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Technical Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Approach charts: Diffrerence between DA and MDA?

A

DA (decision altitude):
Specified altitude on the descent path of a 3D approach at which point a a go around MUST be initiated if the minimum visual requirements have not been met (50ft limit below)



MDA (minimum descent altitude): The lowest permissible altitude during a 2D approach, which can only be descended below if visual.

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2
Q

How will a rain shower affect your arrival?

A
  1. Contaminate the runway, Increases landing distance.
  2. Changes in wind, temperature can be expected. Potential downdrafts and updrafts.
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3
Q

Contaminated runway definition:

A

> 25% of the runway surface area being used is covered by:
1. Water >3mm depth
2. Loose Snow >20mm depth
3. Any compact snow (includes any ice)

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4
Q

What are acceptable QNH sources?

A

Actual Aerodrome QNH:
1. AWIS/ATIS
2. ATC (Including certified air/ground radio services)
3. Weather and terminal information reciter (Same as ATIS/AWIS)

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5
Q
  • Wake turbulence separation
A

Separation categories:

- SUPER: A380 or AN225 (4 minutes/8NM from LIGHT - 6NM from HEAVY)

-HEAVY: MTOW ABOVE 136’000KG 
- MEDIUM: MTOW ABOVE 7000KG
- LIGHT: MTOW UP TO 7000KG (2 minutes/5NM from Medium)

Time+dist space
Time spacing = 2 - 4 minutes.

Distance: 4-8NM.

WAIVERS:

ATC is NOT required to give wake turbulence separation: 

1. VFR aircraft in flight. 
2. MED <25T preceding a light aircraft. 
3. Landing aircraft.


IFR flights can request a separation waiver if visual with preceding aircraft

Seperation will not be given if preceding aircraft is an A330 or larger.

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6
Q
  • Missed approach criteria:

When must you conduct a MA?

A
  1. Straight-in landing cannot be effected unless a circling approach can be conducted in suitable weather conditions.
  2. Not visual when you reach the DA/RA height or MAPT
  3. Required NAV PERFORMANCE lost (Loss of Integrity: (UNABLE REQD NAV PERF- RNP, FMC DISAGREE or VERIFY POSITION)
  4. Outside navigational tolerance during final segment
  5. Failure of aid or suspect aid and below MSA
  6. Lost visual reference during circling
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7
Q

What is Part 121 missed approach climb gradient requirement?

A

greater of:
(i) the published missed approach climb gradient or
(ii) 2.5%

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8
Q

How do you calculate rate of climb required on missed approach given ground speed?

A

G/S x Gradient = RoC or RoD required. 



Slope to gradient conversion:


1º Slope = 1.73% gradient. (Slope x 1.73% = gradient.) eg 
2.5% gradient = 1.44º Slope.

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9
Q

Equation to calculate ISA deviation?

A

ISA OAT = (15°- (ALT x 2))

minus OAT FROM ISA OAT to find deviation. 

ISA temperature is + 15°C at mean sea level (MSL), with a 2°C per
1000 ft lapse rate.

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10
Q

What does a NOSIG on a metar indicate?

A

No significant change expected to trend. (Not used in TAF3’s)


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11
Q

Visibility requirements for a SPECI ?

A

When the prevailing visibility is below:

5km, or

the highest alternate minimum visibility,

whichever is more limiting.

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12
Q

TAF indicates Tempo commencing 15 minutes after your ETA. How much extra fuel do you need to take?

A

60 Min holding fuel.

AIP ENR 1.1 10.7.2.4 & 10.7.2.8

Provision of an alternate is not needed as long as you carry 60 minutes holding fuel.

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13
Q

TAF3 indicates Tempo commencing 15 minutes after your ETA, instead of a TAF. How much fuel is required?

A

NO HOLDING FUEL required.

The 30 minute buffers required by AIP ENR 1.1 para 11.7.2.1(c) and AIP ENR 1.1 para 11.7.2.7 & 11.7.2.8 are not required for any OPR in the first 3 hours of a TAF3.

The holding or alternate requirements contained in the first 3 hours of a TAF3 are deemed to commence at the time stated in the TAF3 and no 30 minute buffer is required to be applied.
However, for OPRs contained beyond the first 3 hours of the TAF3 do require the 30 minute buffer.

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14
Q

Will the altimeter under or over read with cold air?

A

Cold Air causes altimeter to OVER READ.

(Low temperatures reduces terrain clearance. When the temperature is colder than ISA, true altitude will be lower than indicated altitude.)

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15
Q

What is the correct phraseology when responding to a RA?

A

Call sign … “TCAS RA”

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16
Q

You require a 5% climb gradient to 3000 ft, your ground speed of 200 kts, what is your required Rate of Climb?

A

1000 fpm

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17
Q
  • In cruise the cabin altitude starts to rise, what happens to the cabin differential
    pressure?
A

Reduces.

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18
Q

Requirements for Radiation fog formation



What would you expect to see on a METAR that’s conducive to formation of fog?

A
  1. High humidity (Overnight cooling will be sufficient for the air temperature to fall to below its dewpoint temperature resulting in condensation occurring )
  2. Clear sky (To enable radiation)
  3. Light winds (Mix the air few hundred feet )

Fog usually disperses a few hours after sunrise

Fog forms in the same way as cloud by being cooled beyond saturation point

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19
Q

What speed do you notify atc about difference in your speed vs planned speed

A

A sustained speed variation of more than +- 10 kts or +-M0.02, must advise ATC.

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20
Q

Final Approach (FAF) speed for your CAT C of aircraft

A

115kts-160kts

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21
Q

Stable approach criteria etc

A

Maintaining: stable 3 Dimnetional speeds in landing configuration is commonly referred to as the stabilized approach concept.

1. Correct flight path
2. Minimal changes needed to all aspects including thrust and navigation (Within tolerance)
3. Speed within +10kts and -5 kts Vref
4. Correct landing configuration
5. Sink rate less than 1000ft pm (Unless briefed)
6. Checklist completed

1000 ft IMC & 500ft VMC (wings level at 300ft during circling approach)

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22
Q

Holding pattern maximum speeds:

A

230, 240, 265kts
140, 200, 340 Thousands Feet

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23
Q

ASDA – performance of aircraft definition. Describe ASDA, what does it include?

A

Take-off run available plus the length of stopway, if provided. (Any stopway length included shall be adequate for use by all aircraft which comply with the runway strength rating.)

TORA + STOPWAY

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24
Q

METAR – RF – what does that mean?

A

Rainfall:

Since 9am L and in last 10 minutes

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25
Q

Class D ATC separation provided (Flight rules)

A

IFR and VFR flights are permitted and all flights are provided with an ATC service. 

Separation:
IFR / IFR = Yes
IFR / VFR = No (traffic information only)
IFR / Special VFR = Yes
(Special VFR will receive separation from other special VFR when visibility below VMC)


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26
Q

What is the approach ban limitation?

A

APPROACH BAN — An approach procedure, for which continuation is prohibited beyond a specific point, and or specified height, if the reported visibility or RVR is below the minimum specified for that approach:

May commence an approach regardless of RVR/Visibility.

If reported visibility is BELOW minimum, approach must NOT CONTINUE below 1000ft AAL (or DA if more than 1000ft AAL.

If reported visibility drops BELOW minimum after descending below 1000ft, the approach may be continued to the DA. 



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27
Q

⁃ Cat C speeds

A

Max speeds to Consider:

Approaches cannot be flown faster than 240kts
After FAF: 160 kts
Circling: 180 kts
Missed App: 240 kts

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28
Q

Critical engine

A

# note

Our engines are counter rotating.

Most critically affected engine failure if we rejected the take off depends on wind.

Cross wind affects the control due to tendency for aircraft to turn
into wind as result of rudder deflection.

Generally the left engine is considered the critical engine. When there is a strong left x wind a left EF situation can be dangerous if not properly handled.

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29
Q

Visual approach requirements before ATC may authorise ( DAY & NIGHT)

A

Both DAY & NIGHT:

Within 30NM

Clear of cloud

In sight of ground or water

5Km visibility


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30
Q

What wil activate the Take off warning horn

A

Activates if: F.L.O.B.S

1. FLAPS: not in takeoff range, or asymmetrical condition/ un-commanded position.
2. LED : not configured for takeoff/ uncommanded motion
3. Brakes is not in position (Speed brake down and Park brake released.)
4. Out of trim (green take off range) 
5. Spoiler control valve is open and providing pressure to valve.

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31
Q

TAF cloud height datum?

A

Cloud height is given in hundreds of feet above the aerodrome.

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32
Q
  • Wind gust on final established ILS what happens to airspeed?
A

With constant Attitude:

Increase in headwind, will increase IAS. Decrease in headwind will reduce IAS.

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33
Q

During a circling approach in IMC you lose visual contact with the runway, what are your initial actions and how do you proceed? AKA how do you conduct a missed approach from circling.

A

Execute a climbing turn towards the landing runway and fly the published missed approach procedure for the IAP executed.

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34
Q

What is cost index?

A

A cost index (Cl) is a performance management function which optimises the aircraft’s speed for the minimum cost.

A low cost index reflects high fuel costs (as in fuel is $$ per dollar) and results in a lower cruise speed.

Ranges: 1-200
LRC = 25 (Approx)
CI 0 = Maximum Range


The CI is the ratio of the time-related cost of an airplane operation an

CI take into account specific route factors such as the price of fuel at the departure and destination airports so that the aircraft is flown at the correct speed to balance the fuel costs against the dry operating costs. An incorrect CI will always cost more money.

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35
Q

If ground speed is 150kts what rate of descent would you need for a 3-degree profile?

A

800fpm (780 exactly)

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36
Q

What is the missed approach climb gradient?

A

Greater of:
-2.5% minimum or
- gradient required on chart.

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37
Q

If you had a sudden increase in headwind what effect would this have on Indicated
airspeed?

A

increase IAS.

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38
Q

What colour are edge taxi lights?

A

Blue (Fixed)

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39
Q

Cloud height datum on METAR or ATIS

A

ATIS = AAL
METAR = AAL

Reference point.

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40
Q

Time of useful consciousness at FL300?

A

About a minute: 



45-85 seconds (active depending)

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41
Q
  1. ASDA vs TORA?
A

TORA = The length of runway declared available for taking off.

ASDA = TORA + STOPWAY (Distance available for stopping in the event of a RTO)

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42
Q

Difference VX and VY

A

Vx - Max angle of climb (steepest angle or highest
gradient of climb used to clear close-in obstacles over the shortest
horizontal distance.

Vy - Max rate of climb (highest vertical speed that
gains height in the shortest time.

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43
Q

What does an inverter do?

A

Converts Direct Current (DC) to Alternating Current (AC) power. (Standby power - from the battery)

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44
Q

In controlled airspace, at night time, after receiving clearance to conduct a visual Approach, when can you conduct a visual approach?

A



NIGHT:

Within circling area, Aerodrome within sight. (3nm for non IAL aerodromes)
Or withint 5NM aligned with RWY centreline, no below “on slope” PAPI indications (two red, two white) or 7NM if ILS equipped meeting criteria , or

10NM with less than full scale deflection established not below glide-path. (14NM at YSSY RWY 34 & 16L same criteria)


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45
Q

What radio call would you make if landing below fixed reserve fuel?

A

Call sign “MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY FUEL”

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46
Q

Which way would I turn if there was volcanic activity.

A

Atleast 180 degree to get out of volcanic ash. (Check heading add 180 degree and turn away from terrain)

To avoid volcanic ash discharge, fly upwind of activity.

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47
Q

Blue and white light flashing at aerodrome?

A

White light (Warning light): storm activity within 10NM .
Blue light (Vacate the ramp area): storm activity is within 5NM (ground crew and airport staff need to leave the tarmac immediately.

10 & 5NM

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48
Q

How does Wind effects speed and lift

A

Increase in headwind will increase IAS + Increase lift (Overshoot)

Decrease in headwind will decrease IAS. (Undershoot) - decrease lift 

Decrease in tailwind will increase IAS + Increase lift

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49
Q

When atc provide separation from terrain?

A

When vectors received by ATC, terrain clearance will be provided by ATC.

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50
Q

Where to find info on system specific pages such as gps monitoring

A

Flight Crew Operating manual, AIP/Jeppesen.

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51
Q

What is the difference between an AIRMET & SIGMET.

A

SIGMET provides potential hazardous weather phenomena to aircraft in areas over which weather watch is maintained.

AIRMET provides advice on deteriorating conditions, not already included in GAF’s (AIRMETs are complimentary to GAFs).

Generally SIGMET are for high altitude operations and AIRMET for lower altitudes.

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52
Q

ILS 16L in SYD told to go around 2000ft how do you handle it?

A
    1. Call “GOING AROUND” & press TOGA button.
    1. Call FLAP15
  • Pitch to 15º N.U, check positive rate
  • Call “GEAR UP”
  • Call “Check Thrust”
  • Fly Missed approach procedure.

NOTE: If a missed approach climb is initiated before MAPt, the aircraft MUST track to the MAPt BEFORE commencing the missed approach procedure. Fly tracks and level out upon reaching limiting altitude.

JEPP:

A pilot executing a missed approach prior to the Missed Approach Point (MAP) must continue along the final approach to the MAP. The pilot may climb immediately to the altitude specified in the missed approach procedure.

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53
Q

Alternating red and white centreline lights: runway length remaining?

A

900M

(900 - 300 meters from the END of the alternating Red and White (300m from end red)

Colour coded runway centreline, used to warn a pilot of the approaching end of the runway. 

White lights will change to alternate white/red (2 x white, 2 x red), and then red only as the aircraft reaches the runway end.

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54
Q

DME arc tolerance

A

+-2NM

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55
Q

What would you expect to see on a closed runway (Unserviceable)

A

White cross

56
Q

COBT requirements out of Perth

A

Departure ONLY: -5min +10min 

Arrival: -5 +15 As usual.

57
Q

Explain a coffin corner?

A

Coffin corner occurs where an aircrafts speeds at which Mach (high speed) buffet and low speed stall buffet (max performance) occur are coincidentally! 

Known as an aircraft’s absolute ceiling

58
Q

Take me through a rejected take off as if I was a new pilot on type?

A

Two types of RTO’s:

  1. Low-Speed RTO 
Prior to the 80-knot call, it is envisaged that the take-off will normally be rejected for any significant malfunction or abnormal situation. Speed will l usually be well below the applicable VMCG (the speed at which insufficient rudder authority is available) and so it is important for a pilot carrying out any low speed rejected take-off to be ready to make any necessary control inputs to the nose gear steering system via the tiller.

2. High Speed RTO (AFTER 80kts) 
Whilst a successful rejection of take-off from V1 is achievable in all but exceptional and very specific cases, it is universally recognised that the closer the speed gets to V1 the greater the risk involved in a decision to stop. 

Once at high speed, it is usually specified that the take-off will only be rejected for major malfunctions such as an engine failure, fire or at the discretion of the pilot in command in the event that a similarly serious situation is perceived. 







Rejected Take-offs and Runway Excursions
The main reasons why runway excursions occur during rejected take-offs can be categorised as: 

1. The decision to reject the take-off is made after V1 and there is insufficient runway length left to come to a stop on it. 

2. The flight crew actions required to achieve a rejected take-off are not carried out in a sufficiently prompt and/or comprehensive manner.

3. Stopping devices are not used to their full capacity.

  1. It is found at VR that it is impossible to achieve rotation (performance)
59
Q

What is the purpose of swept wing?

A

Increase Mach number capability. Enables the outside of the wing to stall before the inside of the wing.

… increasing the aircrafts critical mach number.

Other benefits include reduces form drag due to their slender profile, and less suspect to turbulence due to their poor lift qualities.
60
Q

What is the purpose of winglets?

A

Reduces induced drag by dispensing span-wise airflow, preventing the intermixing of these airflows that otherwise would create induced-drag vortices




Fun fact, winglets actually increases parasite drag.

61
Q

CAVOK definition?

A

Greater than 10 km vis
No CB (Cumulonimbus) or TCU (Towering Cumulus) weather phenomena
No cloud below 5000 ft within 8km/5nm or 25 nm MSA, whichever is higher.

62
Q

What is V1?

A

V1 = max speed that a rejection can be commenced. Min speed a takeoff can be continued. At or after V1, continue takeoff.

VR = rotation speed, speed that will ensure following an engine failure that V2 is met by 35 ft.
Vref = 1.3 Vs
63
Q

What is maximum endurance ?

A

Occurs at best L/D ratio. Ensures maximum range is achieved. Very close to best angle climb speed (most excess thrust), and also is the glide speed. Vmd

64
Q

What is Max range speed?

A

speed at which, for a given weight and altitude, the maximum fuel mileage is obtained. Slightly slower than LRC

Occurs at 1.32 Vmdrag

65
Q

What is VMC minimas? (2.07 Par 91 MOS)

A

5 km Visibility (8 km above 10,000 ft).

1000 ft above and below cloud, 1500 m horizontal

Class D, 500 ft below cloud, 1000 ft above, 600 m horizontal

66
Q

Balanced field

A

When ASDR = TODR

REQUIRED 

The balanced field length is the shortest field when a balanced field takeoff can be performed.

67
Q

What does wet runway do to V1, why is screen height different.

A

Wet runway decreased V1. Due to longer distance required to stop. Screen height is reduced to 15 feet. This is due to a portion of the airborne distance being added to the ground run, as a result of the increased ground run used between the wet V1 and VR if an engine failure occurs at the worst point, i.e., just after the wet V1 and prior to VR

68
Q

What is a SPECI?

A

SPECI’s are published along with a METAR when conditions are below specified levels of meteorological conditions. 


  1. Wind changes (direction and speed)
2. Visibility is less than highest alternate minimum (standard is 5km)
3. Hazardous weather: TS, FG, FZ RA, GR, GS, SQ, SS, VA, +RA


Generally everything starting with:

F, G,R, S, T, V and PLUS (+)

69
Q

Adequate Aerodrome vs Suitable aerodrome?

A

Adequate (Capable) - Physical characteristics 
1. Performance. (Take and Landing),
2. ATC including weather services. 
3. Lighting,
4. At least one Instrument Approach
5. RFFS

Suitable (Allowed)
1. Relevant weather conditions allowing the operation. (Depending on EDTO operations or not) - Generally 200ft above Minima and 800m vis for AUS major ports (Dual ILS) and 400ft & 1500m for single runway operations. 



70
Q

What is raim ?

A

Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring

71
Q

What is Pressure Altitude?

A

Altitude indicated based off setting the QNH datum of 1013 (ISA standards)

72
Q

What is Density Altitude?

A

Density altitude is pressure altitude corrected for non-standard pressure affected by air density

The altitude the aircraft “thinks” it is flying at.

73
Q

Are winds forecast in true or magnetic?

A

Generally if it is written, it is true. So, METAR, TAF, Surface wind chart are written in degrees True.
ATIS, AWIS, anything a controller says is magnetic.

74
Q

How often are TAF3 issued, how long are they valid for? Are there buffers required?

A

Every 3 hrs: the Taf is valid for 18 - 30 hrs.

In the first 3 hrs buffer periods to changes or deteriorations in conditions do not need to be applied.

75
Q

What do you do if intercepted by fighter jet, 7700?

A

Follow the instructions of the intercepting aircraft out of the AIP.
Notify ATS if possible & Attempt to contact the intercepting aircraft on 121.5
Squawk 7700.


Follow aircraft signals (catch attention by “WAVING ARMS Analogy = rocking wings and flashing lights)
Wings rocking, lights flashing at irregular intervals = follow me. 
Doing the same means it is understood, will follow.

76
Q

What is aquaplanning and at what speed will the aircraft aquaplane?

A

9 X square root of the tire pressure in psi for takeoff

or

7.6 X square root of the tire pressure in
psi for landing

Aquaplaning is the phenomenon of a tire skating (not rotating) over
the runway surface on a thin film water. It is caused by the buildup of
a layer of water beneath the tire, which becomes a wedge between the
tire and the runway. This wedge of water effectively lifts the tire off
the ground, reducing the friction forces to practically zero. Therefore,
wheel braking has no effect, and directional control also may be lost.
Aquaplaning is extremely significant on jet transport aircraft and can
increase the stopping distance required significantly.

77
Q

What is the lift equation/formula?

A

L= CL + 1/2.R + V^2 + S

R (Rho)= value of the air density
V = airflow velocity
S = wing span area
C L = coefficient of lift

78
Q

Speed limitations in Class D aerodrome:

A

250kts below FL100
200kts below 2500ft & within 4NM (Can request to cancel 200kt limit)

79
Q

When can you leave a hold early?

A

Pilot must depart from the hold when instructed or cleared.

A pilot should leave the holding fix on time, or up to one (1) minute ahead of time, and unless identified, report leaving the holding fix.

80
Q

How would you know if you were in Volcanic ash?

A

Volcanic ash is suspected when:
•A static discharge around the windshield (st Elmo’s fire) and your in an area with volcanic activity.
•A bright glow in the engine inlets •Smoke or dust on the flight deck •An acrid/sulfur odor. (Pungent)

81
Q

How would you know if you were in Volcanic ash?

A

Volcanic ash is suspected when:
1. A static discharge around the windshield (st Elmo’s fire) and your in an area with volcanic activity.
2. A bright glow in the engine inlets
3. Smoke or dust on the flight deck
4. An acrid/sulfur odor. (Pungent)

82
Q

When will RVR be reported on a METAR?

A

Whenever the RVR or visibility is less than 1500m.

83
Q

When will RVR be reported on a METAR?

A

Whenever the RVR or visibility is less than 1500m.

84
Q

Whats the validity of a Metar/Speci outside of Australia?

A

2 hours

85
Q

Will the presence of Fog or Thunderstorm at an Aerodrome generate a SIGMET?

A

NO

86
Q

Which of the following weather reports is a warning of conditions that could be potentially hazardous to aircraft, ATIS, SIGMET or TAF?

A

SIGMET

87
Q

What is the boundary layer between troposphere and stratosphere called?

A

Tropopause

88
Q

An outside air temperature of -35 degrees is measured while cruising at FL200. What is the temperature deviation from ISA at this level?

A

10 degrees colder than ISA

89
Q

What does dewpoint mean?

A

The temperature to which a mass of air must be cooled in order to reach saturation

90
Q

State the 3 conditions for the formation of radiation fog?

A

Clear skies, Light winds, Humid air

91
Q

On a TAF3, the weather following the FM or BECMG has an operational requirement, do the requirements for the 30-minute buffers apply?

A

The 30-minute buffers do not apply during the first 3 hours of the TAF3 validity

92
Q

You have just received a METAR for Sydney and has at the end NOSIG, what does this mean?

A

The weather described in the METAR is expected to remain unchanged for the next 3 hours

93
Q

What distance from the Airport does the conditions of a TAF cover?

A

8km (5nm) of the centre of an aerodrome

94
Q

An aerodrome weather report is designated as a SPECI when?

A

The weather conditions are fluctuating about or are below the specified criteria (Usually approach minimums)

95
Q

What is the difference between RVR and visibility?

A

RVR is specific to the distance visible on the runway from the landing or take off point

Visibility only refers to the general range an object or light can be seen in the current conditions.

Visibillity on final (HIAL) vs visibillity on touch down (edge lights)

96
Q

An aeroplane takes off in calm conditions and climbs through a wind shear where it encounters a strong tail wind. What effect will this change in wind velocity have on IAS and flight path?

A

ISA will decrease, flight path will be shallower

97
Q

You have a 5% climb gradient required to 3000’. What minimum ROC is required with a ground speed of 200kts?

A

1000 fpm

98
Q

What does Cost Index 0 achieve ?

A

‘Zero’ CI results in maximum range airspeed and minimum trip fuel. This speed schedule ignores the cost of time.

99
Q

When not flying over high terrain or mountainous areas and no minimum flight altitude has been established, flight in accordance with IFR shall be flown at a level which is at least?

A

1500 ft or 1000ft above highest terrain (8km either side)

100
Q

Conditions required to descent below MDA on a circling approach is?

A
  • The required visual references have been established and can be maintained
  • All elements of the meteorological minima are equal to or greater than those published
  • Aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to a landing on the intended runway can be made
101
Q

What are the 5 stages of all separate segments that can be part of an instrument approach procedures?

A

Arrival, Initial, intermediate, final, missed approach

102
Q

The outbound time in a holding pattern above 14000’ in still air condition is?

A

1 minute 30 seconds

103
Q

The MSA provides at least an obstacle clearance of at least 300m within a circle associated with the homing facility for the approach procedure of that aerodrome. What is this radius?

A

25nm

(25 NM MSA)

104
Q

What’s the special purpose code for Hijack?

A

7500

105
Q

What’s the special purpose code for comms failure?

A

7600

106
Q

What’s the special purpose code for Emergency ?

A

7700

107
Q

On a IFR flight in IMC, you are proceeding exactly on the current flight plan route. You receive and acknowledge the following instruction from radar controller “Turn immediately to heading 050 until further advised”. 1 minute later you discover a communication failure. Two-way radio communication can’t be re-established. Do you return to your current flight plan route? Or continue heading 050?

A

Maintain heading for another 1 minute then continue on cleared route.

AIP says:

Maintain Vector or heading for another minute, and return to cleared route.

JEPPESEN charts give instructions on what to do in event of radio failure.

108
Q

You are flying over ‘random’ airspace (middle east etc) and you are intercepted by another aircraft, what frequencies do you immediately attempt to establish radio communication with the intercepting aircraft?

A

121.5 Mhz

109
Q

The aircraft has parked on the Apron. When disembarking, one of the passengers walks into the trailing edge of the wing and gets seriously injured. Is this an Incident or an accident?

A

This is an accident. (Seriously hurt)

110
Q

What is the minimum wake turbulence separation criteria when a medium (737, A320, E190, F100, F50, B1900) aircraft is taking off behind a super aircraft ( A380) and both using the same runway?

A

7nm or 3 minutes

111
Q

What is the minimum wake turbulence separation criteria when a medium (737, A320, E190, F100, F50, B1900) aircraft is taking off behind a Heavy aircraft (747, 767, A330, B787) and both using the same runway?

A

5nm or 2 minutes

112
Q

What is the speed limit in class E airspace for IFR aircraft?

A

250kts

113
Q

Who is in general, responsible for an ATC clearance to be safe in respect to terrain clearance?

A

PIC

114
Q

The reason for fitting thermal plugs to aircraft wheels is that they?

A

Release air from the tyre in the event of overheating

737 has Fuse Pins - deflate tyre to prevent exploding during high temperatures!

115
Q

If the cabin altitude rises when the aircraft is in level flight, the differential pressure does what?

A

Decreases

116
Q

The cabin pressure is regulated by what?

A

Outflow valve

117
Q

In aviation, the reflection on ionosphere layers phenomenon is used in the what frequencies?

A

High (HF - High frequency)

118
Q

An inverter (Electrical system) is used to do what?

A

Convert DC into AC

119
Q

If the static source of an altimeter becomes blocked during a descent, the instrument will what ?

A

Freeze: continue to display the reading at which the blockage occurred

120
Q

If the static source to an airspeed indicator (ASI) becomes blocked during a descent the instrument will what?

A

Over-read

121
Q

When flying in air which is colder than standard atmosphere, the altimeter will what?

A

Over read

You’re actually lower than it indicates

122
Q

After an aircraft has passed through a volcanic cloud which has blocked the total pressure probe inlet of the airspeed indicator the pilot begins a stabilized descent and finds that the indicated airspeed does what?

A

Decreases steadily

(Under read in descent)

123
Q

Aircraft depressurised, what is the estimated time of useful consciousness at FL400?

A

15 seconds

124
Q

What is a typical fuel flow in cruise for the B737?

A

2500kg/hr

Rule of thumb:

(IAS x 10/2)-200 = FF per engine

125
Q

What are your aircrafts cruise power/thrust settings?

A

Rule of thumb (Cruise speed):

N1 = (2 x Alt/1000) +10,
eg at
FL350 = 70+10 = 80% N1

126
Q

What is the lowest and highest Altitude/Flight Level for RVMS in Australia Airspace?

A

FL290 to FL410

127
Q

What is the vertical separation in RVMS airspace between aircraft on opposite tracks?

A

1000’

128
Q

When would the PIC declare to ATC “Minimum Fuel”?

A

when the pilot calculates that any change to the existing clearance will result in landing with less than the FIXED FUEL RESERVE

129
Q

For a Runway to be declared Contaminated by Standing Water, what is the minimum depth required?

A

3mm

130
Q

What actions should be taken in RVMS airspace if the SSR transponder fails?

A

Notify ATC “Negative RVSM”

131
Q

How does Advection fog form?

A

When a moist air FLOWS from a relatively WARM sea to a cold land mass which cools the air.

Fog forms in the same way as cloud, when moist air is cooled beyond its saturation point and condensation occurs, OR EXTRA moisture is added to make the air saturated.

132
Q

What is V2?

A

V2 = take off safety speed, must be obtained by 35 ft.

Offers safe margin above stalling speed and in the event of an engine failure, ensure controllability!

133
Q

What is Va?

A

Va (manoeuvrability speed)

speed at which full aerodynamic control movements will not overstress the aircraft

134
Q

Where does the missed approach start and end?

A

The point specified on the AIP chart where the missed approach begins (MAPt), and a point or an altitude/ height where it ends.

135
Q

Where is the missed approach point for a 3D approach?

A

The point of intersection of a glide path with the applicable DA/H in precision approaches;

136
Q

How is the tropopause indicated on SIGwx charts?

A

Suare box with the altitude inside.

Fill out SIGWx chart (images)

IQ (6 decks)

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