terms to know Flashcards

1
Q

what are the different kinds of anti - inflammatory diets?

A
  • mediterranean diet
  • DASH = dietary approaches to stop hypertension
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2
Q

what do anti-inflammatory diets have in them?

A
  • antioxidant foods rich in carotenes, vit C, E & selenium
  • food rich in zinc, popper, iron, and manganese to protect against free radical damage
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3
Q

define dysphagia

A

chewing or swallowing difficulty
- thickening agents are helpful

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4
Q

what are the 3 stages of swallowing?

A
  • oral preparation & transit
  • pharyngeal transit
  • esophageal transit
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5
Q

what are 3 conditions that cause dysphagia?

A
  • huntingtins
  • dementia
  • esophageal cancer
  • parking disease
  • stroke
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6
Q

what are the warning signs of dysphagia?

A
  • pain while swallowing
  • drooling
  • pocketing
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7
Q

what are the nutrition therapy for dysphagia?

A
  • screening for risk factors
  • Videofluoroscopy = used to find level of consistency tolerated by patient
  • individual diet to person
  • food served in form tat fits the specific needs of pt
  • use thickening agents
  • speech therapist: can teach compensatory techniques
  • safe eating position: upright
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8
Q

what are swallowing aids for pt with dysphagia?

A
  • encourage pt to think/talk about food before meals
    • can help stimulate the flow of saliva
    • aids in formation of bolus
  • tart or sour foods = stimulate saliva production
  • have pt lick jelly from lips, pucker, hum or whistle (helps strengthen mouth)
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9
Q

what is a hiatal hernia?

A
  • condition where the stomach bulges upward through the diaphragm
  • experience respiratory symptoms such as pneumonitis, chronic bronchitis & asthma
  • avoid foods high in fat
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10
Q

define peptic ulcer disease

A
  • break or ulceration in protective mucosal lining of the lower esophagus, stomach or duodenum
  • can be superficial or deep
  • caused by anti - inflammatory drugs
  • eliminate foods that damage to lining
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11
Q

define dumping syndrome?

A
  • caused by partial or total gastrectomy or removal of pyloric sphincter
  • symptoms related to rapid gastric emptying & distension of upper small intestine
  • symptoms = fullness, cramps, nausea, diarrhea, tacy, postural, hypotension, sweating, weakness, fainting (10 20 min after meal)
  • late phase = hypoglycemia, perspiration, hunger, nausea, anxiety, tremors (1 - 3)
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12
Q

what are the nutrition therapy techniques of dumping syndrome

A
  • liquids consumed between melas rather then with meals
  • protein, fat & complex carbs are better tolerated than simple carbs
  • evaluate older pt who experience dumping syndrome, may have iron deficiencies, b 12, protein, & vit D
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13
Q

what is the MNT for post gastric surgery?

A
  • NPO till GI function returns
  • liquids advanced as tolerated
  • small, frequence meals
  • liquids and solids consumed separately
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14
Q

define causing factor of diarrhea?

A
  • passing of loose watery bowl that result when contents of GI tract move too quickly to allow water to be reabsorbed in the colon
  • acute diarrhea is short and due to meds, or changes in dietary habits
  • chronic = longer than 4 weeks, result of GI irritation or malabsorption
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15
Q

define celiac disease

A
  • chronic disease that damages mucosa of small intestine = reduced absorptive area
  • intestinal damage caused by gliadin, the protein fraction of gluten
  • symptoms = diarrhea, abdominal distension, fat, malabsorption, weight loss
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16
Q

what is the nutritional therapy?

A
  • removal of gluten from diet
  • lifelong avoidance of gluten
  • can have osteoporosis & blood coagulation issues
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17
Q
A
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17
Q

define lactose intolerance

A
  • most common disaccharidase disorder (can’t have lactase)
  • symptoms = abdominal cramping, bloating, diarrhea
  • severity depends on amount of lactose ingested & degree of intolerance one has
  • can be secondary to acute or chronic disease
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18
Q

define IBS

A
  • functional GI disorder involving disturbances between brain & gut
  • common = food allergies, lactose maldigestion, nonceliac wheat
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19
Q

what is the treatment of IBS?

A
  • depends on person
  • lactose, gluten or sugar ma be eliminated
  • low FODMAP = fermentable oligosaccharides,
    disaccharides, monosaccharides, and polyols) is now accepted as a strategy
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20
Q

what is inflammatory bowel disease? IBD

A
  • nuclides chronic ulcerative colitis (UC) and
    Crohn’s disease
  • symptoms = abdominal pain, diarrhea, intestinal bleeding, protein loss
  • includes nutritional depletion (replace)
21
Q

what nutrition therapy should be used for IBD?

A
  • high cal & protein diet divided into small frequent meals
  • during remission, high fiber
22
Q

define hepatitis

A
  • inflammation of liver caused by infections, mononucleosis, cirrhosis, toxic chemicals, viral infection
  • 5 types
23
Q

define hepatitis A?

A
  • transmitted by fecal oral route, often caused by poor handwashing or stool precautions; common in areas of poor sanitation
  • vaccine recommended
  • rapid onset = 4 to 6 weeks
24
Q

define hepatitis B

A
  • transmitted through contaminated blood & sexual contact
  • routine vaccination
  • onset slow = 12 weeks
  • no alcohol
25
Q

define hepatitis C

A
  • transmitted through blood, saliva, or semen
  • onset slow: approximately 8 weeks
  • progression from hep c virus to cirrhosis of liver
26
Q

define hepatitis D

A
  • happens only if PT has hep B and is exposed to hep D
  • risk factor = intravenous drug use
27
Q

what Nutrional therapy should be used for nutritional therapy

A
  • liquid diet, processing small, frequent feedings high in cals & protein
  • carbs = 40% of cals
  • limit fats
  • more fluids
  • take vitamins
28
Q

what is nonalcoholic fatty liver disease?

A
  • build up of extra fat in the liver that is not caused by alcohol
  • develops in PT who are overweight, obese, have DM, high cholesterol, poor eating habits,
29
Q

define nonalcoholic steatepatitis

A
  • most severe form of NAFLD
  • Fatigue, weakness, weight loss, anorexia,
    spider-like blood vessels, jaundice, itching,
    edema, or mental confusion
30
Q

MNT for fatty liver disease?

A
  • Weight loss for overweight and obese individuals
  • Meal patterning to improve glycemic control and
    CVD risk factors
  • Limit intake of total fat and fructose
  • Prebiotics/probiotics may be beneficial
  • Eliminate alcohol
  • Increase physical activity
  • Other: eliminate the offensive agent if possible
31
Q

define cirrhosis

A
  • Buildup of fibrous connective tissue as result of alcohol abuse; hepatitis; biliary disorders; chronic autoimmune disease; metabolic disorders; or chronic use of hepatotoxic drugs
32
Q

what are the complications of cirrhosus

A
  • Portal hypertension: increased pressure in portal vein
    ➢ Esophageal varices: if ruptured, may be fatal
33
Q

what is the MNT for cirrhosis?

A
  • restrict sodium & fluids (track)
  • more intake of vitamins
34
Q

what are the basic screening of nutrition for nurses?

A
  • decreased appetite
  • unintentional weight loss
  • age and medical history
  • hydration status and illness severity
35
Q

what does a registered dietitian do?

A
  • nutrition care process
  • detailed nutrition assessments
  • nutrition diagnosis
36
Q

what does a dietetic technician do?

A
  • take diet histories
  • collect info for nutrition screening & assessment
  • work directly w. pt who have meal issues
  • provide basic nutrition education
  • should not be asked to counsel pt about mods for complex disease
37
Q

define nutritional risk

A
  • risk to become malnourished
38
Q

what are the outcomes of malnurition?

A
  • poor wound healing
  • longer lengths of stay / decline in overall health
  • loss of appetite, depression, or alterations in taste & smell
39
Q

when does a nutrition screening need to be done for a hospital admin?

A
  • 24 hours
  • consists of nutrition assessment, diagnosis, intervention, monitoring, and evaluation
40
Q

what is the typical data taken for nutrition screening?

A
  • food intake
  • weight loss
  • mobility
  • neuro psych problems
  • BMI
41
Q

what is a clear liquid diet?

A
  • foods that are clear and liquid at room temp
  • inadequate in energy in all nutrients (but H2o)
  • should not be used for more than 8 - 24 hrs
  • ex: chicken broth, plain gelatin, ice chips, apple juice
42
Q

what is a full liquid diet?

A
  • foods that are liquid at room temp
  • often prescribed if pt have issues chewing or swallowing solids
  • can supply adequate energy and nutrients
43
Q

what are the 4 levels of dysphagia

A

Level 1 Dysphagia Pureed (no lumps/bumps)
➢ Level 2 Dysphagia Mechanically Altered
➢ Level 3 Dysphagia Advanced
➢ Level 4 Return to regular die

44
Q

define enteral nutrition

A

pt not bale to eat orally for more than few days
- tube feeding

45
Q

define standard - intact formula?

A
  • require a normally functioning GI tract
  • no special requirements
  • blendarized food, milk based, high cals, lactose free
46
Q

what are the 3 special formulas?

A

Elemental formulas (predigested or hydrolyzed): composed of partially or fully hydrolyzed nutrients
➢ Modular formulas: single macronutrients added to other foods or enteral products
➢ Specialty formulas: designed to meet specialized nutrient demands for specific disease states

47
Q

what are the feeding tube routes?

A
  1. Nasogastric: tube is passed through nose to stomach.
  2. Nasoduodenal: tube is passed from nose to duodenum (small intestine).
  3. Nasojejunal: tube is passed through nose to jejunum
    (small intestine).
  4. Esophagostomy: tube is surgically inserted into neck and
    extends to stomach.
  5. Gastrostomy: tube is surgically inserted into stomach.
  6. Jejunostomy: tube is surgically inserted into small
    intestine.
48
Q

what is continuous vs intermittent feeding?

A
  • continuous: feeds can be administered at consistent rate over 24 hours
  • intermittent: feeds can be administered by gravity over 30 - 90 min (4 to 6 hrs)