbidity
b) the cause is atherosclerosis
c) caused by primary abnormalities in the structure of the vascular wall
no) most common in the middle cerebral artery (and another, I think communicant)
d) rupture causes epidural haemorrhage

A

B, C

116
Q

Squamous cell lung cancer
a) most often on the periphery
b) most commonly at the bifurcations of the main and lobar bronchi
c) tumours are most often found in the brain, adrenal gland, liver and bone before they are
detected grows slowly compared to other forms

A

B,C

117
Q

The characteristics of coagulation necrosis are:
a) activation of pancreatic lipases
b) denaturation of proteins
c) liquefaction of the necrotic area
d) cell outlines are preserved for a long time
e) ischaemia is a common cause

A

B,D,E

118
Q

A collection of pus in a hollow organ or body cavity is called
a)gangrene
(b)abscess
(c)granuloma
(d)empyema
(e)phlegmo

A

D

119
Q

Passive hyperemia
a)is a common pathological process in the liver and spleen
b)caused by sympathetic neurogenic stimulation
c)is always a systemic disease process
d)is often associated with local oedema
e)is a phenomenon in the lungs in left ventricular decompensation

A

A, D, E

120
Q

Non-caseous epithelioid granulomas with giant cells of the alien and Langerhans type are characteristic of:
a)foreign granuloma
b)sarcoid granuloma
c)tuberculoma
d)rheumatoid granuloma
e)rheumatic granuloma

A

B

121
Q

Exudative inflammation includes:
a)fibrotic inflammation
b)serous inflammation
c)abscess
d)gangrene
e)proliferative inflammation

A

A, B, C

122
Q

The features of gangrene are
a)the lower limbs of diabetics are often affected
b)presence of sarcoid granulomas
c)black staining of gangrenous tissue
d)necrosis with associated putrefaction
e)often affects the intestines

A

A, C, D, E

123
Q

Characteristics of healing with regeneration (I think it was regeneration, but I circled itanswers for REPARATION)
a)proliferation of perenchymal cells
b)formation of a connective scar
c)proliferation of granulation tissue
d)complete healing
e)organisation

A

B, C, E

124
Q

A haemorrhagic infarction is most likely to be found in the:
a)lower limbs
b) spleen
c) kidney
d)small intestine
e)to the heart

A

D

125
Q

A reversible change in which a mature cell type replaces another mature cell type is called:
a)metaplasia
b)hypoplasia
c)atrophy
d)hyperplasia

A

A

126
Q

The features of chronic peptic ulcer disease are:
a)malignant changes can occur in the stomach
b)often malignant in the duodenum
c)sga to muscularis mucosae
d)extends beyond the muscularis mucosae
e)granulation tissue and connective tissue at the bottom

A

A, D, E

127
Q

Chron’s disease is characterised by:
a)other organs besides the gastrointestinal tract may be affected
b)affects the gastrointestinal tract diffusely
c)affects the entire wall of the intestine
d)affects the gastrointestinal tract segmentally
e)affects only the mucosa

A

A, C, D

128
Q

Karyolysis means:
a)cytoplasmic membrane disintegration
b)mitochondrial swelling and disintegration
c)dissolution of the cell nucleus
d)dissolution of the cell cytoplasm
e)mitochondrial membrane disintegration

A

C

129
Q

In a patient with chronic tuberculosis, deposition of homogeneous eosinophilic acellular material in the kidney was detected, showing greenish birefringence in the polarising microscope. The eosinophilic material is:
a)amyloid
b)anthracotic pigment
c)bilirubin
d)hyaline
(e) ceroid

A

A

130
Q

Which statement best defines inflammation?
a)microcirculatory reaction to injury
b)a form of abnormal cell proliferation
c)form of oedema
d)cell changes resulting in tissue damage
e)leucocyte chemotaxis due to bacterial infection

A

A

131
Q

Barrett’s oesophaguspresents:
a) congenital anomaly
b) increased risk of squamous cell carcinoma
c) a consequence of chronic gastrooesophageal reflux
d) increased risk of diverticulosis
e) a consequence of sideropenic anaemia

A

C

132
Q

Numerous small oval nuclei arranged in a horseshoe or wreath shape along the cell membrane are characteristic of:
a)Langhans’ giants
b)Langerhans’ giants
c)Tujkov’s giants
d)Reed-Sternberg giants
e)Lacunar giants

A

A

133
Q

The hallmarks of immunodiscretionary amyloidosis are:
a) develops in association with proliferation of B lymphocytes
b) develops in association with various chronic diseases
c) amyloid is built from the AL protein
d) amyloid in tissues is demonstrated by Congo red staining
e) Amyloid is built from the AA protein.

A

A, C, D

134
Q

Passive hyperemia (congestion):
a) is a common pathological process in the liver and spleen
b) caused by sympathetic neurogenic stimulation
c) is always a systemic disease process
d) occurs in the lungs in left ventricular decompensation
e) is often associated with local oedema

A

A, D, E

135
Q

Systemic thromboembolism is characterised by
a) thrombi originate in the deep veins of the legs
b) thrombi most often occlude coronary atria (?) NO
c) causes haemorrhagic infarction of the lungs
d) can cause stroke
e) the origin of the thrombus is in the sphenoid vein of the magna (?)

A

D

136
Q

Why inflammation causes pain
a) kinins
b) cytokines
c) histamine
d) serotonin

A

kinins (bradichinina)

ANAPAT (3 decks)

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