Terms R-Z 2023 Flashcards

Glossary of Terms - Updated Feb 2023

1
Q

RACI Chart

A

Stands for Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, and Informed. A common type of responsibility assignment matrix (RAM) that uses responsible, accountable, consult, and inform statuses to define the involvement of stakeholders in project activities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Recognition

A

A more personalized, intangible, and experiential event that focuses on behavior rather than outcome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Refactoring

A

Refers to software development. Improving the design of the code so that it is easier to test, debug, and maintain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Referent Power

A

Refers to establishing trust, respect, and credibility with people in work or personal life contexts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Regulations

A

Requirements imposed by a governmental body. These requirements can establish product, process, or service characteristics, including applicable administrative provisions that have government-mandated compliance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Relative Authority

A

The project manager’s authority relative to the functional manager’s authority over the project and the project team.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Relative Estimating

A

Also called sizing. The process of estimating stories or backlog tasks in relation to each other instead of in units of time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Release Plan

A

The plan that sets expectations for the dates, features, and/or outcomes a project expects to deliver over the course of several iterations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Release Planning

A

The process of identifying a high-level plan for releasing or transitioning a product, deliverable, or increment of value to the customer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Reports

A

A formal record or summary of information.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Request for Information (RFI)

A

A type of procurement document whereby the buyer requests a potential seller to provide various pieces of information related to a product or service or seller capability.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Request for Proposal (RFP)

A

A type of procurement document used to request proposals from prospective sellers of products or services. In some application areas, it may have a narrower or more specific meaning.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Request for Quotation (RFQ)

A

A type of procurement document used to request price quotations from prospective sellers of common or standard products or services. Sometimes used in place of request for proposal and, in some application areas, it may have a narrower or more specific meaning.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Requirement

A

A measurable condition or capability that must be present in a product, service, or result to satisfy a business need.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Requirements Documentation

A

A description of how individual requirements meet the business need for the project.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Requirements Management Plan

A

A component of the project or program management plan that describes how requirements will be analyzed, documented, and managed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Requirements Traceability Matrix

A

A grid that links product requirements from their origin to the deliverables that satisfy them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Reserve

A

A provision in the project management plan to mitigate cost and/or schedule risk, often used with a modifier (e.g., management reserve, contingency reserve) to provide further detail on what types of risks are meant to be mitigated. See also ‘Buffer’.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Reserve Analysis

A

A method used to evaluate the amount of risk on the project and the amount of schedule and budget reserve to determine whether the reserve is sufficient for the remaining risk.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Residual Risk

A

The risk that remains after risk responses have been implemented.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Resource

A

A skilled individual or team, equipment, services, supplies, commodities, materials, budgets, or funds required to accomplish the defined work.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Resource Breakdown Structure

A

A hierarchical representation of resources by category and type.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Resource Calendar

A

A calendar that identifies the working days and shifts for which each specific resource is available.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Resource Histogram

A

A bar chart that represents when a resource will be needed in the project.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Resource Levelling

A

A resource optimization technique in which adjustments are made to the project schedule to optimize the allocation of resources and which may affect the critical path.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Resource Management Plan

A

A component of the project management plan that describes how project resources are acquired, allocated, monitored, and controlled.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Resource Optimization Techniques

A

A technique in which activity start and finish dates are adjusted to balance demand for resources with the available supply. See also ‘Resource Levelling’ and ‘Resource Smoothing’.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Resource requirements

A

The types and quantities of resources required for each activity in a work package.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Resource Smoothing

A

A resource optimization technique in which free and total float are used without affecting the critical path. See also ‘Resource Levelling’ and ‘Resource Optimization Technique’.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM)

A

A grid that shows the project resources assigned to each work package.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Retrospective

A

Agile meeting held after the iteration/sprint/increment for the team to review the process and results to identify what went well and what can be done differently. Closely tied to continuous improvement. Process is the same as lessons learned.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Return on Investment (ROI)

A

A financial metric of profitability that measures the gain or loss from an investment relative to the amount of money invested.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Reward

A

A tangible, consumable item that is given to a person based on a specific outcome or an achievement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Reward and Recognition Plan

A

A formalized way to reinforce performance or behavior.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Rework

A

Action taken to bring a defective or nonconforming component into compliance with requirements or specifications.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Risk

A

An event or condition of uncertainty that, if it occurs, has a positive or negative effect on one or more project objectives.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Risk Acceptance

A

A risk response strategy whereby the project team decides to acknowledge the risk and not take any action unless the risk occurs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Risk Appetite

A

The degree of uncertainty an organization or individual is willing to accept in anticipation of a reward.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Risk Avoidance

A

A risk response strategy whereby the project team acts to eliminate the threat or protect the project from its impact.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Risk Breakdown Structure

A

A hierarchical representation of potential sources of risk.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Risk Breakdown Structure (RBS)

A

A hierarchical representation of potential sources of risk.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Risk Categorization

A

Organization by sources of risk (e.g., using the RBS), the area of the project affected (e.g., using the WBS), or other useful category (e.g., project phase) to determine the areas of the project most exposed to the effects of uncertainty.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Risk Category

A

A group of potential causes of risk.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Risk Enhancement

A

A risk response strategy whereby the project team acts to increase the probability of occurrence or impact of an opportunity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Risk Exploiting

A

A risk response strategy whereby the project team acts to ensure that an opportunity occurs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Risk Exposure

A

An aggregate measure of the potential impact of all risks at any given point in time in a project, program, or portfolio.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Risk Impact

A

The likely effect on project objectives if a risk event occurs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Risk Management Plan

A

A component of the project, program, or portfolio management plan that describes how risk management activities will be structured and performed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Risk Mitigation

A

A risk response strategy whereby the project team acts to decrease the probability of occurrence or impact of a threat.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Risk Owner

A

The person responsible for monitoring the risk and for selecting and implementing an appropriate risk response strategy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Risk Probability

A

The likelihood that a risk event will occur or prove true during the project.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Risk Register

A

A repository in which outputs of risk management processes are recorded. As the central planning document for project risk analysis and control, the risk register contains a list of the most important risks to the project’s completion. For each risk, it identifies the likelihood of occurrence, the impact to the project, the priority, and the applicable response plans.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Risk Response Plan

A

This plan involves reducing and eliminating risks and their potential impacts through appropriate mitigation techniques.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Risk Sharing

A

A risk response strategy whereby the project team allocates ownership of an opportunity to a third party who is best able to capture the benefit for the project.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Risk Threshold

A

The level of risk exposure above which risks are addressed and below which risks may be accepted.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Risk Transference

A

A risk response strategy whereby the project team shifts the impact of a threat to a third party, together with ownership of the response.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Risk Workshop

A

A technique that uses a special meeting conducted for the purpose of identifying project risks. In addition to the project team members, this workshop might also include the project sponsor, SMEs, customer representatives, and other stakeholders, depending on the size of the project.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Role

A

Refers to a human-driven function in a work setting.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Rolling Wave Planning

A

An iterative planning technique in which the work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail, while the work in the future is planned at a higher level.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Root Cause Analysis

A

An analytical technique used to determine the basic underlying reason that causes a variance or a defect or a risk. A root cause may underlie more than one variance or defect or risk.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

SAFe® (Scaled Agile Framework)

A

A knowledge base of integrated patterns for enterprise-scale lean-agile development. A framework that implements Scrum at an enterprise level.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Salience Model

A

A classification model that groups stakeholders according to level of authority, immediate needs, and how appropriate their involvement is in terms of the project.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Schedule Baseline

A

The approved version of a schedule model that can be changed using formal change control procedures and is used as the basis of comparison to actual results. It is one of the main project documents that should be created before the project starts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Schedule Compression

A

A method used to shorten the schedule duration without reducing the project scope.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Schedule Forecast

A

Estimates or predictions of conditions and events in the project’s future based on information and knowledge available at the time the schedule is calculated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Schedule Management Plan

A

A component of the project or program management plan that establishes the criteria and the activities for developing, monitoring, and controlling the schedule.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Schedule Performance Index (SPI)

A

A measure of schedule efficiency, expressed as the ratio of earned value to planned value.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Schedule Variance (SV)

A

A measure of schedule performance is expressed as the difference between the earned value and the planned value.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Scope Baseline

A

The approved version of a scope statement, Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) and its associated WBS dictionary can be changed using formal change control procedures and is used as a basis for comparison to actual results.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Scope Creep

A

The uncontrolled expansion of project scope without adjustments to time, cost, and resources.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Scope Management Plan

A

A component of the project or program management plan that describes how the scope will be defined, developed, monitored, controlled, and validated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Scope Statement

A

Details about project deliverables and the major objectives of a project, including measurable outcomes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Scrum

A

An agile framework for developing and sustaining complex products, with specific roles, events, and artifacts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Scrum Master

A

The coach of the development team and process owner in the Scrum framework. Removes obstacles, facilitates productive events, and protects the team from disruptions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Scrum of Scrums (SoS)

A

A technique to operate Scrum at scale for several teams working on the same product, coordinating discussions of progress on their interdependencies, and focusing on how to integrate the delivery of software, especially in areas of overlap.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Scrum Team

A

Dedicated, self-managing, cross-functional, fully empowered individuals who deliver the finished work required by the customer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Secondary Risk

A

A risk that arises as a direct result of implementing a risk response.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Self-Organizing Team

A

A cross-functional team in which people fluidly assume leadership as needed to achieve the team’s objectives. See also ‘cross-functional team.’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Sensitivity Analysis

A

An analysis technique to determine which individual project risks or other sources of uncertainty have the most potential impact on project outcomes, by correlating variations in project outcomes with variations in elements of a quantitative risk analysis model.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Sequential Relationships

A

Refers to a consecutive relationship between phases; phases occur in procession and without overlap.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Servant Leadership

A

The practice of leading the team by focusing on understanding and addressing the needs and development of team members in order to enable the highest possible team performance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Service-Level Agreement (SLA)

A

A contract between a service provider (either internal or external) and the end user that defines the level of service expected from the service provider.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Share

A

A strategy for managing positive risks or opportunities that involves allocating some or all the ownership of the opportunity to a third party.

84
Q

Silo

A

See ‘Organizational Silo’.

85
Q

Simulation

A

An analytical technique that models the combined effect of uncertainties to evaluate their potential impact on objectives.

86
Q

Six Sigma

A

See ‘Lean Six Sigma’.

87
Q

Skills List

A

The skills list provides details of all the skills the team possesses. This includes interpersonal skills needed to establish and maintain relationships with other people. Some of the skills may be irrelevant to the project team, while some are highly relevant to project goals.

88
Q

Slack

A

Used in the critical path method. Amount of time that a task can be delayed without affecting the deadlines of other subsequent tasks.

89
Q

Smoothing

A

See ‘Resource Smoothing’.

90
Q

SoS

A

See ‘Scrum of Scrums’.

91
Q

Source Selection Criteria

A

A set of attributes, desired by the buyer, which a seller is required to meet or exceed to be selected for a contract.

92
Q

Source-Based Risk Classification

A

A method of analyzing risk in terms of its origins.

93
Q

Special Cause

A

Refers to a system in project management. Also called an assignable cause. Any factor or factors which may affect a system either in progress or outcome. See also ‘Common Cause’.

94
Q

Special Interval

A

A period during a project when normal work may be suspended for some or all team members. See also ‘Hardening Iteration/Iteration H’

95
Q

Spike

A

An agile term emerging from Extreme Programming (XP). Refers to timeboxed work for the purpose of answering a question or gathering information, rather than producing a viable product.

96
Q

Sprint

A

Used in Scrum. A short time interval during which a usable and potentially releasable increment of the product is created. See also ‘Iteration’.

97
Q

Sprint Backlog

A

A list of work items identified by the Scrum team to be completed during the Scrum sprint.

98
Q

Sprint Planning

A

A collaborative event in Scrum in which the Scrum team plans the work for the current sprint.

99
Q

Sprint Retrospective

A

This critical part of the Scrum process is attended by the product owner, Scrum Master, and the Scrum team to analyze from a process perspective what is working well and what is not and to agree upon changes to implement.

100
Q

Sprint Review

A

A review at the end of each iteration with the product owner and other customer stakeholders to review the progress of the product, get early feedback, and review an acceptance from the product owner of the stories delivered in the iteration. See also ‘Demo’.

101
Q

Sprint Velocity

A

A descriptive metric used by agile and hybrid teams. It describes the volume of work that a team performs during a sprint. Use this metric to understand the rate of your team’s work during an average sprint.

102
Q

Stakeholder

A

An individual, group, or organization that may affect, be affected by, or perceive itself to be affected by a decision, activity, or outcome of a project, program, or portfolio.

103
Q

Stakeholder Analysis

A

A technique of systematically gathering and analyzing quantitative and qualitative information to determine whose interests should be considered throughout the project.

104
Q

Stakeholder Cube

A

A three-dimensional classification model that builds on the previous two-dimensional grids to group stakeholders.

105
Q

Stakeholder Engagement Assessment Matrix

A

A matrix that compares current and desired stakeholder engagement levels.

106
Q

Stakeholder Engagement Plan

A

A component of the project management plan that identifies the strategies and actions required to promote productive involvement of stakeholders in project or program decision-making and execution. Used to understand stakeholder communication requirements and the level of stakeholder engagement in order to assess and adapt to the level of stakeholder participation in requirements activities.

107
Q

Stakeholder Register

A

A project document including the identification, assessment, and classification of project stakeholders.

108
Q

Standard

A

A document established by an authority, custom or general consent as a model or example.

109
Q

Standard Deviation (SD)

A

Statistical concept that gives a measure of the duration uncertainty and risk in project time estimation. SD represented by the Greek letter sigma (σ). A low value for the SD indicates that that data points are close to the mean or the expected value of the set, while a high value indicates that the data points are spread out over a wider range.

110
Q

Start-to-Finish (SF)

A

A logical relationship in which a predecessor activity cannot finish until a successor activity has started.

111
Q

Start-to-Start (SS)

A

A logical relationship in which a successor activity cannot start until a predecessor activity has started.

112
Q

Statement of Work (SoW)

A

A document used to describe project work. The SoW identifies requirements, deliverables, scope, project details, and timelines for delivery.

113
Q

Statistical Sampling

A

Choosing part of a population of interest for inspection. Used when more thorough data analysis methods are not suitable.

114
Q

Statistical Sampling Process

A

A process that involves dividing sampling data into two categories—attribute and variable— each of which is gathered according to sampling plans. As corrective actions are taken in response to analysis of statistical sampling and other quality control activities, and as trend analysis is performed, defects and process variability should be reduced.

115
Q

Strategic Plan

A

A high-level business document that explains an organization’s vision and mission plus the approach that will be adopted to achieve this mission and vision, including the specific goals and objectives to be achieved during the period covered by the document.

116
Q

Story

A

Describes the smallest unit of work in an agile framework. An informal, general explanation of a product, service, or software feature written from the end-user’s perspective. Its purpose is to articulate how the feature will provide value to the customer. See also ‘User Story’.

117
Q

Story Card

A

One unit of delivery for an agile team.

118
Q

Story Map

A

A visual model of all the features and functionality desired for a given product, created to give the team a holistic view of what they are building and why.

119
Q

Story Points

A

Used in agile practice to estimate the amount of time it will take to complete a story item from the project backlog.

120
Q

Storyboarding

A

The prototyping method that uses visuals or images to illustrate a process or represent a project outcome. Storyboards are useful to illustrate how a product, service, or application will function or operate when it is complete.

121
Q

Supportive PMO

A

The type of PMO that provides a consultative role to projects by supplying templates, best practices, training, access to information, and lessons learned from other projects.

122
Q

Sustainability

A

The planning, monitoring, and controlling of project delivery and support processes with consideration to environmental, economic, and social aspects of project-based working to meet the current needs of the stakeholders without compromising future generations.

123
Q

Swarming

A

Act of all development team members working on only one requirement at a time during the sprint. Team members focus collectively to resolve a specific problem.

124
Q

SWOT Analysis

A

A grid used to assess the strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats of an organization, project, or option.

125
Q

System

A

The rules, processes, procedures, people, and other elements that support an outcome or process. A project can have one or many systems, for example, work authorization system, change control system, information system, etc.

126
Q

System Development Life Cycle (SDLC)

A

Typically used with software development projects, SDLC depicts the group of phases which encompass the entire project life cycle from start to finish. How the project is executed is defined by the methodology—waterfall, agile, iterative, incremental, etc.

127
Q

Tacit Knowledge

A

Personal knowledge that can be difficult to articulate and share such as beliefs, experience, and insights.

128
Q

Tailoring

A

The mindful selection and adjustment of multiple factors. Determining the appropriate combination of processes, inputs, tools, techniques, outputs, and life cycle phases to manage a project.

129
Q

Task

A

An activity to be accomplished with a specific purpose within a defined period of time. See also ‘Activity’.

130
Q

Task Board

A

Used to visualize the work and enable the team and stakeholders to track their progress as work is performed during an iteration. Examples of task boards include Kanban boards, to-do lists, procedure checklists, and Scrum boards.

131
Q

Team

A

Group of people responsible for executing project tasks and producing deliverables outlined in the project plan and schedule.

132
Q

Team Building

A

The process of continually supporting and working collaboratively with team members to enable a team to work together to solve problems, diffuse interpersonal issues, share information, and tackle project objectives as a unified force.

133
Q

Team Charter

A

A document that records the team values, agreements, and operating guidelines as well as establishes clear expectations regarding acceptable behavior by project team members.

134
Q

Team Management Plan

A

A component of the resource management plan that describes when and how team members will be acquired and how long they will be needed.

135
Q

Team Resource Management

A

The processes necessary to organize, manage, and lead the people on the project team as well as the processes needed to procure and manage physical resources for a project.

136
Q

Team-Building Activities

A

The specific functions or actions taken to help the team to develop into a mature, productive team. They can be formal or informal, brief, or extended, and facilitated by the project manager or a group facilitator.

137
Q

Teaming Agreement

A

A legal contractual agreement between two or more parties to form a joint venture or any other arrangement as defined by the parties to meet the requirements of a business opportunity. The parties can be internal or external to the organization executing the project.

138
Q

Technique

A

See ‘Tool’.

139
Q

Template

A

A partially complete document in a predefined format that provides a defined structure for collecting, organizing, and presenting information and data.

140
Q

Term Contract

A

A type of contract that engages the vendor to deliver a set amount of service— measured in staff-hours or a similar unit—over a set period of time.

141
Q

Test-Driven Development (TDD)/Test-First Development

A

Derived from a software development practice, TDD helps in the design process by using repeated short development cycles. First the developer writes an (initially failing) automated test case that defines a desired improvement or new function. The team then produces the minimum amount of code to pass that test before finally refactoring the new code to acceptable standards.

142
Q

Theme

A

Agile term. Refers to groupings of epics or stories.

143
Q

Theory X

A

Refers to Theory X by Douglas McGregor which proposes that managers micro-manage their employees or team members because they assume their workers are unmotivated and dislike work. See also ‘Theory Y’.

144
Q

Theory Y

A

Refers to Theory Y by Douglas McGregor which proposes that managers have an optimistic and positive opinion of their employees or team members, so this type of manager encourages a more collaborative, trust-based relationship between employees. See also ‘Theory X’.

145
Q

Threat

A

A risk that would have a negative effect on one or more project objectives.

146
Q

Three-Point Estimating

A

A technique used to estimate cost or duration by applying an average or weighted average of optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely estimates when there is uncertainty with the individual activity estimates. Also called ‘triangular estimating’.

147
Q

Threshold

A

A predetermined value of a measurable project variable that represents a limit that requires action to be taken if it is reached.

148
Q

Throughput

A

A key agile metric used to determine how many finished work items a process produces over a given time frame.

149
Q

Time and Material (T&M) Contract

A

A type of contract that is a hybrid contractual arrangement containing aspects of both cost-reimbursable and fixed-price contracts.

150
Q

Timebox

A

A fixed period of time to provide duration limits for an activity, a piece of work, or a meeting—for example, 1 week, 2 weeks, 3 weeks, or 1 month.

151
Q

To Complete Performance Index (TCPI)

A

The estimate of the future cost performance that may be needed to complete the project within the approved budget.

152
Q

Tolerance

A

The quantified description of acceptable variation for a quality, risk, budget, or other project requirement.

153
Q

Tool

A

The applied function, action, procedure, or routine defined for a process to produce the desired output.

154
Q

Tornado Diagram.

A

A special type of bar chart used in sensitivity analysis for comparing the relative importance of the variables.

155
Q

Total Float

A

The amount of time that a schedule activity can be delayed or extended from its early start date without delaying the project finish date or violating a schedule constraint.

156
Q

Total Quality Management (TQM)

A

An approach to improve business results through an emphasis on customer satisfaction, employee development, and processes rather than on functions.

157
Q

Training

A

An activity in which team members acquire new or enhanced skills, knowledge, or attitudes.

158
Q

Transfer

A

A strategy for managing negative risks or threats that involves shifting the impact and ownership of the risk to a third party and paying a risk premium to the party taking on the liability of the risk.

159
Q

Transparency

A

One of the three pillars of empirical process (transparency, inspection, and adaptability) that promotes real-time, accurate progress on every aspect of the project. See also ‘Visibility’.

160
Q

Trend Analysis

A

An analytical technique that uses mathematical models to forecast future outcomes based on historical results.

161
Q

Trigger Condition

A

An event or situation that indicates that a risk is about to occur.

162
Q

Triple Constraint

A

Refers to the factors of time, cost, and scope which can be adjusted when managing projects. Often called the project management triangle.

163
Q

T-Shaped

A

Refers to a person whose skill set comprises one area of specialization and broad ability in other skills required by the team.

164
Q

Unanimity

A

Agreement by everyone in the group on a single course of action.

165
Q

Unique Identification Code

A

A specific configuration of a code of accounts that assigns a particular alphanumeric sequence of characters to each element of a WBS.

166
Q

User Story

A

An informal, general explanation of a product, service, or software feature written from the perspective of the end user. Its purpose is to articulate how the feature will provide value to the customer. See also ‘Story’.

167
Q

Validate Scope

A

The process of formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables.

168
Q

Validation

A

The assurance that a product, service, or result meets the needs of the customer and other identified stakeholders. See also ‘Verification’.

169
Q

Value

A

The worth that a project delivers to the business.

170
Q

Value Analysis

A

The process of examining each of the components of business value and understanding the cost of each one. The goal is to cost effectively improve the components to increase the overall business value.

171
Q

Value Delivery System

A

The combined and systematic effort by leadership, portfolio, and program and project management to create value in and for an organization.

172
Q

Value Engineering

A

Systematic, organized approach to providing necessary functions in a project at the lowest cost.

173
Q

Value Stream

A

An organizational construct that focuses on the flow of value to customers through the delivery of specific products or services.

174
Q

Value Stream Mapping

A

A Lean enterprise technique used to document, analyze, and improve the flow of information or materials required to produce a product or service for a customer.

175
Q

Variability Control Charts

A

Used to analyze and communicate the variability of a process or project activity over time. See also ‘Control Charts’.

176
Q

Variable Sampling Data

A

Data from a sample that is measured on a continuous scale such as time, temperature, or weight.

177
Q

Variance

A

A quantifiable deviation, departure, or divergence away from a known baseline or expected value.

178
Q

Variance Analysis

A

A technique for determining the cause and degree of difference between the baseline and the actual performance.

179
Q

Variance at Completion (VAC)

A

A formula that measures a project’s actual cost, compared with the budgeted amount. It is the difference from the budget at completion (BAC) and the estimate at completion (EAC). The formula is VAC = BAC – EAC.

180
Q

Velocity

A

A measure of a team’s productivity rate at which the deliverables are produced, validated, and accepted within a predefined interval.

181
Q

Vendor Bid Analysis

A

A cost estimation technique used to understand what a product/service should cost.

182
Q

Verification

A

The evaluation of whether a product, service, or result complies with a regulation, requirement, specification, or imposed condition. See also ‘Validation’.

183
Q

Verified Deliverable

A

Deliverables that have been compared to the scope/requirements and specifications to ensure they are correct.

184
Q

Version Control

A

A system that records changes to a file, in a way that allows users to retrieve previous changes made to it.

185
Q

Virtual Team

A

A group of people with a shared goal who fulfill their roles with little or no time spent meeting face-to-face.

186
Q

Visibility

A

See ‘Transparency’.

187
Q

Vision Statement

A

A stated direction for the project established and communicated by the project sponsor.

188
Q

Waiver

A

A legally binding provision in which one party in a contract agrees to forfeit a claim without the other party becoming liable, even inadvertently.

189
Q

War Room

A

Refers to a physical space where project team members and stakeholders plan strategy and run a project.

190
Q

Warranty

A

A promise, explicit or implied, that goods or services will meet a predetermined standard. Usually limited to a specific period of time.

191
Q

Waterfall

A

An informal name for predictive project management approach. This term is no longer used by PMI. See ‘Predictive Life Cycle’.

192
Q

WBS Dictionary

A

A document that provides detailed deliverable, activity, and scheduling information about each component in the work breakdown structure (WBS).

193
Q

What-If Scenario

A

Used in the Develop Schedule process, this technique evaluates different scenarios to predict their effects–both positive and negative–on the project objectives.

194
Q

Wideband Delphi Estimating

A

Consensus-based estimation technique for estimating effort.

195
Q

Wireframe

A

A non-functional interface design (not written in code) that shows the key elements and how they would interact to give the user an idea of how the system would function.

196
Q

Withdrawal

A

Refusal to deal with a conflict.

197
Q

Work Authorization System

A

Used to ensure that work gets performed at the right time, in the right sequence, and with the right resources. This can be formal or informal.

198
Q

Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)

A

A hierarchical decomposition of the total scope of work to be carried out by the project team to accomplish the project objectives and create the required deliverables.

199
Q

Work in Progress (WIP)

A

Work that has been started but not yet completed.

200
Q

Work Package

A

The work defined at the lowest level of the work breakdown structure (WBS) for which cost and duration are estimated and managed.

201
Q

Work Performance Data

A

The raw observations and measurements identified during activities being performed to carry out the project work. They can be recorded in the PMIS and project documents.

202
Q

Work Performance Information

A

The raw performance data collected from controlling processes, analyzed in comparison with project management plan components, project documents, and other work performance information.

203
Q

Work Performance Report

A

The physical or electronic representation of work performance information compiled in project documents, intended to generate decisions, actions, or awareness.

204
Q

Work Shadowing

A

An on-the-job technique that enables someone to learn about and perform a job while observing and working with another, more experienced person.

205
Q

Workaround

A

A suitable, unplanned alternative action used to complete work.

206
Q

Workflow

A

Carefully planned sequence of the tasks and activities that need to be done to complete the project.

207
Q

XP Metaphor

A

A common Extreme Programming (XP) technique that describes a common vision of how a program works.