Terms A-Q 2023

Question 1

5 Whys Method

Answer 1

An effective tool for root cause analysis in which the question ‘Why?’ is asked of a problem in succession until the root cause is found. Developed by Sakichi Toyoda, a Japanese inventor and industrialist, the 5 Whys method is an integral part of the Lean philosophy.

Question 2

80/20 Rule

Answer 2

A general guideline with many applications; in terms of controlling processes, it contends that a relatively large number of problems or defects, typically 80%, are commonly due to a relatively small number of causes, typically 20%. See also ‘Pareto Chart’.

Question 3

A/B Testing

Answer 3

A marketing approach used to determine user preferences by showing different sets of users’ similar services—an ‘Alpha’ and a ‘Beta’ version—with one independent variable.

Question 4

Accept

Answer 4

A strategy for managing negative risks or opportunities that involves acknowledging risk and not taking any action until the risk occurs.

Question 5

Acceptance Criteria

Answer 5

A set of conditions that is required to be met before deliverables are accepted.

Question 6

Accepted Deliverables

Answer 6

Deliverables that meet the acceptance criteria and have been formally signed off and approved by the customer or sponsor as part of the scope validation process.

Question 7

Active Listening

Answer 7

A communication technique that involves acknowledging the speaker’s message and the recipient clarifying the message to confirm that what was heard matches the message that the sender intended.

Question 8

Activity

Answer 8

A distinct portion of work, scheduled with a beginning and an end, that must be performed to complete work on the project. Also known as a schedule activity. See also ‘Task’.

Question 9

Activity Attributes

Answer 9

Multiple attributes associated with each activity that can be included within the activity list.

Question 10

Activity Cost Estimates

Answer 10

Each task is assigned a budget, and the aggregate of these estimates results in the project budget. Activity cost estimates include labor, materials, equipment, and fixed cost items like contractors, services, facilities, financing costs, etc. This information can be presented in a detailed or summarized form.

Question 11

Activity Dependency

Answer 11

A logical relationship that exists between two project activities. The relationship indicates whether the start of an activity is contingent upon an event or input from outside the activity.

Question 12

Activity Duration Estimates

Answer 12

The quantitative assessments of the likely number of time periods that are required to complete an activity.

Question 13

Activity List

Answer 13

A documented tabulation of schedule activities that shows the activity description, activity identifier, and a sufficiently detailed scope-of-work description so project team members understand what work is to be performed.

Question 14

Activity on Arrow or Activity on Node

Answer 14

A graphical diagram on which schedule activities are represented by nodes (rectangle boxes) and their dependencies are depicted by arrows.

Question 15

Activity Resource Estimates

Answer 15

Material and human resources that are needed to complete an activity; often expressed by a probability or range.

Question 16

Activity Resource Requirements

Answer 16

The resources (physical, human, and organizational) required to complete the activities in the activity list.

Question 17

Actual Cost (AC)

Answer 17

Earned Value Management term for the realized cost incurred for the work performed on an activity during a specific time.

Question 18

Adaptive

Answer 18

A type of project life cycle or methodology that values responding to change over following a set plan. Adaptive methodologies seek solutions that deliver maximum value to the customer.

Question 19

Administrative Closure

Answer 19

Involves verifying and documenting project results to formalize project or phase completion.

Question 20

Affinity Diagram

Answer 20

A technique that allows large numbers of ideas to be classified into groups for review and analysis.

Question 21

Affinity Estimating

Answer 21

Technique designed to rapidly estimate large stories (epics or features) in the backlog. For example: T-Shirt sizing, coffee cup sizes, or Fibonacci sequence.

Question 22

Agile

Answer 22

A term used to describe a mindset of values and principles as set forth in the Agile Manifesto. See also ‘Agile Life Cycle,’ Agile Manifesto,’ ‘Agile Practitioner,’ and ‘Agile Principles.’

Question 23

Agile Coach

Answer 23

A process role on a project team that helps organizations achieve true agility by coaching teams across the enterprise on how to apply agile practices and choose their best way of working. See also ‘scrum master.’

Question 24

Agile Estimating

Answer 24

An approach that assists with planning a project appropriately from the beginning to ensure the team can focus on the quality of each deliverable.

Question 25

Agile Life Cycle

Answer 25

An approach that is both iterative and incremental to refine work items and deliver frequently.

Question 26

Agile Manifesto

Answer 26

In 2001, a group of 17 software developers met in Snowbird, Utah to discuss lightweight software development. Based on their experience, they came up with the four core values of agile software development as stated by the Agile Manifesto are: individuals and interactions over processes and tools; working software over comprehensive documentation; customer collaboration over contract negotiation; and responding to change over following a plan.

Question 27

Agile Modeling

Answer 27

A representation of the workflow of a process or system that the team can review before it is implemented in code.

Question 28

Agile Practitioner

Answer 28

A person embracing the agile mindset who collaborates with like-minded colleagues in cross- functional teams. Also referred to as an agilist.

Question 29

Agile Principles

Answer 29

A set of 12 guidelines that support the Agile Manifesto and which practitioners and teams should internalize and act upon.
1. Customer satisfaction by early and continuous delivery of valuable software
2. Welcome changing requirements, even in late development
3. Deliver working software frequently (weeks rather than months)
4. Close, daily cooperation between business and technical people
5. Projects are built around motivated individuals, who should be trusted
6. Face-to-face conversation is the best form of communication (colocation)
7. Working software is the primary measure of progress
8. Sustainable development, able to maintain a constant pace
9. Continuous attention to technical excellence and good design
10. Simplicity is essential
11. Best architectures, requirements, and designs emerge from self-organizing teams
12. Regularly, the team reflects on how to become more effective, and adjusts accordingly

Question 30

Agile Release Planning

Answer 30

A process in which a team determines the number of iterations or Sprints that are needed to complete each release, the features that each iteration will contain, and the target dates of each release.

Question 31

Agile Space

Answer 31

Team space that encourages colocation, collaboration, communication, transparency, and visibility.

Question 32

Agreements

Answer 32

Any documents or communication that defines the initial intentions of a project. Examples include contracts, memorandums of understanding (MOUs), service-level agreements (SLAs), letters of agreement, letters of intent, verbal agreements, email, or other written agreements.

Question 33

Allowable Costs

Answer 33

Costs that are allowed under the terms of the contract. Typically, allowable costs become relevant under certain types of cost-reimbursable contracts in which the buyer reimburses the seller’s allowable costs.

Question 34

Analogous Estimating

Answer 34

A technique for estimating the duration or cost of an activity on a project using historical data from a similar activity or project. Also known as ‘Top-Down Estimating’.

Question 35

Analytical Techniques

Answer 35

Logical approach that looks at the relationship between outcomes and the factors that can influence them.

Question 36

Approved Change Requests

Answer 36

Change requests that have been reviewed and approved by the change control board (CCB) and are ready to be scheduled for implementation.

Question 37

Artifact

Answer 37

Any project management processes, inputs, tools, techniques, outputs, EEFs, and OPAs that the project management team uses on their specific project. They are subject to configuration management and are maintained and archived by the team.

Question 38

Assumption

Answer 38

Anything considered to be true while planning. Assumptions should be documented and validated and are often closely linked to constraints.

Question 39

Assumption and Constraint Analysis

Answer 39

A process that explores the validity of the project assumptions within the constraints and identifies risks from any incompleteness or inaccuracy of these project assumptions.

Question 40

Assumption Log

Answer 40

A list of all uncertainties that are treated as true for the purpose of planning.

Question 41

Attribute Sampling Data

Answer 41

Data that is counted such as the number of product defects or customer complaints.

Question 42

Audit

Answer 42

An examination of a project’s goals and achievements, including adequacy, accuracy, efficiency, effectiveness, and the project’s compliance with applicable methodologies and regulations. It tends to be a formal, one-sided process that can be extremely demoralizing to team members.

Question 43

Autocratic

Answer 43

A group decision-making method in which one member of the group makes the decision. In most cases, this person will consider the larger group’s ideas and decisions and will then make a decision based on that input.

Question 44

Avoid

Answer 44

A strategy for managing negative risks or threats that involves changing the project management plan to remove the risk entirely by extending the schedule, changing the strategy, increasing the funding, or reducing the scope.

Question 45

Backlog

Answer 45

The prioritized list of all the work, presented in story form, for a project team. See also ‘Iteration Backlog’.

Question 46

Backlog Refinement

Answer 46

The progressive elaboration of project requirements and/or the ongoing activity in which the team collaboratively reviews, updates, and writes requirements to satisfy the need of the customer request.

Question 47

Backward Pass

Answer 47

Technique for calculating the late start and late finish dates of the schedule activities. This is part of the critical path method and is paired with forward pass to determine activity and schedule float along with the critical path.

Question 48

Bar Chart

Answer 48

A graphic display of schedule-related information. In the typical bar chart, schedule activities or WBS components are listed down the left side of the chart, dates are shown across the top, and activity durations are shown as date-placed horizontal bars. See also ‘Gantt Chart’.

Question 49

Baseline

Answer 49

Original objectives plus approved change requests for scope, schedule, cost, and resources required to finish the project. Baselines represent the approved plan, and they are useful for measuring how actual results deviate from the plan.

Question 50

Benchmarking

Answer 50

The comparison of actual or planned products, processes, and practices to those of comparable organizations to identify best practices, generate ideas for improvement, and provide a basis for measuring performance.

Question 51

Benefit Cost Ratio (BCR)

Answer 51

The ratio of the expected benefits and the anticipated costs.

Question 52

Benefits Management Plan

Answer 52

The documented explanation defining the processes for creating, maximizing, and sustaining the benefits provided by a project or program. It also describes how and when the benefits of a project will be derived and measured. Both the business case and the benefits management plan are developed with the benefits owner prior to the project being initiated. Additionally, both documents are referenced after the project has been completed. Therefore, they are considered business documents rather than project documents or components of the project management plan.

Question 53

Bidder Conferences

Answer 53

The meetings with prospective sellers prior to the preparation of a bid or proposal to ensure all prospective vendors have a clear and common understanding of the procurement. Also called vendor conferences, pre-bid conferences, or contractor conferences.

Question 54

Bottom-Up Estimating

Answer 54

A method of estimating project duration or cost by aggregating the estimates of the lower-level components of the WBS.

Question 55

Brainstorming

Answer 55

A simple technique used to generate a list of ideas. It should be led by a facilitator with a group consisting of stakeholders, team members, and subject matter experts. After quickly generating a list of alternatives, the group then performs analysis of the alternatives and generally chooses a particular option for action.

Question 56

Breach of Contract

Answer 56

The failure to meet some or all the obligations of a contract.

Question 57

Budget

Answer 57

A time-phased plan for when funds will be disbursed on a project. It helps the organization anticipate when money will be coming in and/or going out, for the duration of the project. Budget accuracy is dependent upon a well-defined project scope and schedule. The total project budget is the cost baseline plus management reserves. See also ‘Cost Baseline’.

Question 58

Budget at Completion (BAC)

Answer 58

The sum of all budgets established to provide financial support for the work to be performed.

Question 59

Buffer

Answer 59

A planning term related to contingency. See also ‘Reserve’.

Question 60

Burn Chart

Answer 60

A tool that is used to track the progress of the project by plotting the number of days of sprint against the number of hours of work remaining. It is used to communicate progress during and at the end of an iteration/sprint/ increment, showing the number of stores that have been completed and the ones that remain. The concept is as the project progresses over time, the backlog of work will ‘burn down’/lessen.

Question 61

Burn Rate

Answer 61

The rate at which the project consumes financial resources, representing negative cash flow. Burn rates are often used by agile projects to budget costs for planned iterations/sprints/increments.

Question 62

Burndown Chart

Answer 62

A graphical representation of the work remaining versus the time left in a timebox.

Question 63

Burnup Chart

Answer 63

A graphical representation of the work completed toward the release of a product.

Question 64

Business Case

Answer 64

A documented economic feasibility study used to establish the validity of the benefits of a selected component lacking sufficient definition and that is used as a basis for the authorization of further project management activities.

Question 65

Business Document

Answer 65

An artifact developed prior to the project, used as part of the business case, and which is reviewed periodically by a project professional to verify benefit delivery.

Question 66

Business Requirement Documents (BRD)

Answer 66

Listing of all requirements for a specific project.

Question 67

Business Risk

Answer 67

The inherent risk in any business endeavor that carries the potential for either profit or loss. Types of business risks are competitive, legislative, monetary, and operational.

Question 68

Business Value

Answer 68

The net quantifiable benefit derived from a business endeavor. The benefit may be tangible, intangible, or both.

Question 69

Cadence

Answer 69

A rhythm of execution. Also see ‘time box.’

Question 70

Capability Maturity Model Information (CMMI)

Answer 70

The CMMI provides a framework for the integration of process improvement for multiple process areas. Associated with quality management.

Question 71

Cause and Effect Diagram

Answer 71

This diagram shows the relationship between causes and effects. Primarily used in root cause analysis (risk and quality) to uncover the causes of risks, problems, or issues. See also ‘Fishbone Diagram’ and ‘Ishikawa Diagram’.

Question 72

Cease and Desist Letter

Answer 72

A legal document sent to an individual or a business with the direct intention of stopping specific activities and preventing their occurrence or recurrence.

Question 73

Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM)

Answer 73

PMI® Certification that offers recognition to practitioners who are interested in or are just starting a career in project management, as well as project team members who wish to demonstrate their project management knowledge. This certification denotes that the individual possesses the knowledge in the principles and terminology of A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK® Guide), which outlines generally recognized good practices in project management.

Question 74

Change Control

Answer 74

Purposeful management of changes to the project (scope, schedule, cost, or quality). In change control, a change request goes through a formal process before a decision (approve/deny) is made.

Question 75

Change Control Board (CCB)

Answer 75

A formally chartered group responsible for reviewing, evaluating, approving, delaying, or rejecting changes to the project and for recording and communicating such decisions.

Question 76

Change Control Form

Answer 76

A document used to request a project change. They can also be recommendations for taking corrective or preventive actions. See also ‘Change Request’.

Question 77

Change Control System

Answer 77

A set of procedures that describes how modifications to the project deliverables and documentation are managed and controlled.

Question 78

Change Log

Answer 78

A living list of all project change requests (CR). This log is used to track and provide accurate status of each CR (requester, owner, details, impact analysis, decision, etc.)

Question 79

Change Management

Answer 79

A comprehensive, cyclic, and structured approach for transitioning individuals, groups, and organizations from a current state to a future state in which they realize desired benefits. It is different from project change control, which is a process whereby modifications to documents, deliverables, or baselines associated with the project are identified and documented, and then are approved or rejected.

Question 80

Change Management Plan

Answer 80

A component of the project management plan that establishes the Change Control Board, documents the extent of its authority, and describes how the change control system will be implemented.

Question 81

Change Request (CR)

Answer 81

Request for change sent to upper management or the Change Control Board (CCB) for its evaluation and approval. See also ‘Change Control Form’.

Question 82

Charter

Answer 82

A shortened name for the project charter. A formal document that starts the project. Typically used by the project sponsor and the project manager, this document provides the reason for the project (based on business case) and may include high-level requirements, assumptions, constraints, milestone(s), and preliminary budget. See also ‘Project Charter’.

Question 83

Checklist

Answer 83

A set of procedural instructions used to ensure that a product or component quality is achieved.

Question 84

Checklist Analysis

Answer 84

A technique for systematically reviewing materials using a list for accuracy and completeness.

Question 85

Claim

Answer 85

An issue with the contract brought by one party against another. Claims must be resolved before the contract can be properly closed out.

Question 86

Close Project or Phase Process

Answer 86

The process of finalizing all activities for the project, phase, or contract.

Question 87

Close-Out Meetings

Answer 87

Sessions held at the end of a project or phase during which teams discuss work and capture lessons learned.

Question 88

Closing Process Group

Answer 88

One of the five Project Management Process Groups. It consists of those processes performed to formally complete or close the project, phase, or contract.

Question 89

Coach

Answer 89

An agile servant leader role that exists to help the team and identify and remove any impediments (obstacles).

Question 90

Coaching

Answer 90

The act of giving guidance and direction to another person to facilitate personal and/or professional growth and development.

Question 91

Code of Accounts

Answer 91

A numbering system used to uniquely identify each component of the WBS.

Question 92

Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct

Answer 92

A PMI® published body of knowledge that describes the ethical, professional behavior and expectations of an individual working as a project management professional (PMP®).

Question 93

Collaboration

Answer 93

The act of working together and sharing information to create deliverables, work products or results.

Question 94

Collect Requirements Process

Answer 94

The process in which requirements documentation is developed. Precedes the Define Scope process.

Question 95

Colocation

Answer 95

An organizational placement strategy in which the project team members are physically located close to one another to improve communication, working relationships, and productivity.

Question 96

Common Cause

Answer 96

A reason contributing to a quality problem that is usually considered acceptable. Common causes are considered unpreventable or if they are preventable, the cost of prevention would not justify the benefit. Opposite of ‘Special Cause’.

Question 97

Communication

Answer 97

Act of accurately encoding, sending, receiving, decoding, and verifying messages. Communication between sender and receiver may be oral or written, formal or informal.

Question 98

Communication Channels

Answer 98

The number of possible communication paths on a project. The formula for calculating communication channels is: [n(n-1)]/2; n=number of people on the project.

Question 99

Communication Method

Answer 99

A systematic procedure, technique, or process used to transfer information among project stakeholders.

Question 100

Communication Models

Answer 100

A description, analogy, or schematic used to represent how the communication process will be performed for the project.

Question 101

Communication Requirements Analysis

Answer 101

An analytical technique to determine the information needs of the project stakeholders through interviews, workshops, or study of lessons learned from previous projects, etc.

Question 102

Communication Styles Assessment

Answer 102

A technique to identify the preferred communication method, format, and content for stakeholders for planned communication activities.

Question 103

Communication Technology

Answer 103

Specific tools, automated systems, computer programs, etc., used to transfer information among project stakeholders.

Question 104

Communications Management Plan

Answer 104

A component of the project, program, or portfolio management plan that describes how, when, and by whom information about the project will be administered and disseminated.

Question 105

Community of Practice (CoP)

Answer 105

As described by E. Wenger in his book, Cultivating Communities of Practice, the CoP uses the same basic idea as used by Shell in their offshore drilling platforms to establish local forums of ‘experts’ with the specific mandate to create an arena in which project managers would feel comfortable sharing their findings and learnings from their projects.

Question 106

Completion Contract

Answer 106

A type of contract that is completed when the vendor delivers the product to the buyer and the buyer accepts the product.

Question 107

Complexity

Answer 107

A characteristic of a program, project, or its environment, which is difficult to manage due to human behavior, system behavior, or ambiguity.

Question 108

Compliance

Answer 108

The state of meeting—or being in accord with—organizational, legal, certification or other relevant regulations.

Question 109

Compromise

Answer 109

An option in conflict management in which both parties give up something to reach an agreement.

Question 110

Conduct Procurement Process

Answer 110

The process of obtaining seller responses, selecting a seller, and awarding a contract.

Question 111

Cone of Uncertainty

Answer 111

Agile term describing the difficulty of estimating early due to unknowns and how that should improve over time.

Question 112

Configuration Item

Answer 112

Any component or project element that needs to be managed to ensure the successful delivery of the project, services, or result.

Question 113

Configuration Management

Answer 113

A tool used to manage changes to a product or service being produced as well as changes to any of the project documents—for example, schedule updates.

Question 114

Configuration Management Plan

Answer 114

A component of the project management plan that describes how to identify and account for project artifacts under configuration control and how to record and report changes to them.

Question 115

Configuration Management System

Answer 115

A collection of procedures used to track project artifacts and monitor and control changes to these artifacts.

Question 116

Conflict

Answer 116

Difference of opinion or agenda on a project amongst team members, stakeholders, or customers.

Question 117

Conflict Management

Answer 117

The application of one or more strategies for dealing with disagreements that may be detrimental to team performance.

Question 118

Conflict Resolution

Answer 118

The process of working to reach an agreement after a conflict situation arises.

Question 119

Consensus

Answer 119

Group decision technique in which the group agrees to support an outcome even if the individuals do not agree with the decision.

Question 120

Constraint

Answer 120

An external factor that limits the ability to plan. Constraints and assumptions are closely linked.

Question 121

Context Diagram

Answer 121

A visual depiction of the product scope showing a business system (process, equipment, computer system, etc.), and how people and other systems (actors) interact with it.

Question 122

Contingency Plan

Answer 122

A risk response strategy developed in advance, before risks occur; it is meant to be used if and when identified risks become reality.

Question 123

Contingency Reserve

Answer 123

Time or money allocated in the schedule or cost baseline for known risks with active response strategies.

Question 124

Contingency Theory

Answer 124

A theory credited to Fred. E. Fielder which states that the set of skills and attributes that helped a project manager in one environment may work against them in another environment.

Question 125

Continuous Improvement (CI)

Answer 125

The ongoing effort to improve products, services, or processes.

Question 126

Continuous Integration

Answer 126

The practice of regularly merging all software code into a shared environment, several times a day, to check code quality and functionality.

Question 127

Continuous Process Improvement

Answer 127

The systematic, ongoing effort to improve products, services, or processes in an organization.

Question 128

Contract

Answer 128

A mutually binding agreement that obligates the seller to provide the specified project or service or result and obligates the buyer to pay for it.

Question 129

Contract Change Control System

Answer 129

The system used to collect, track, adjudicate, and communicate changes to a contract.

Question 130

Control Account

Answer 130

A management control point at which scope, budget, actual cost, and schedule are integrated and compared to earned value for performance measurement.

Question 131

Control Charts

Answer 131

A graphic display of process data over time and against established control limits, which has a centerline that assists in detecting a trend of plotted values toward either control limit. These charts are often associated with control limits, specification limits, means, and standard deviation. Control charts are used to analyze and communicate the variability of a process or project activity over time. See also ‘Variability Control Charts’.

Question 132

Control Costs Process

Answer 132

Monitor and control project costs to ensure they align with the cost baseline/budget.

Question 133

Control Procurements Process

Answer 133

The process of managing procurement relationships, monitoring contract performance, making changes and corrections as appropriate, and closing out contracts.

Question 134

Control Procurements Process

Answer 134

Part of the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group, this process is performed by the buyer to ensure compliance by the seller and the other party; it compares the terms in the agreement/contract.

Question 135

Control Quality Process

Answer 135

Part of the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group, this process focuses on the quality of deliverables.

Question 136

Control Resources Process

Answer 136

Part of the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group, this process ensures that the flow and usage of physical resources line up with the plan.

Question 137

Control Schedule Process

Answer 137

Part of the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group, this process compares the planned work to the actual work.

Question 138

Control Scope Process

Answer 138

Part of the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group, this process ensures that changes to scope are properly controlled.

Question 139

Controlling PMO

Answer 139

A type of PMO that provides support and requires compliance through various means. Compliance may involve adopting project management frameworks or methodologies; using specific templates, forms, and tools; or conformance to governance.

Question 140

Corrective Action

Answer 140

Steps (action) to bring future results in line with the plan; this can change the plan or the way the plan is being executed.

Question 141

Cost Aggregation

Answer 141

Summing the lower-level cost estimates associated with the various work packages for a given level within the project’s WBS or for a given cost control account.

Question 142

Cost Baseline

Answer 142

The approved version of the time-phased project budget, excluding any management reserves, which can be changed only through formal change control procedures and is used as a basis for comparison to actual results. See also ‘Budget’.

Question 143

Cost-Benefit Analysis

Answer 143

A financial analysis method used to determine the benefits provided by a project against its costs.

Question 144

Cost Forecast

Answer 144

Cost estimates adjusted based on performance—i.e., Estimate at complete, budget at completion, estimate to complete, etc.

Question 145

Cost Management Plan

Answer 145

A component of a project or program management plan that describes how costs will be planned, structured, and controlled.

Question 146

Cost of Conformance

Answer 146

The money spent during a project to avoid failures. This includes prevention costs that build a quality product and appraisal costs that assess the quality.

Question 147

Cost of Non-Conformance

Answer 147

The money spent after a project is complete because of failures. This includes internal and external failure costs.

Question 148

Cost of Quality (CoQ)

Answer 148

All costs incurred over the life of the product by investment in preventing nonconformance to requirements, appraisal of the product or service for conformance to requirements, and failure to meet requirements.

Question 149

Cost Performance Index (CPI)

Answer 149

A measure of the cost efficiency of budgeted resources expressed as the ratio of earned value to actual cost.

Question 150

Cost Plus Award Fee (CPAF) contract

Answer 150

A category of contract that involves payments to the seller for all legitimate actual costs incurred for completed work, plus an award fee representing seller profit.

Question 151

Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF) contract

Answer 151

A type of cost-reimbursable contract in which the buyer reimburses the seller for the seller’s allowable costs (allowable costs are defined by the contract) plus a fixed amount of profit (fee).

Question 152

Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF) contract

Answer 152

A type of cost-reimbursable contract in which the buyer reimburses the seller for the seller’s allowable costs (allowable costs are defined by the contract), and the seller earns its profit if it meets defined performance criteria.

Question 153

Cost Variance (CV)

Answer 153

The amount of budget deficit or surplus at a given point in time, expressed as the difference between the earned value and the actual cost.

Question 154

Cost-Benefit Analysis

Answer 154

A cost-benefit analysis allows project managers to compare if the benefits of an action outweigh the costs or, conversely, if the costs outweigh the benefits. This can be an important criterion in decision making.

Question 155

Cost-Reimbursable Contract

Answer 155

A type of contract involving payment to the seller for the seller’s actual costs, plus a fee typically representing the seller’s profit.

Question 156

Crashing

Answer 156

Applying additional resources to one or more tasks/activities to complete the work more quickly. Crashing usually increases costs more than risks. In comparison, fast-tracking increases risks. See also ‘Fast Tracking’.

Question 157

Create WBS Process

Answer 157

A planning processes that involves creating the work-break-down (WBS) structure, along with the WBS dictionary. This process produces the schedule baseline, which consists of the WBS, WBS dictionary and the scope statement. The scope statement is produced from the Define Scope process.

Question 158

Critical Path

Answer 158

The sequence of activities that represents the longest path through a project, which determines the shortest possible duration.

Question 159

Critical Path Activity

Answer 159

Any activity on the critical path in a project schedule.

Question 160

Critical Path Method (CPM)

Answer 160

A technique of schedule analysis in which the schedule activities are evaluated to determine the float or slack for each activity and the overall schedule. To calculate critical path, use the forward and backward pass along with float analysis to identify all network paths, including critical.

Question 161

Cross-Functional Team

Answer 161

Teams that have all the capabilities to deliver the work they’ve been assigned. Team members can specialize in certain skills, but the team can deliver what they’ve been called on to build. See also ‘self-organizing teams.’

Question 162

Crystal Family of Methodologies.

Answer 162

A collection of lightweight agile software development methods focused on adaptability to a particular circumstance.

Question 163

Cultural Awareness

Answer 163

Understanding the cultural differences of the individuals, groups, and organizations in the project stakeholder community to adapt communication strategies to avoid or reduce miscommunication and misunderstandings.

Question 164

Customer

Answer 164

The individual or organization that will accept the deliverable(s) or product. Customers can be internal organizational groups or external to an organization.

Question 165

Cycle Time

Answer 165

Refers to the period from the time a team starts a task until the time it is completed. See also ‘lead time.’

Question 166

Daily Standup

Answer 166

A short, 15-minute meeting in which the complete team gets together for a quick status update while standing in a circle. Also referred to as a ‘daily scrum’ or ‘standup’.

Question 167

Data

Answer 167

Refers to gathered empirical information, especially facts and numbers.

Question 168

Data Analysis

Answer 168

The act of scrutinizing facts and numbers for typical purposes of decision-making, verification, validation, or assessment.

Question 169

Data Gathering

Answer 169

Techniques used to solicit and document ideas—i.e., brainstorming, interviews, focus groups, questionnaires, surveys, and so on.

Question 170

Data Representation

Answer 170

A way of depicting data visually to aid in its communication/comprehension to various audiences.

Question 171

De Facto Regulations

Answer 171

Regulations that are widely accepted and adopted through use.

Question 172

De Jure Regulations

Answer 172

Regulations that are mandated by law or have been approved by a recognized body of experts.

Question 173

Debriefing

Answer 173

An informal, collaborative means of discussing the positives and the negatives of a project, what worked, and what will be done differently next time. This discussion includes technology issues, people issues, vendor relationships, and organizational culture.

Question 174

Decision Making

Answer 174

The process of selecting a course of action from among multiple options.

Question 175

Decision Tree Analysis

Answer 175

A diagramming and calculation technique for evaluating the implications of a chain of multiple options in the presence of uncertainty.

Question 176

Decomposition

Answer 176

A technique used for dividing and subdividing the project scope and project deliverables into smaller, more manageable parts.

Question 177

DEEP

Answer 177

An acronym used in agile projects that describes desirable attributes of a product backlog. Stands for: Detailed, Estimable, Emergent and Prioritize.

Question 178

Define Activities Process

Answer 178

Part of the Planning Process Group, this process defines the activities (tasks) necessary to complete work packages/stories.

Question 179

Define Scope Process

Answer 179

Part of the Planning Process Group, this process produces the scope statement that depicts a detailed and complete understanding of the project’s vision.

Question 180

Definition of Done (DoD)

Answer 180

A team’s checklist of all the criteria required to be met so that a deliverable can be considered ready for customer use.

Question 181

Definition of Ready (DoR)

Answer 181

A team’s checklist for a user-centric requirement that has all the information the team needs to be able to begin working on it.

Question 182

Deliverable

Answer 182

Any unique and verifiable product, result, or capability used to perform a service and that is required to be produced to complete a process, phase, or projects.

Question 183

Delphi Technique

Answer 183

A form of gathering expert opinions in which members of a group are asked or polled anonymously.

Question 184

Demo

Answer 184

A review at the end of each iteration with the product owner and other customer stakeholders to review the progress of the product, get early feedback, and review an acceptance from the product owner of the stories delivered in the iteration. See also ‘Sprint Review’.

Question 185

Dependency

Answer 185

A relationship between one or more tasks/activities. A dependency may be mandatory or discretionary, internal or external. See also ‘start-to-start’; ‘start-to-finish’; ‘finishto-start’; and ‘finish-to-finish’.

Question 186

Design for X (DfX)

Answer 186

A set of technical guidelines that may be applied during the design of a product for the optimization of a specific aspect of the design. DfX can control or even improve the product’s final characteristics.

Question 187

Design of Experiments (DoE)

Answer 187

A data analysis technique to determine the optimal condition; typically used with multiple variables.

Question 188

Determine Budget Process

Answer 188

Part of the Planning Process Group, this process produces the cost baseline/project budget.

Question 189

DevOps

Answer 189

A collection of practices for creating a smooth flow of delivery by improving collaboration between development and operations staff.

Question 190

Develop Project Charter

Answer 190

Part of the Initiating Process Group, this process produces the project charter, which officially starts the project.

Question 191

Develop Project Management Plan Process

Answer 191

A planning process which is a guide on how the project will be managed. It is composed of 19 components.

Question 192

Develop Schedule Process

Answer 192

Part of the Planning Process Group, this process arranges activities to create the schedule baseline.

Question 193

Develop Team Process

Answer 193

Part of the Executing Process Group, this process enhances and empowers the team to improve teamwork and individual skills.

Question 194

Diagramming Techniques

Answer 194

Various means of depicting a system or virtual concept such as a business or process flow that indicate entities, relationships, and interactions.

Question 195

Dictatorship

Answer 195

A group decision technique in which one person makes the decision for the entire group.

Question 196

Direct and Manage Project Work Process

Answer 196

A Monitoring and Controlling process that reviews the entire project and analyzes what is planned vs. actual (with schedule forecast and cost forecast as an input) to determine the overall project status.

Question 197

Direct Cost

Answer 197

Costs that are reported against the project, which may include salaries for resources, materials, and other expenses. It does not include shared expenses or overhead expenses.

Question 198

Directions of Influence

Answer 198

A classification model that groups stakeholders based on how they influence the project and/or the project team: upwards (senior management); downwards (team or specialists); outwards (external); sidewards (project manager’s peers).

Question 199

Directive PMO

Answer 199

A type of PMO that takes control of projects by directly managing the projects.

Question 200

Disaggregation

Answer 200

Breaking down epics or large stories into smaller stories. This is similar to decomposition on predictive projects.

Question 201

Discretionary Dependency

Answer 201

A relationship that is established based on knowledge of best practices within a particular application area or an aspect of the project in which a specific sequence is desired.

Question 202

Document Analysis

Answer 202

A technique used to gain project requirements from current document valuation.

Question 203

Duration

Answer 203

Amount of time needed to complete an activity/task or work package.

Question 204

Early Finish

Answer 204

Used in a networking diagram, this represents the earliest date that the activity can finish.

Question 205

Early Start

Answer 205

Used in a networking diagram, this represents the earliest date that the activity can start.

Question 206

Earned Value (EV)

Answer 206

A measure of work performed expressed in terms of the budget authorized for that work.

Question 207

Earned Value Management (EVM)

Answer 207

A methodology that combines scope, schedule, and resource measurements to assess project performance and progress.

Question 208

EEF

Answer 208

Any or all environmental factors either internal or external to the project that can influence the project’s success. Enterprise Environmental Factors (EEFs) include culture, weather conditions, government regulations, political situation, market conditions, and so on.

Question 209

Effect-Based Risk Classification

Answer 209

A way of analyzing the major risks inherent to a project that could have an impact on its success. These major risks include time, cost, quality, and scope.

Question 210

Effort

Answer 210

The number of labor units required to complete a scheduled activity or WBS component, often expressed in hours, days, or weeks.

Question 211

Elapsed Time

Answer 211

The actual calendar time required for an activity from start to finish.

Question 212

Emotional Intelligence (EI)

Answer 212

The ability to identify, assess, and manage the personal emotions of oneself and other people, as well as the collective emotions of groups of people. EQ (emotional quotient) is also a commonly used abbreviation.

Question 213

Empathy

Answer 213

Part of emotional intelligence (EQ or EI). The ability to understand others’ viewpoints and be a team player. It enables us to connect with others and understand what moves them.

Question 214

Empowerment

Answer 214

An essential attribute of agile teams to enable localized decision-making capabilities. The quality of granting or being granted, nurturing, or motivating a team member or team to exercise one’s own knowledge, skill, and ability—or that of a team.

Question 215

Engagement Roadmap

Answer 215

Another name for ‘stakeholder engagement roadmap’ - a guideline based on the stakeholder analysis that sets forth processes for engaging with stakeholders at current and all future states of the project.

Question 216

Enhance

Answer 216

A strategy for managing positive risks or opportunities that involves increasing the probability that the opportunity will happen, or the impact it will have by identifying and maximizing enablers of these opportunities.

Question 217

Epic

Answer 217

A block of work with one common objective, such as a feature, customer request or business requirement. A helpful way to organize work and create a hierarchy, epic helps teams break their work down, while continuing to work towards a bigger goal.

Question 218

Escalate

Answer 218

The act of seeking helpful intervention in response to a threat that is outside the scope of the project or beyond the project manager’s authority.

Question 219

Estimate

Answer 219

A number, figure, or representation that denotes cost or time.

Question 220

Estimate Activity Durations Process

Answer 220

A planning process that determines the estimate time needed to complete a work package and/or activity.

Question 221

Estimate Activity Resources Process

Answer 221

Part of the Planning Process Group, this process estimates the materials and human resources needed to perform the project activities.

Question 222

Estimate at Completion (EAC)

Answer 222

The expected total cost of completing all work expressed as the sum of the actual cost to date and the estimate to complete.

Question 223

Estimate Costs Process

Answer 223

Part of the Planning Process Group, this process determines the financial estimate for each work package and/or activity.

Question 224

Estimate to Complete (ETC)

Answer 224

The expected cost of finishing all the remaining project work.

Question 225

Executing Process Group

Answer 225

One of the five Project Management Process Groups. It consists of those processes performed to complete the work defined in the project management plan to satisfy the project requirements.

Question 226

Exit Gate

Answer 226

Logical point at the end of a project phase at which an independent party and/or relevant stakeholders reviews that phase’s deliverables to determine whether or not they were completed successfully, and the subsequent project phase should be initiated. Used in predictive or traditional projects. See also ‘Kill Point’.

Question 227

Expectancy Theory

Answer 227

Motivational theory which proposes that the team makes choices based on the expected outcome.

Question 228

Expected Monetary Value (EMV)

Answer 228

A quantitative method of calculating the average outcome when the future is uncertain. The calculation of EMV is a component of decision tree analysis. Opportunities will have positive values and threats will have negative values.

Question 229

Expert Judgment

Answer 229

Judgment provided based upon expertise in an application area, knowledge area, discipline, industry, etc., as appropriate for the activity being performed. Such expertise may be provided by any group or person with specialized education, knowledge, skill, experience, or training.

Question 230

Explicit Knowledge

Answer 230

Knowledge that can be codified using symbols such as words, numbers, and pictures. This type of knowledge can be easily documented and shared with others.

Question 231

Exploit

Answer 231

A strategy for managing positive risks or opportunities that involves attempting to make sure that the opportunity happens.

Question 232

External Dependency

Answer 232

Types of activity dependencies that exist between project activities and non-project activities and can be out of the project’s control.

Question 233

Extreme Programming (XP)

Answer 233

Agile methodology in which iterations last for one week and programmers work in pairs.

Question 234

Facilitated Workshops

Answer 234

Organized working sessions held by project managers to determine a project’s requirements and to get all stakeholders together to agree on the project’s outcomes.

Question 235

Facilitation

Answer 235

A skill used to lead or guide an assembled group toward a successful conclusion such as making a decision or finding a solution.

Question 236

Fast Tracking

Answer 236

A schedule compression technique in which activities or phases normally done in sequence are performed in parallel for at least a portion of their duration. See also ‘Crashing’.

Question 237

Feature

Answer 237

A group of stories that delivers value to the customer.

Question 238

Fibonacci Sequence

Answer 238

A mathematical sequence in which the value of each number is derived from the sum of the two preceding numbers. Used in agile estimating or relative estimating techniques, such as planning poker. 0,1,1,2,3,5,8,13,21,34,55,89,144… Simplified sequence: 0,1,2,35,8,13,20,40,100.

Question 239

Final Report

Answer 239

A summary of the project’s information on performance, scope, schedule, quality, cost, and risks.

Question 240

Finish-to-Finish (FF)

Answer 240

A logical relationship in which a successor activity cannot finish until a predecessor activity has finished.

Question 241

Finish-to-Start (FS)

Answer 241

A logical relationship in which a successor activity cannot start until a predecessor activity has finished.

Question 242

Firm Fixed Price Contract (FFP)

Answer 242

A type of fixed price contract in which the buyer pays the seller a set amount (as defined by the contract), regardless of the seller’s costs.

Question 243

Fishbone Diagram

Answer 243

See ‘Cause and Effect Diagram’.

Question 244

Fixed Price Contract

Answer 244

An agreement that sets the fee that will be paid for a defined scope of work regardless of the cost or effort to deliver it.

Question 245

Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF) contract

Answer 245

A type of contract in which the buyer pays the seller a set amount (as defined by the contract), and the seller can earn an additional amount if the seller meets defined performance criteria.

Question 246

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment (FPEPA) contract

Answer 246

A fixed-price contract, but with a special provision allowing for pre-defined final adjustments to the contract price due to changed conditions, such as inflation changes, or cost increases (or decreases) for specific commodities.

Question 247

Float

Answer 247

Also called slack. See ‘Total Float’ and ‘Free Float’.

Question 248

Focus Groups

Answer 248

An elicitation technique that brings together pre-qualified stakeholders and subject matter experts to learn about their expectations and attitudes about a proposed product, service, or result.

Question 249

Forward Pass

Answer 249

Technique for calculating the early start and early finish dates of the schedule activities. This is part of the critical path method and is paired with backward pass to determine activity and schedule float along with the critical path. See also ‘Backward Pass’.

Question 250

Free Float

Answer 250

The amount of time that a scheduled activity can be delayed without impacting the early start date of any subsequent scheduled activity.

Question 251

Functional Manager

Answer 251

Supervisory organizational role in a specialized area or department.

Question 252

Functional Organization

Answer 252

An organizational structure in which staff is grouped by areas of specialization and the project manager has limited authority to assign work and apply resources.

Question 253

Functionality

Answer 253

In an agile context, an action that the system performs that adds value to the customer/user.

Question 254

Funding Limit Reconciliation

Answer 254

The process of comparing the planned expenditure of project funds against any limits on the commitment of funds for the project to identify any variances between the funding limits and the planned expenditures.

Question 255

Gantt Chart

Answer 255

A bar chart of schedule information on which activities are listed on the vertical axis, dates are shown on the horizontal axis, and the activity durations are shown as horizontal bars placed according to start and finish dates.

Question 256

Generalizing Specialist

Answer 256

Refers to a project team member who has a particular area of deep expertise but also has experience in many other areas that may not be directly related to their core area. These team member types are valued on agile projects because of their ability to be interchangeable.

Question 257

Gold Plating

Answer 257

Adding more scope than the customer requested and/or that the team planned for.

Question 258

Group Decision Techniques

Answer 258

Team working techniques to move a group towards consensus or decision. Examples are unanimity, majority, plurality, and dictatorship.

Question 259

Growth Mindset

Answer 259

A growth mindset, as conceived by Stanford psychologist Carol Dweck and colleagues, is the belief that a person’s capacities and talents can be improved over time.

Question 260

Ground Rules

Answer 260

Expectations regarding acceptable behavior by project team members.

Question 261

Hardening Iteration/Iteration H

Answer 261

Specialized increment/iteration/sprint dedicated to stabilizing the code base so that it is robust enough for release. No new functionality is added. Primarily used for refactoring and/or technical debt.

Question 262

Herzberg’s Motivation-Hygiene Theory

Answer 262

In 1959, behavioral scientist Frederick Herzberg proposed that ‘hygiene’ or environmental factors can cause workers to feel satisfied or unsatisfied with their job and this factor affects their performance. The theory also proposes that a worker’s independent drive associated with motivation also affects performance and that workers respond to feelings of connection with their work. Therefore, leaders should encourage workers to accept more authority as well as promote feedback. Also known as Two Factor Theory, Herzberg’s Motivation Theory, and The Dual Structure Theory.

Question 263

Histogram

Answer 263

A bar or column chart that graphically represents numerical data—for example, the number of defects per deliverable, a ranking of the cause of defects, the number of times each process is noncompliant, or other representations of project or product defects.

Question 264

Historical Information

Answer 264

Archived information from previous projects that can be used for a multitude of reasons, including estimating cost, schedule, resources, and lessons learned.

Question 265

Ideal Time

Answer 265

An estimation technique that refers to the time it would take to complete a given task assuming neither interruptions nor unplanned problems arise

Question 266

Identify Risks

Answer 266

Performed throughout the project, this is the process of identifying individual project risks as well as sources of overall project risk and documenting their characteristics. The key benefit of this process is the documentation of existing individual project risks and the sources of overall project risk. It also brings together information so the project team can respond appropriately to identified risks.

Question 267

Identify Stakeholders

Answer 267

Performed periodically, throughout the project as needed, this is the process of identifying project stakeholders regularly and analyzing and documenting relevant information regarding their interests, involvement, interdependencies, influence, and potential impact on project success. The key benefit of this process is that it enables the project team to identify the appropriate focus for engagement of each stakeholder or group of stakeholders.

Question 268

Impediment

Answer 268

An obstacle that prevents the team from achieving its objectives.

Question 269

Implement Risk Response Process

Answer 269

A part of the Executing Process Group, this is the process of implementing agreed-upon risk response plans. The key benefit of this process is that it ensures that agreed-upon risk responses are executed as planned to address overall project risk exposure, minimize individual project threats, and maximize individual project opportunities. This process is performed throughout the project.

Question 270

Increment

Answer 270

A functional, tested, and accepted deliverable that is a subset of the overall project outcome.

Question 271

Incremental Delivery

Answer 271

Agile concept that the functionality should be delivered in small pieces or stages rather than as a complete solution.

Question 272

Incremental Life Cycle

Answer 272

An adaptive project life cycle in which the deliverable is produced through a series of iterations that successively add functionality within a predetermined time frame. The deliverable contains the necessary and sufficient capability to be considered complete only after the final iteration.

Question 273

Independent Estimates

Answer 273

Estimates generated by experts outside the project for the purposes of comparing them with those made by the team.

Question 274

Indirect Costs

Answer 274

A cost usually tracked as part of a contract, that is not expended directly for the project’s benefit.

Question 275

Influence Diagram

Answer 275

Used in quality management decisions. A graphical representation of situations showing causal influences, time ordering of events, and other relationships among variables and outcomes.

Question 276

Influence/Impact Grid

Answer 276

Used in stakeholder management. A classification model that groups stakeholders on the basis of their involvement in and impact on the project.

Question 277

Influencing

Answer 277

The act of presenting a good case to explain why an idea, decision, or problem should be handled a certain way, without resistance from other individuals.

Question 278

Information

Answer 278

Data that has been analyzed, organized, and processed to make it more meaningful.

Question 279

Information Management

Answer 279

A system to allow the team to collaborate, share, and capture project work.

Question 280

Information Management System

Answer 280

A way to collect, manage, and distribute project information.

Question 281

Information Radiator

Answer 281

The generic term for visual displays placed in a visible location so everyone can quickly see the latest information. Also known as ‘Big Visible Chart’ in agile.

Question 282

Initiating Progress Group

Answer 282

One of the five Project Management Process Groups. It includes the process(es) performed to define a new project or a new phase of an existing project by obtaining authorization to start the project or phase.

Question 283

Input

Answer 283

Something needed or used by a process to create the process output.

Question 284

Inspection

Answer 284

Reviewing the functionality or suitability of a product, service, or result against the plan (requirements/story).

Question 285

Insurable Risk

Answer 285

A risk that has only the potential for loss and no potential for profit or gain. An insurable risk is one for which insurance may be purchased to reduce or offset the possible loss. Types of insurable risks are direct property, indirect property, liability, and personnel related.

Question 286

Interactions

Answer 286

In an agile context, this generally refers to face-to-face conversations between members, customers and stakeholders.

Question 287

Interactive Communication

Answer 287

An exchange of information between two or more individuals that ensures common understanding for everyone participating in that exchange.

Question 288

Internal Dependency

Answer 288

A type of activity dependency that exists between project activities and is usually under the project’s control.

Question 289

Internal Rate of Return (IRR)

Answer 289

The interest rate that makes the net present value of all cash flow equal to zero. This rate is a function of the cost of capital for project implementation.

Question 290

Interpersonal Skills

Answer 290

Skills used to establish and maintain relationships with other people or stakeholders.

Question 291

Interview

Answer 291

A formal or informal approach to elicit information from stakeholders by talking with them directly.

Question 292

INVEST

Answer 292

Acronym describing the desirable attributes of a good story. Stands for: Independent, Negotiable, Valuable, Estimable, Small and Testable.

Question 293

Invitation for Bid (IFB)

Answer 293

A type of procurement document most commonly used when deliverables are commodities for which there are clear specifications and when quantities are very large. The invitation is usually advertised, and any seller may submit a bid. Negotiation is typically not anticipated. These are sometimes used interchangeably with RFPs. Generally, this term is equivalent to RFP. However, in some application areas, it may be a narrower or more specific meaning.

Question 294

Ishikawa Diagram

Answer 294

See ‘Cause and Effect Diagram’.

Question 295

Issue

Answer 295

A current condition or situation that may have an impact on the project objectives.

Question 296

Issue Log

Answer 296

An issue is a current condition or situation that may have an impact on the project objectives. An issue log is used to record and monitor information on active issues. Issues are assigned to a responsible party for follow up and resolution.

Question 297

Iteration

Answer 297

A timeboxed cycle of development on a product or deliverable in which all the work needed to deliver value is performed.

Question 298

Iteration Backlog

Answer 298

The work that is committed to be performed during a given iteration and is expected to burn down the duration. The work does not carry over to the next iteration.

Question 299

Iterative Life Cycle

Answer 299

A project life cycle in which the project scope is generally determined early in the project life cycle, but time and cost estimates are routinely modified as the project team’s understanding of the product/service increases. Iterations progressively develop the product/service through a series of repeated cycles, while increments successively add to the functionality of the product/service.

Question 300

Job Shadowing

Answer 300

Techniques used to gain knowledge of a specific job role, task, or function to understand and determine project requirements. See ‘Observations’.

Question 301

Joint Application Design (JAD)

Answer 301

Specialized workshops that include both SMEs and the development team together to discuss and improve on the software development process.

Question 302

Kaizen

Answer 302

A management concept adapted by the project management community which refers to project activities that continuously improve all project processes. It usually involves all stakeholders. The concept originated in Japan and generally involves ‘change for the better’ or ‘continuous improvement’.

Question 303

Kanban

Answer 303

Japanese management philosophy that means ‘signal’. This philosophy focuses on promoting visibility of the work in progress (WIP) and limiting the amount of WIP that the team allows.

Question 304

Kanban Board

Answer 304

A visualization tool that enables improvements to the flow of work by making bottlenecks and work quantities visible. It is a popular framework used to implement agile and DevOps software development. Also referred to as a signboard.

Question 305

Kano Model

Answer 305

A mechanism, derived from the customer marketing industry, to understand and classify all potential customer requirements or features into four categories

Question 306

Key Performance Indicator (KPI)

Answer 306

A set metric used to evaluate a project, an organizational unit, or a project team’s performance against the project vision and objectives. KPI can be time bound.

Question 307

Kill Point

Answer 307

The stage gate or phase review point. At this point, the progress of the project is evaluated, and a decision is made whether to continue or cancel the project. A set of criteria may be developed to assist with the decision to be made. See also ‘Exit Gate’.

Question 308

Knowledge Area

Answer 308

An identified area of project management defined by its knowledge requirements and described in terms of its component processes, practices, inputs, outputs, tools, and techniques. The knowledge areas intersect with the five respective Project Management Process Groups. Although the Knowledge Areas are interrelated, ten are defined separately in the Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK®).

Question 309

Knowledge Management

Answer 309

A business area dedicated to connecting individuals to shared knowledge and general collaboration on project work. The modality used for connection can be face-to-face and/or virtual.

Question 310

Lag

Answer 310

Refers to the amount of time whereby a successor activity will be delayed with respect to a preceding activity on the critical path.

Question 311

Late Finish

Answer 311

The latest date an activity can finish, without delaying the finish of the project.

Question 312

Late Start

Answer 312

The latest that a project activity can start without having to reschedule the calculated early finish of the project.

Question 313

Lead

Answer 313

The amount of time whereby a successor activity can be advanced with respect to predecessor activity.

Question 314

Leadership

Answer 314

The ability to guide others to achieve results. Leadership abilities are gained through experience, building relationships, and taking on initiatives.

Question 315

Leading

Answer 315

The act of establishing direction, aligning the team to a vision, and inspiring/motivating them to achieve a project’s objectives.

Question 316

Lead Time

Answer 316

Refers to the period from the time the team places a task on the board until delivery. Because the order of the items in the Ready column can be changed, this can be unpredictable. See also ‘cycle time.’

Question 317

Lean

Answer 317

An agile method used primarily in manufacturing that focuses on achieving outcomes with little or no waste.

Question 318

Lean Six Sigma

Answer 318

A collaborative team method that provides an enhanced ability to target customer needs and measure performance during project execution and monitoring. It was introduced by American engineer Bill Smith while working at Motorola in 1986.

Question 319

Legitimate Power

Answer 319

The authority granted to an individual due to his/her position within a group or an organization.

Question 320

Lessons Learned

Answer 320

The knowledge gained during a project which shows how project events were addressed or should be addressed in the future for the purpose of improving performance.

Question 321

Lessons Learned Register

Answer 321

A project document used to record knowledge gained during a project. The knowledge attained can be used in the current project and entered into the lessons learned repository for subsequent use.

Question 322

Lessons Learned Repository

Answer 322

A central store of historical lessons learned information from various projects across jurisdictions.

Question 323

Life Cycle Costing (LCC)

Answer 323

Life cycle costing is an approach that assesses the total cost of an asset over its life cycle including but not limited to initial capital costs, maintenance costs, etc. LCC is an important economic analysis used in the selection of alternatives that impact both pending and future costs. The concept is also known as lifetime cost and is commonly referred to as ‘cradle to grave’ or ‘womb to tomb’ costs.

Question 324

Logical Relationship

Answer 324

Those relations between the elements of discourse or thought that constitute its rationality, in the sense either of reasonableness or intelligibility.

Question 325

Majority

Answer 325

A group decision-making method in which a course of action is agreed upon by a predefined quorum.

Question 326

Make-or-Buy Analysis

Answer 326

The process of gathering and organizing data about product/service requirements and analyzing data against available alternatives including the purchaseor internal manufacture of the project.

Question 327

Make-or-Buy Decisions

Answer 327

Decisions made regarding the external purchase versus internal manufacture of a product.

Question 328

Manage Communications

Answer 328

The process of creating, collecting, distributing, storing, retrieving, and the ultimate disposition of project information in accordance with the communications management plan defined within the project.

Question 329

Manage Project Knowledge

Answer 329

The process of using existing knowledge and creating new knowledge to achieve project objectives and contribute to organizational learning. The process must include tools that allow converting data into information, and information into knowledge.

Question 330

Manage Project Quality

Answer 330

The process of continually measuring the quality of all activities and taking corrective action until the desired quality is achieved. Quality management lowers the risk of product/service failure or unsatisfied clients.

Question 331

Manage Project Team

Answer 331

The process of tracking team member performance, providing feedback, resolving issues, and managing team changes to optimize project performance. The key benefit of this process is that it influences team behavior, manages conflict, resolves issues, and appraises team member performance.

Question 332

Manage Stakeholder Engagement Process

Answer 332

The process of communicating and working with stakeholders to meet their needs/expectations, address issues as they occur, and foster appropriate stakeholder engagement in project activities throughout the project life cycle.

Question 333

Management Reserve

Answer 333

An amount of the project budget held outside of the performance measurement baseline (PMB) for management control purposes, that is reserved for unforeseen work that is within the scope of the project. Usually 5 – 10% of the project budget. This should not be confused with contingency reserve. See also ‘Contingency Reserve’.

Question 334

Managing

Answer 334

The exercise of executive control or authority.

Question 335

Mandatory Dependency

Answer 335

A relationship that is contractually required or inherent in the nature of the work.

Question 336

Market Research

Answer 336

The process of evaluating the feasibility of a new product or service, through research conducted directly with potential consumers.

Question 337

Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs

Answer 337

A theory of psychology explaining human motivation based on the pursuit of different levels of needs. The theory states that humans are motivated to fulfill their needs in a hierarchical order. This order begins with the most basic needs before moving on to more advanced needs. The ultimate goal, according to this theory, is to reach the fifth level of the hierarchy: self-actualization.

Question 338

Matrix Organization

Answer 338

An organizational structure in which the project manager shares responsibility with the functional managers for assigning priorities and for directing the work of individuals assigned to the project.

Question 339

McClelland’s Three Needs Theory

Answer 339

A human motivation theory which states that every person has one of three main driving motivators: the needs for achievement, affiliation, or power. Those with a strong need for affiliation don’t like to stand out or take risk, and they value relationships above anything else.

Question 340

Milestone

Answer 340

A specific point within a project life cycle used as a measure in the progress toward the ultimate goal. A milestone marks a specific point along a project timeline. The point may signal anchors such as a project start and end date, a need for external review, or input and budget check. It is represented as a task of zero duration and is displayed as an important achievement in a project.

Question 341

Milestone Charts

Answer 341

A graphical representation of milestones. A type of project schedule bar chart that only includes milestone or major deliverables and their corresponding points in time.

Question 342

Milestone List

Answer 342

Refers to an input or an output of various processes. A document that contains the milestones of a project.

Question 343

Mind Mapping

Answer 343

A graphical technique used to consolidate ideas created through individual brainstorming sessions into a single map - image/display is used to reflect commonality and differences in understanding and to generate new ideas.

Question 344

Minimum Business Increment (MBI)

Answer 344

The smallest amount of value that can be added to a product or service that benefits the business.

Question 345

Minimum Viable Product (MVP)

Answer 345

The smallest collection of features that can be included in a product for customers to consider it functional. In Lean methodologies, it can be referred to as ‘bare bones’ or ‘no frills’ functionality.

Question 346

Mitigate

Answer 346

A strategy for managing negative risks or threats and that involves taking action to reduce the probability of occurrence or the impact of a risk.

Question 347

Modeling

Answer 347

An approach used in schedule management and risk management. This can assist in identification of problems or areas of risk with the project before they actually occur. See also ‘What-If Scenario’ and ‘Monte Carlo Analysis’.

Question 348

Monitor and Control Project Work

Answer 348

Performed throughout the project, this the process of tracking, reviewing, and reporting the overall progress to meet the performance objectives defined in the project management plan. The key benefits of this process are that it allows stakeholders to understand the current state of the project, to recognize the actions taken to address any performance issues, and to have visibility into the future project status with cost and schedule forecasts.

Question 349

Monitor and Controlling Process Group

Answer 349

One of five Project Management Process Groups. Monitoring and controlling processes measure work results against the plan and make adjustments where variance exists.

Question 350

Monitor Communications Process

Answer 350

This process determines if the planned communications artifacts and activities have had the desired effect of increasing or maintaining stakeholders’ support for the project’s deliverables and expected outcomes.

Question 351

Monitor Risks

Answer 351

The process of monitoring the implementation of agreed-upon risk response plans, tracking identified risks, identifying and analyzing new risks, and evaluating risk process effectiveness throughout the project. The key benefit of this process is that it enables project decisions to be based on current information about overall project risk exposure and individual project risks.

Question 352

Monitor Stakeholder Engagement Process

Answer 352

Performed throughout a project, this is the process of monitoring project stakeholder relationships and tailoring strategies for engaging stakeholders through modification of engagement strategies and plans. The key benefit of this process is that it maintains or increases the efficiency and effectiveness of stakeholder engagement activities as the project evolves and its environment changes.

Question 353

Monitoring and Controlling Process Group

Answer 353

One of the five Project Management Process Groups. It consists of those processes required to track, review, and regulate the progress and performance of the project; identify any areas in which changes to the plan are required; and initiate the corresponding changes.

Question 354

Monte Carlo Analysis

Answer 354

Refers to a simulation technique in project management by which the project manager computes and calculates the total project cost and the project schedule using various scenarios. A set of input values are selected taking into consideration the of probability distributions, potential costs, and potential durations. It allows a project manager to calculate a probable total cost of a project as well as to find a range or a potential date of completion for the project.

Question 355

Monte Carlo Simulation (risk analysis)

Answer 355

A risk management technique, which project managers use to estimate the impacts of various risks on the project cost and project timeline. Using this method, one can easily find out what will happen to the project schedule and cost in case any risk occurs. It is used at various times during the project life cycle to get the idea on a range of probable outcomes during various scenarios.

Question 356

Moscow Analysis

Answer 356

A prioritization technique used in management, business analysis, project management, and software development to reach a common understanding with stakeholders on the importance they place on the delivery of each requirement; it is also known as MoSCoW prioritization or MoSCoW analysis.

Question 357

Motivation

Answer 357

The inner drive or external encouragement that keeps people involved and wanting to complete work of high quality in a timely fashion.

Question 358

Multi-Criteria Decision Analysis

Answer 358

A technique that utilizes a decision matrix to provide a systematic, analytical approach for establishing criteria, such as risk levels, uncertainty, and valuation, to evaluate and rank many ideas.

Question 359

Negative Float

Answer 359

The amount of time that must be saved to bring the project to completion on time.

Question 360

Negotiated Settlements

Answer 360

The product or output of negotiation, representing a final, equitable, mutually agreed disposition of all outstanding issues, claims, and disputes.

Question 361

Negotiation

Answer 361

An approach used by more than one individual or group to come to an agreement or resolution that is mutually agreed by all parties.

Question 362

Net Present Value (NPV)

Answer 362

The difference between the present value of cash inflows and the present value of cash outflows over a period of time. NPV is used in capital budgeting and investment planning to analyze the financial viability of a projected investment or project.

Question 363

Net Promoter Score (NPS)

Answer 363

Measures a customer’s willingness to recommend a provider’s products or services to another on a scale of -100 to 100.

Question 364

Network Diagram

Answer 364

A graph that shows the activities, duration, and interdependencies of tasks within a project.

Question 365

Node

Answer 365

Represents the start or end of an activity in a sequence.

Question 366

Nominal Group Technique

Answer 366

A technique that enhances brainstorming with a voting process used to rank the most useful ideas for further brainstorming or for prioritization.

Question 367

Nonfunctional Requirements (NFRs)

Answer 367

A term from agile software development. NFRs define system attributes such as security, reliability, performance, maintainability, scalability and usability. They serve as constraints or restrictions on the design of the system across backlogs.

Question 368

Non-Verbal Communication

Answer 368

The use of body language and other means besides the spoken word—posture, gestures, dress and appearance, facial expressions, and the like—to communicate.

Question 369

Observations

Answer 369

Techniques used to gain knowledge of a specific job role, task, or function to understand and determine project requirements. See ‘Job Shadowing’.

Question 370

Opportunity

Answer 370

A risk that, if developed, could create a positive effect on one or more project objectives.

Question 371

Opportunity Cost

Answer 371

A concept applied to quantify the missed opportunity when deciding to use a resource (e.g., investment dollars) for one purpose versus another. Alternately opportunity cost is the loss of potential future return from the second-best unselected project. In other words, it is the opportunity (potential return) that will not be realized when one project is selected over another.

Question 372

Organizational Chart

Answer 372

A diagram that shows the structure of an organization and the relationships and relative ranks of its parts and positions/jobs. It is typically a diagram that visually conveys a company’s internal structure by detailing the roles, responsibilities, and relationships between individuals within an entity.

Question 373

Organizational Culture

Answer 373

The underlying beliefs, assumptions, values, and behaviors that contribute to and define the unique social and psychological environment of an organization.

Question 374

Organizational Process Assets (OPA)

Answer 374

Refers to all the implicit input or assets on processes used by an organization in operating a business. This may include business plans, processes, policies, protocols, and knowledge.

Question 375

Organizational Silo

Answer 375

Occurs when employees or an entire department are isolated or refuse to share information or interact with others in the same company. Thus, the flow of critical information will be contained within that department. See also ‘Silo’.

Question 376

Organizational Theory

Answer 376

The study of how people, teams, and organizations behave. It is part of the search for common themes for the purpose of maximizing efficiency and productivity, problem solving, and meeting the stakeholder requirements of a project.

Question 377

Osmotic Communication

Answer 377

Communication which occurs informally or indirectly and through means such as overhearing, as a result of people sitting in the same room/environment.

Question 378

Output

Answer 378

A product, result, or service generated by a process. May be an input to a successor process.

Question 379

Outsourcing

Answer 379

Moving beyond the organization to secure services and expertise from an outside source on a contract or short-term basis.

Question 380

Overlapping Relationships

Answer 380

A type of phase-to-phase relationship characterized by phases that start prior to the ending of the previous phase. Therefore, activities in different phases run concurrently with one another.

Question 381

Paralingual Communications

Answer 381

The effect of pitch, tone, and inflections in the sender’s voice on the message being sent. For example, facial expressions, hand gestures, and body language contribute to the message.

Question 382

Parametric Estimating

Answer 382

An estimating technique in which an algorithm is used to calculate cost or duration based on historical data and project parameters. This technique is scalable and linear.

Question 383

Pareto Chart

Answer 383

A histogram that is used to rank causes of problems in a hierarchical format. See also ‘80/20 Rule’.

Question 384

Path

Answer 384

The sequence of project network activities.

Question 385

Payback Period

Answer 385

The interval required to amass (via profit or value) the initial investment made for a project.

Question 386

PDCA/PDSA

Answer 386

Plan Do Check/Study Act – also known as the ‘Deming Wheel’. A process or method used to solve problems and implement solutions.

Question 387

Penalty Power

Answer 387

The ability to gain support because project personnel perceive the project manager as capable of directly or indirectly dispensing penalties that they wish to avoid. Penalty power usually derives from the same sources as reward power, with one being a necessary condition for the other.

Question 388

Perform Integrated Change Control

Answer 388

The process of reviewing all change requests, approving changes, and managing changes to deliverables, project documents, and the project management plan. These decisions are communicated to stakeholders.

Question 389

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

Answer 389

A process used to identify individual risks by looking at how likely they are to happen (probability of occurrence) and how bad they would be for the project if they did happen (impact).

Question 390

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

Answer 390

The process of numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives.

Question 391

Persona

Answer 391

An imaginary person or identity created by the team to model interactions with the system to gather requirements.

Question 392

Phase

Answer 392

Refers to a collection of activities within a project. Each project phase is goal oriented and ends at a milestone.

Question 393

Phase Gate

Answer 393

A point review at the end of a phase in which a decision is made to continue to the next phase, to continue with modification, or to end a project or program.

Question 394

Plan Communications Management

Answer 394

Performed periodically, as needed, throughout the project, this is the process of developing an appropriate approach and plan for project communications activities based on the information needs of each stakeholder or group, available organizational assets, and the needs of the project. The key benefit of this process is a documented approach to engage stakeholders effectively and efficiently by presenting relevant information in a timely manner.

Question 395

Plan Cost Management

Answer 395

Performed once or at predefined points in the project, this is the process of defining how the project costs will be estimated, budgeted, managed, monitored, and controlled. The key benefit of this process is that it provides guidance and direction on how the project costs will be managed throughout the project.

Question 396

Plan Procurement Management Process

Answer 396

Performed once or at predefined points in the project, this is the process of documenting project procurement decisions, specifying the approach and identifying potential sellers. The key benefit of this process is that it determines whether to acquire goods and services from outside the project and, if so, what to acquire as well as how and when to acquire it. Goods and services may be procured from other parts of the performing organization or from external sources.

Question 397

Plan Quality Management

Answer 397

Performed once or at predefined points in the project, the process of identifying quality requirements and/or standards for the project and its deliverables and documenting how the project will demonstrate compliance with quality requirements and/or standards. The key benefit of this process is that it provides guidance and direction on how quality will be managed and verified throughout the project.

Question 398

Plan Resource Management

Answer 398

Performed once or at predefined points in the project, this is the process of defining how to estimate, acquire, manage, and use team and physical resources. The key benefit of this process is that it establishes the approach and level of management effort needed for managing project resources based on the type and complexity of the project.

Question 399

Plan Risk Management

Answer 399

Performed once or at predefined points in the project, this is the process of defining how to conduct risk management activities for a project. The key benefit of this process is that it ensures that the degree, type, and visibility of risk management are proportionate to both risks and the importance of the project to the organization and other stakeholders.

Question 400

Plan Schedule Management

Answer 400

Performed once or at predefined points in the project, this is the process of establishing the policies, procedures, and documentation for planning, developing, managing, executing, and controlling the project schedule. The key benefit of this process is that it provides guidance and direction on how the project schedule will be managed throughout the project.

Question 401

Plan Scope Management

Answer 401

Performed once or at predefined points in the project, this is the process of creating a scope management plan that documents how the project and product scope will be defined, validated, and controlled. The key benefit of this process is that it provides guidance and direction on how scope will be managed throughout the project.

Question 402

Plan Stakeholder Engagement Process

Answer 402

Performed periodically throughout the project as needed, this is the process of developing approaches to involve project stakeholders based on their needs, expectations, interests, and potential impact on the project. The key benefit is that it provides an actionable plan to interact effectively with stakeholders.

Question 403

Planned Value (PV)

Answer 403

The approved value of the work to be completed for a specific period of time.

Question 404

Planning package

Answer 404

A WBS component below the control account with known work content but without detailed schedule activities.

Question 405

Planning Poker

Answer 405

Agile exercise to help the team estimate work.

Question 406

Planning Process Group

Answer 406

One of the five Project Management Process Groups. It consists of those processes required to establish the scope of the project, refine the objectives, and define the course of action required to attain the objectives that the project was undertaken to achieve.

Question 407

Plurality

Answer 407

Decisions made by the largest block in a group, even if a majority is not achieved.

Question 408

PMBOK®

Answer 408

PMBOK® stands for Project Management Body of Knowledge, and it is the entire collection of processes, best practices, terminologies, and guidelines that are accepted as standard within the project management industry.

Question 409

PMBOK® Guide

Answer 409

A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK® Guide) is the Project Management Institute’s flagship publication representing standards in the business area of project management. It is currently in its Seventh Edition.

Question 410

Political Awareness

Answer 410

The ability to recognize the power structure internal to the organization, and the ability to navigate the relationships.

Question 411

Portfolio

Answer 411

Projects, programs, subsidiary portfolios, and operations managed as a group to achieve strategic objectives.

Question 412

Portfolio Management

Answer 412

The centralized management of one or more portfolios to achieve strategic objectives.

Question 413

Power/Influence Grid

Answer 413

A classification model that groups stakeholders on the basis of their levels of authority and involvement in the project.

Question 414

Power/Interest Grid

Answer 414

A classification model that groups stakeholders on the basis of their levels of authority and interest in the project.

Question 415

Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM)

Answer 415

A technique used to create the network diagram. It constructs a schedule model in which activities are represented by nodes and are graphically linked by one or more logical relationships to show the sequence in which the activities are to be performed.

Question 416

Precedence Relationship

Answer 416

A logical dependency used in the precedence diagramming methods.

Question 417

Predictive Life Cycle

Answer 417

Project management approach in which activities are completed in a distinct or linear fashion and a new phase begins only when the previous phase is completed. Value is delivered at the completion of the project in the form of deliverables. Also known as ‘Waterfall’.

Question 418

Present Value (PV)

Answer 418

The current value of a future sum of money or stream of cash flows given a specific rate of return.

Question 419

Preventative Action

Answer 419

Action taken to proactively prevent or avoid anticipated future problems. This is closely tied to risk management.

Question 420

Prevention

Answer 420

A concept in quality management that indicates that quality cannot be inspected into a product but should be planned for from the start to avoid problems.

Question 421

Probability and Impact Matrix

Answer 421

A grid for mapping the probability of occurrence of each risk and its impact on project objectives if that risk occurs.

Question 422

Probability Distribution

Answer 422

The scattering of values assigned to likelihood in a sample population. It can be visually depicted in the form of a probability density function (PDF).

Question 423

Process

Answer 423

A systematic series of activities directed towards causing a result such that one or more inputs will be acted upon to create one or more outputs.

Question 424

Process Improvement Plan

Answer 424

A component of the project management plan, this document describes the processes used in the production of the project’s deliverables, how they will be monitored, and under what conditions they may be changed.

Question 425

Procurement

Answer 425

The acquisition of goods and services from an external organization, vendor, or supplier to enable the deliverables of the project.

Question 426

Procurement Audit

Answer 426

The review of procurement contracts and contracting processes for completeness, accuracy, and effectiveness.

Question 427

Procurement Documents

Answer 427

Documents used in bid and proposal activities, which include the buyer’s invitation for bid, expression of interest (EOI); invitation for negotiations; request for information (RFI); request for quotation (RFQ); request for proposal (RFP); and seller’s responses.

Question 428

Procurement Management Plan

Answer 428

A component of the project or program management plan that describes how a project team will acquire goods and services from outside the executing organization.

Question 429

Procurement Statement of Work (SOW)

Answer 429

Describes the procurement item in sufficient detail to allow prospective sellers to determine their capability of executing the tasks necessary to deliver the deliverables, products, services, or outputs.

Question 430

Product

Answer 430

An artifact that is produced, is quantifiable, and can be either an end item in itself or a component item. See also ‘Deliverable’.

Question 431

Product Analysis

Answer 431

For projects that deliver a product, this is a tool to define scope. It generally means asking questions about a product and forming answers to describe the use, characteristics, and other relevant aspects of what is going to be manufactured.

Question 432

Product Backlog

Answer 432

A Scrum term. A prioritized list of customer requirements that will improve a product/service. This list represents the single source for work.

Question 433

Product Box Exercise

Answer 433

A technique used to explain a desired solution or outcome. Stakeholders try to describe aspects of a solution in the same way a marketer might describe product features and benefits on a box.

Question 434

Product Owner

Answer 434

An individual or an organization who is responsible for gathering inputs about a product from the customer and translating the requirements into the product vision for the team and stakeholders.

Question 435

Product Life Cycle

Answer 435

A series of phases that represent the evolution of a product, from concept through delivery, growth, maturity, and to retirement.

Question 436

Product Management

Answer 436

The integration of people, data, processes, and business systems to create, maintain, and evolve a product or service throughout its life cycle.

Question 437

Product Roadmap

Answer 437

A high-level visual summary of the product or products of the project that includes goals, milestones, and potential deliverables.

Question 438

Product Scope

Answer 438

The functions and features that characterize a product or a service.

Question 439

Program

Answer 439

Related projects, subsidiary programs, and program activities that are managed in a coordinated manner to obtain benefits not available from individual management of them. A project may or may not be part of a program, but a program will always have projects.

Question 440

Program Management

Answer 440

The application of knowledge, skills, and principles to a program to achieve program objectives and obtain benefits and control not available by management of program components individually.

Question 441

Program Management

Answer 441

The process of managing programs mapped to business objectives that improve organizational performance. Program managers oversee and coordinate the various projects and other strategic initiatives throughout an organization.

Question 442

Progressive Elaboration

Answer 442

The iterative process of increasing the level of detail in a project management plan as greater amounts of information and more accurate estimates become available.

Question 443

Project

Answer 443

A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result.

Question 444

Project Artifact

Answer 444

Any document related to the management of a project.

Question 445

Project Calendar

Answer 445

The project calendar specifies the working and non-working days and times for activities.

Question 446

Project Charter

Answer 446

A document issued by the project initiator or sponsor that formally authorizes the existence of a project and provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities.

Question 447

Project Coordinator

Answer 447

A project coordinator handles administrative tasks for the project manager and team members to manage a project effectively and efficiently. Tasks may include procuring project resources such as equipment and supplies, managing deadlines, workflow, and scheduling project meetings and other appointments on behalf of the project team.

Question 448

Project Documents

Answer 448

Any documents that are prepared in support of a project – for example, requirements, specifications, contracts with vendors, design documents, test plans, and publications that will be delivered to the client along with the final product.
1. Activity attributes
2. Activity list
3. Assumption log
4. Basis of estimates
5. Change log
6. Cost estimates
7. Cost forecasts
8. Duration estimates
9. Issue log
10.Lessons learned register
11.Milestone list
12.Physical resource assignments
13.Project calendars
14.Project communications
15.Project schedule
16.Project schedule network diagram
17.Project scope statement
18.Project team assignments
19.Quality control measurements
20.Quality metrics
21.Quality report
22.Requirements documentation
23.Requirements traceability matrix
24.Resource breakdown structure
25.Resource calendars
26.Resource requirements
27.Risk register
28.Risk report
29.Schedule data
30.Schedule forecasts
31.Stakeholder register
32.Team charter
33.Test and evaluation documents

Question 449

Project Expeditor

Answer 449

Role or position on a project team that works as an assistant and coordinates communications on behalf of the team. Individuals performing in this role cannot make or enforce decisions but can communicate with the contractors or suppliers of project resources to ensure the timely delivery of materials.

Question 450

Project Funding

Answer 450

The means by which the money required to undertake a project, program or portfolio is secured and then made available as required.

Question 451

Project Funding Requirements

Answer 451

Budgetary requirements that specify when funds will be needed to be provided for the project.

Question 452

Project Governance

Answer 452

The framework, functions, and processes that guide project management activities to create a unique product, service, or result to meet organizational, strategic, and operational goals.

Question 453

Project Life Cycle

Answer 453

The series of phases that a project passes through from its start to its completion.

Question 454

Project Management

Answer 454

The application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to fulfill the project plan.

Question 455

Project Management Information System (PMIS)

Answer 455

An information system consisting of the tools and techniques used to gather, integrate, and disseminate the outputs of project management processes. See also ‘Project Management Software’.

Question 456

Project Management Institute (PMI®)

Answer 456

A professional membership association for project managers.

Question 457

Project Management Office (PMO)

Answer 457

A management structure that standardizes the project-related governance processes and facilitates the sharing of resources, methodologies, tools, and techniques. PMOs are more common in larger organizations because of the number of projects that can be in process at the same time.

Question 458

Project Management Plan

Answer 458

The document that describes how the project will be executed, monitored and controlled, and closed.

Question 459

Project Management Process Groups

Answer 459

Refers specifically to five logic-oriented groupings of project management processes. These include:
1. Initiation
2. Planning
3. Executing
4. Monitoring and Controlling
5. Closing

Question 460

Project Management Software

Answer 460

An automated application that helps plan, organize, and manage project resources and develop resource estimates for activities. See also ‘Project Management Information System (PMIS)’.

Question 461

Project Manager

Answer 461

The person assigned by the performing organization to lead the team that is responsible for achieving the project goals and objectives.

Question 462

Project Meetings

Answer 462

In-person or virtual communication events held with stakeholders that intend to generate group decisions, such as discussing issues, creating proposals, and approving or rejecting offers which can contribute to quicker project deliverables, planned goals, and expected results. Project meetings are an effective method of distributing information and communicating with the team and stakeholders.

Question 463

Project Methodology

Answer 463

A system of principles, practices, techniques, procedures, and rules used by those who manage projects.

Question 464

Project Performance Domains

Answer 464

A project performance domain is a group of related activities that are critical for the effective delivery of project outcomes. Project performance domains are interactive, interrelated, and interdependent areas of focus that work in unison to achieve desired project outcomes. There are eight project performance domains:
• Stakeholders
• Team
• Development Approach and Life Cycle
• Planning
• Project Work
• Delivery
• Measurement
• Uncertainty

Question 465

Project Phase

Answer 465

A collection of logically related project activities that culminates in the completion of one or more deliverables. A phase has a set of goals and objectives, and the attainment of these goals/objectives triggers a milestone.

Question 466

Project Plan

Answer 466

Defines project goals and objectives, specifies tasks, and methodology. The plan identifies the resources required, associated budgets, and timelines for completion. A project plan is expected to define all works in a project, the human resources and other resources required to execute the plan in its entirety.

Question 467

Project Requirements

Answer 467

For a project, these are the agreed-upon conditions or capabilities of a product, service, or outcome that a project is designed to satisfy. See also ‘Requirements’.

Question 468

Project Schedule Network Diagram

Answer 468

A graphical representation of the logical relationships among the project schedule activities. An output of a schedule model that presents linked activities with planned dates, durations, milestones, and resources. See also ‘Network Diagram’.

Question 469

Project Scope

Answer 469

The features, functions, and works that characterize the delivery of a product, service, and/or result.

Question 470

Project Scope Statement

Answer 470

The description of the project scope, major deliverables, assumptions, and constraints.

Question 471

Project Sponsor

Answer 471

A person or group who provides resources and support for the project, program, or portfolio and is accountable for enabling success. See also ‘Sponsor’.

Question 472

Project Team

Answer 472

A set of individuals performing the work of the project to achieve its objectives.

Question 473

Projectized Organization

Answer 473

A structure in which a project manager and a core project team operate as a separate organizational unit within the parent organization.

Question 474

Prompt List

Answer 474

A checklist for a specific category of risk. This tool is a simple series of broad risks, for example environmental or legal, rather than specific risks, such as flooding or regulatory changes. The idea is to push (prompt) the team to think and brainstorm the risks in groups and eventually prioritize the same.

Question 475

Prototypes

Answer 475

A method of obtaining early feedback on user requirements by building a working model of the expected product. Prototypes can be used to solicit aesthetics, functionalities etc. Several iterations maybe displayed.

Question 476

Psychological Safety

Answer 476

Being able to show and employ oneself without fear of negative consequences of status, career, or self-worth—we should be comfortable being ourselves in our work setting.

Question 477

Pull Communications

Answer 477

Messages that require the interested people to access the information based on their own initiative.

Question 478

Push Communications

Answer 478

Messages that are sent out to people who need to receive the information.

Question 479

Qualified Vendors

Answer 479

The vendors who are approved to deliver the products, services, or results based on the procurement requirements identified for a project.

Question 480

Qualified Vendors List

Answer 480

Contains details regarding vendors who meet the organization’s requirements and to whom requests can be sent.

Question 481

Qualitative Risk Analysis

Answer 481

A technique used to determine the probability of occurrence and the impact of identified risk.

Question 482

Quality

Answer 482

The degree to which a set of inherent characteristics fulfills requirements.

Question 483

Quality Audit

Answer 483

A structured, independent process to determine if project activities comply with organizational and project policies, processes, and procedures.

Question 484

Quality Function Deployment (QFD)

Answer 484

Workshops that are commonly used in the manufacturing field to determine new product development requirements.

Question 485

Quality Gate

Answer 485

A special type of gate located before a phase that is strongly dependent upon the outcome of a previous phase. The quality gate process is a formal way of specifying and recording the transition between stages in the project life cycle.

Question 486

Quality Management Plan

Answer 486

A component of the project or program management plan that describes how applicable policies, procedures, and guidelines will be implemented to achieve the quality objectives.

Question 487

Quality Metric

Answer 487

A description of a project or product attribute and how to measure it.

Question 488

Quality Policy

Answer 488

The basic principles that should govern the organization’s actions as it implements its system for quality management.

Question 489

Quality Report

Answer 489

A project document that includes quality management issues, recommendations for corrective actions, and a summary of findings from quality control activities and may include recommendations for process, project, and product improvements.

Question 490

Quantitative Risk Analysis

Answer 490

Technique used to assess the risk exposure events to overall project objectives and determine the confidence levels of achieving the project objectives.

Question 491

Questionnaires

Answer 491

Written sets of questions designed to quickly gather information from many respondents.