Technical Flashcards
To improve your Technical and Systems Knowledge
(RF) Indication is displayed to the right of hydraulic system quantity:
When hydraulic quantity is below 76% in either system A or B // and the aircraft is on the ground with both engines shutdown or after landing with flaps up during taxi-in.
What are the 737-800 dimensions
- 35.8m wide
- 39.5m long
- 12.5m high
What are the 737-800 maximum masses?
- MZFM: 61 688 kg
- MTOM: 70 535 -78 244 kg
- MTaxiM: 70 762 -78 442 kg (delta 227kg)
- MLM: 65 317 kg
A DUCT OVERHEAT light only will cause:
The temperature mix valves to drive full cold
A flight is aborted shortly after takeoff and prepares to return to the departure airfield. The OFF SCHED DESCENT light illuminates. On the pressurization panel crew must:
take no action - the auto abort capability programs cabin to land at takeoff field elevation.
A Fuel CONFIG alert is when?
- Centre tank > 726kg and Centre pumps OFF or LO PRESS
- Goes away when Centre tank quantity less than 363kg
A good visual scan method is
a sequence of intense, fixated observations
A hot air leak is detected in the APU bleed air ducting. This is indicated on the forward overhead panel by:
left (1) WING-BODY OVERHEAT light
A leak develops in the System A electric-driven pump; how does this affect the operation of the PTU?
The PTU will not function as all system pressure is lost
A leak in the No 2 engine driven hydraulic pump or associated lines can result in a total loss of hydraulic system B pressure:
Yes, but it drains to top of standpipe (both pumps feed from standpipe). Volume still remains but only PTU operation is still available’
A leak occurs in the standby system - which statement is correct?
The LOW QUANTITY light will illuminate when the standby reservoir is approx half empty, the standby reservoir quantity will decrease to zero and the system B reservoir level will decrease to approx 72%
A Mach trim system provides speed stability at airspeeds above:
Mach .615
A magenta bug on the vertical speed indicator on the PFD indicates:
Selected vertical speed on the MCP panel with V/S pitch mode selected
A pack light illuminates, it does not extinguish on reset of the master caution recall. What could have been the cause of the alert?
A dual pack failure in which the pack will continue to operate until excessive temperature is sensed.
A single detector loop for an engine fails and the related OVHT/DET switch in the aft electronic panel is in the NORMAL position. What flight indications can you expect?
There is no flight deck indication of single loop failure with the OVHT/DET switch in NORMAL.
A TA symbol showing on the ND has, alongside it, a down arrow and „-07”. This means:
The traffic is descending at minimum of 500fpm
A TCAS Resolution Advisory is generated when:
The conflicting aircraft is 25 seconds from point of closest approach
A valid FMC PERF INIT page Scratch Pad entry for actual FUEL is:
Actual fuel is displayed automatically and cannot be entered manually
A WING BODY OVERHEAT light indicates:
A leak in the bleed air duct system
What are the 5 conditions for aborted engine start on GND?
- No N1 Rotation - ST SW OFF
- No EGT increase within 15s of moving st lever to IDLE - ST LEV C/O, Motor 60s, ST SW OFF
- Little or no N1 or N2 increase after EGT increase - ST LEV C/O, Motor 60s, ST SW OFF
- EGT quickly approaches or exceeds limit line - ST LEV C/O, Motor 60s, ST SW OFF
- No oil pressure indication by engine idle - ST SW C/O, When N2<20% ST SW GND, Motor 60s, ST SW OFF
Above 37,000 feet the pressurization controller maintains a pressure differential of:
8.35 psi
Above what windspeed should Entry or Cargo Doors not be opened?
40 knots.
Activated at 14,000 feet the passenger oxygen masks drop down from the stowage. How do you activate the flow of oxygen?
Pulling one mask down will activate all masks in that unit.
AFDS is engaged in Altitude hold and heading select. If the heading select switch on the MCP was pushed what would the FMAs display?
MCP SPD | CWS R (in amber, below the FMA) |ALT HOLD.
After a flight director take off in TO/GA mode, using LNAV, what FMAs occur if the autopilot is engaged during the climb and above thrust reduction altitude?
N1 | LNAV | MCP SPD
After a normal take-off, what pitch command can you expect from the F/D?
15*, then
- if 2 - V2
- otherwise V2+20
After liftoff, the flight director commands pitch to maintain an airspeed of V2 + 20 knots until another pitch mode is engaged. V2 + 20 knots is the optimum climb speed with takeoff flaps. It results in the maximum altitude gain in the shortest distance from takeoff. Acceleration to higher speeds reduces the altitude gain
After a normal takeoff with sufficient rate of climb achieved, which F/D pitch command can you expect?
V2 plus 20kts.
After a steady cruise at FL 370 you climb to FL 390 and reset the FLT ALT in the pressurization panel accordingly. What would you expect the cabin rate of climb indicator to indicate during the climb?
It will indicate a descent due to a scheduled change in differential pressure from 7.8 psi to 8.35 psi when selecting a FLT ALT above FL 370.
After autobraking has started, what pilot actions disarm the autobrake system immediately and illuminate the AUTO BRAKE DISARM light?:
- SPEED BRAKE lever moved to down detent during RTO or landing
- Manual brakes applied
- Thrust lever(s) advanced during landing
- Landing with RTO or RTO selected on the ground
- Malfunction exists
After completing the FMC CDU pre-flight actions, you look at the POS INIT page again. The SET IRS POS lines is missing. What is required?
Nothing, this is a normal indication once both IRSs have entered the NAV mode
After lift-off, the A/T remains in THR HLD until:
‘800 feet RA’
After moving the APU switch to the OFF position, how long is the cooling period before the APU shuts down?
60 seconds
After normal engine start, what should be done if the DUAL BLEED light is illuminated:
Place the APU bleed switch to OFF
After performing the FMC/CDU preflight, the flight crew notices that the ACTIVE NAV DATA base is expired and must be changed. What will the RTE page look like after the NAV DATA base change?
Blank, requiring reloading
After pressing the DISCH switch, how long does it take for the cargo fire DISCH light to illuminate to indicate that the Cargo Fire Suppression system has been fully activated?
Up to 30 seconds
After the Centre Tank has emptied the auto shutoff logic stops the pumps, how do the pumps then function?
Switching the pumps to OFF and then back to ON recycles the auto shutoff logic and the pumps will again activate.
After the loss of all generators, two fully charged batteries can provide standby power for a minimum of:
60 minutes
Air from the preconditioned ground source enters the air conditioning system through
The Mix Manifold
All TCAS alerts are inhibited:
By GPWS and windshear warnings.
All window heat is selected ON. The green window heat ON light for Right Side Window extinguishes. The likely reason is:
System is at correct temperature
Alternate brakes are operated by:
system A
Altitude alerting occurs when approaching or departing from the MCP selected altitude. When is the altitude alerting system inhibited?
Glide slope is captured, or trailing edge flaps are extended to 25 or greater.
Altitude alerting, consisting of a tone and highlighted boxes, occurs at a set distance before reaching the selected attitude. How many feet before the selected altitude do the altitude alert highlighted boxes no longer show?
300 feet
When do you get an Amber Fuel IMBAL alert ?
- Fuel Quantity btw Main 1 and 2 > 453kg
- Goes away when IMBAL <91kg
When do you get an Amber Fuel LOW alert ?
- Fuel Quantity in Main tank < 453kg
- Goes away when > 567kg
Amber PACK light illumination during Master Caution recall, that extinguishes when master caution is reset, indicates
Failure of either primary or standby pack controller.
An Air Traffic Advisory Service is a service
Which is provided within Class F airspace to ensure separation, in so far as is practical,
between aircraft which are operating on IFR flight plans.
An amber ALT DISAGREE in the bottom of the altimeter tape is an indication of:
The Captains and First Officers altitude indications differ more than 200 feet for more than 5 seconds.
An amber AoA DISAGREE in the bottom of the altimeter tape is an indication of:
The Captains and First Officers AoA differ more than 10* for more than 10 seconds.
An amber CDS FAULT in the left lower corner of PFD indicates:
A non-dispatchable fault has occurred on the ground before starting second engine.
An amber DSPLY SOURCE annunciation below each speed tape indicates:
A single DEU has been manually or automatically selected to drive all six display units.
An amber MAP RANGE DISAGREE annunciation on the ND indicates:
The selected range on the EFIS control panel is different from the map display range
An amber ROLL displayed in the lower portion of the attitude indicator on the PFD means:
The Captains and First Officers roll angle display differ by more than 5 degrees.
An auto relight protection is provided by EEC activating both igniters when a flameout is detected and there is a rapid uncommanded decrease in:
N2, or N2 below idle.
An engine-driven hydraulic pump supplies approximately ___ times the fluid volume of an electric motor-driven hydraulic pump?
6 times
AN OFFSCALE annunciation appears on the ND. To view the TA or RA an appropiate action would be:
Increase ND display range on the EFIS Control Panel.
An overheat condition in the cooling cycle:
Causes the pack valve to close and the PACK light to illuminate
An OVERHEAT light on the hydraulic panel illuminates inflight - what does this mean?
The hydraulic fluid used to cool & lubricate the related electric-driven pump has overheated or the pump itself has overheated
Antenna switching from tail antenna to nose antenna occurs when:
LOC frequency is selected and VOR/LOC is armed or engaged.
Arrivals can be selected on the FMC for either the origin or destination airport on the DEP/APR page:
‘Both origin and destination airport are available’
As well as using the DISCH switch on the Fire Protection panel in the flight deck, an APU fire can be extinguished by discharging the APU fire extinguisher using the APU Ground Control Panel (shown below), which is located in a quick release access panel immediately forward and below the APU
False
It’s located in the wheel well.
As you push the TO/GA switch for an automatic go-around on an aircraft with the TOGA to LNAV feature fitted, what are the correct FMA annunciations
(Thrust Mode : Roll Mode : Pitch Mode)?
GA | LNAV armed (white) | TO/GA
As you push the TO/GA switch for an automatic go-around, what are the correct FMA annunciations
(Thrust Mode : Roll Mode : Pitch Mode)?
GA | — | TO/GA
At 100ft above DH/MDA the GPWS callout is:
“PLUS HUNDRED”
At glideslope capture during an autopilot ILS approach the cross bus tie relay automatically opens:
and the BUS TRANSFER switch returns to OFF (spring loaded).to isolate DC bus 1 from DC bus 2.
At the end of the start cycle the blue APU GEN OFF BUS light illuminates:
when the APU is ready to accept a bleed air or electrical load.
At what altitude (in feet) do the RA callouts begin?
TWENTY FIVE HUNDRED.
At what altitude are the TCAS INCREASE DESCENT RAs inhibited?
1500 feet RA.
At what altitude will both A/Ps automatically disengage if FLARE is not armed during a dual channel approach?
350 feet RA.
At what cabin altitude is the passenger oxygen system automatically activated?
14,000 feet
At what rotational speed is the Start Lever moved to the IDLE position?
Max Motoring - 25% N2.
At which flap settings is the flap load relief system operational for Short Field Performance aircraft?
Flaps 10, 15, 25, 30 and 40.
Auto-relight is provided for flameout protection, with the EEC activating both igniters. Which of the following situations would cause Flameout Protection to operate?
Rapid decrease in N2, or N2 below idle RPM
Automatic operation of the Standby Hydraulic System is initiated when:
The main rudder PCU Force Fight Monitor (FFM) trips
Autopilot trim and main stabiliser trim use:
Single electric trim motor
Battery power is provided by:
Two 24 volt nickel–cadmium batteries, main and auxiliary, which are located in the electronics compartment.
Below which RA should FLARE mode be armed during AUTOLAND?
1500 RA.
True or false?
Bleed air is only supplied from the 9th stage when the valve modulates open if bleed air requirement is
greater than the 5th stage alone can supply
TRUE
BLEED TRIP OFF, what does it mean, what do you do?
Too high Temperature or Over Pressure in the Bleed air du
ct system. The ENG Bleed Air Valve has Closed
- Trip RESET
- If Still get light - PACK OFF
Boeing provide the option for 2 Cargo Fire extinguisher bottles to be fitted, one is a rapid discharge bottle which is fully discharged immediately upon pressing the DISCH switch on the Cargo Fire Panel, the second bottle is a slow discharge bottle that is released 1 minute after the discharge of the first bottle, and discharges slowly over several minutes to provide a total of 195 minutes of fire suppression in the cargo holds. This second slow discharge fire extinguisher bottle is NOT fitted in any Ryanair B737-800 aircraft.
True
Both, ON and ALTN visible on EEC switch, indicate EEC has automatically changed to soft alternate mode, and remains in soft mode until:
Thrust lever retarded to idle or Manually selecting ALTN with EEC switch on AFT overhead panel.
Can be reset with the TRIP RESET Switch?
BLEED TRIP OFF
Cargo compartment smoke detection is powered from:
- DC bus 1 (Left side, loop A) and
- DC bus 2 (Right side, loop B)
Center fuel tank fuel is used before main tank fuel because:
Centre tank fuel pumps produce higher pressure than main tank pumps
Conditioned air from the left hand pack flows directly to the Flight Deck from the Mix Manifold.
FALSE
Crew are warned of exceeding the maximum allowed airspeed by which of the following?
Aural Clacker, speedtape red and black band.
Cruise mode is activated when the aircraft climbs to:
Within 0.25psi of selected FLT ALT
Cruising at FL370. The motorised Overboard Exhaust valve will open in flight if:
Either pack switches are in HIGH and recirculation fan is OFF.
Current Mach number at the bottom of the airspeed indications tape on the PFD is displayed:
when airspeed is 0.40 Mach and above
What are the different DEU display lights on the PFD?
- CDS fault (amber) - DEU Failed on GND. No dispatch
- CDS MAINT (white) - DEU hiccup. Dispatch allowed
- DSPLAY SRCE (amber) - DEU Failed inflight
Do not attempt to make a turn away from an obstacle that is within what distance from the aircraft nose? (700, 800 & 8200)
700 - 9.8 Meters
800 - 7.4 Meters
8200 - 7.1 Meters
Dotted red areas on terrain display indicate:
Terrain more than 2,000 Ft. above airplane altitude.
Dual angle-airflow sensors (alpha vanes) provide angle-of-attack information to the stall warning system, autothrottle, autopilot and autoslats are anti-iced:
By independent 115V AC heating elements, controlled by switching ON the PROBE HEAT switches
Due to a malfunction you are required to return to the airport of departure. To avoid the OFF SCHED DESCENT warning you reset the FLT ALT. What can you expect?
The automatic abort capability for the departure airport is lost.
During a dual channel A/P ILS approach, at which altitude (AGL) should the FLARE mode engage?
50 feet
During a normal engine start, which engine indications do you have before selecting GND?
Only N1, N2, oil quantity and engine vibration are available prior to placing the engine startswitch to GRD.
During a single autopilot approach and landing, a single press of either TO/GA switch in response to a Go-around will result in which of the following situations?
A manual F/D Go-around is available
During a single engine go-around, one push of a TO/GA switch
F/D roll commands hold current ground track
What protection is provided during alternate brake operation?
Skid, locked wheel, touchdown and hydroplane.
During an ILS approach the Captain observes his BARO minimum reference/ altitude turns from green to flashing amber for three seconds, this means:
The aircraft has descended below the Captain’s selected minimum altitude (DA)
During an ILS approach, when the Radio Altimeter indication turns amber, this means
The airplane has descended below the selected radio altitude minimums
During an impending hot start the flashing white box surrounding EGT digital read out, resets:
When the start lever is moved to CUT OFF or Engine reaches idle N2.
During an In-flight start, if a wet start is detected, when will the EEC turn off ignition and fuel to the engine?
No in-flight abnormal start protection.
During battery start, when does the EEC start to operate?
15% N2
During cruise you note both centre tank fuel pumps have failed as indicated by the illumination of both center tank fuel pump LOW PRESSURE lights. There is still 460 kg (or 320 kg) in the centre tank, and both main tanks are full. The upper display unit will show:
There will be no indication on CDS but the Master Caution will illuminate
During descent, the pressurization descent mode is activated when:
Activated when the airplane descends 0.25 psi below the selected FLT ALT
During descent, with engines at a low thrust setting:
High pressure bleed air from the 5th stage is adequate and the high stage valve remains closed
// the high stage valve modulates open to maintain adequate bleed air pressure from the 9th stage.
During engine ground start, how long before the EEC detects a Wet Start and shuts off ignition and fuel if there is no rise in EGT after the start lever is moved to IDLE?
15 seconds.
During engine start the maximum time allowance for EGT indication after start lever is moved to idle is:
15 seconds
During engine start, when does the EEC automatically turn off ignition and shuts off fuel to the engine?
When the EGT exceeds the starting limit on the ground only
During flight with hydraulic system B inoperative (no fluid in system B):
The standby hydraulic system operates the leading edge slats and leading edge flaps to fully extended position only
During flight you get MASTER CAUTION > AIR COND > WING-BODY OVERHEAT. Is this resettable?
No
During gear retraction, if loose tread on a spinning main gear tyre impacts a fitting in the wheel well opening:
that gear stops retracting and free falls back to the down position. The affected gear cannot be retracted until the fitting is replaced.
During normal operation with the OVHT DET Switch in NORMAL, an alert is initiated if:
Both loop A and B is sensing a FIRE or OVHT
During normal operations, hydraulic quantity indications vary when:
Raising or lowering the landing gear or leading edge devices
During preflight procedure the trim air switch is left in the OFF position and only one pack is selected ON for air conditioning. What is the correct consequence?
With the TRIM AIR selected OFF, the pack attempts to produce an air temperature to satisfy the average temperature demands of all three zones.
During preflight the temperature selectors on the 737-700 should be set to
Automatic and the desired temperature
During PRELIMINARY COCKPIT PREPARATION the IRS mode selector is accidentally moved from OFF to ATT instead of OFF to NAV. How can normal IRS operation be regained?
Switch to OFF wait for ALIGN light to extinguish then perform full alignment.
During primary charge cycle operation, battery voltage can be as high as:
30 Volts
During single pack operation with TRIM AIR selected to OFF:
The pack attempts to produce an air temperature to satisfy the average demands of all three zones
During taxiing out for takeoff, the amber AUTO BRAKE DISARM Light illuminates, what should you do?
Position the AUTO BRAKE select switch to OFF. Do not attempt takeoff if light remains illuminated
During the APU start cycle, the APU EGT indication may fluctuate from
0° to 1100° C
During the PRELIMINARY COCKPIT PREPARATION, the IRS Mode Selectors are normally positioned to:
NAV
During ‘TO/GA - Takeoff’ pitch mode, the AFDS commands (up to 60kts)
10 degrees nose down until 60kts IAS
During undercarriage retraction:
the brakes automatically stop rotation of the main gear wheels; snubbers stop rotation of the nose wheels.
During VNAV operations the Fuel Quantity Indicating System fails:
The pilots enter and periodically update manually calculated fuel weight on the FMC PERF INIT page in order to keep gross weight and performance data accurate // Position information is contradictory
During VNAV PATH DESCENT and below the Speed Restriction Altitude, the FMC Alerting Message ‘OVERSPEED DISCONNECT’ means:
VNAV has disengaged because airspeed has exceeded FMC Speed Restriction by more than 15 knots
Electrical power to start the APU comes from:
The No 1 transfer bus if available if AC power is not available, battery power is used.
Elevator feel system is provided by the elevator feel computer. This computer receives inputs of:
Airspeed and stabiliser position
Emergency exit light can be activated from:
Flight deck and aft cabin attendant station
Engaging LVL CHG descent mode does what to A/T ?
automatically engages the A/T in RETARD, and then ARM when thrust is at idle
Engine bleed air is obtained from:
5th and 9th stage of the compressor section
Engine number 1 bleed switch is in the ON position but the engine is not running. Will the number 1 bleed air valve be open?
No
Equipment requirement for RAs to be generated is if the other airplane has a working
TXPDR with MODE C and ALT ON
OR Mode S TXPDR
Extending the airstairs using the exterior system:
Bypasses the door open requirement
Extending//Retracting the airstairs using the STANDBY system on the Interior Panel:
by-passes the handrail and lower ladder safety circuits
Extinguisher continuity can be tested by pushing and holding the
EXT TEST switch
F/D Go-around. If both autopilots are not engaged, a manual F/D only go-around is available under which of the following conditions?
Inflight below 2000ft RA,
Inflight above 2000ft RA with flaps not up or
G/S captured and not in takeoff mode
Failure of one temperature controller will be annunicated to the crew by
“Zone Temp” On Master Caution recall
Failure of two temperature controllers will be annunicated to the crew by
Illumination of the Master Caution
Fire extinguishers provide a means of extinguishing:
Only engine fire, cargo, APU fire and lavatory fires
Flight spoilers are operated:
2 left wing and 2 right wing by system A, 2 left wing and 2 right wing by system B
Following an unpressurised takeoff, when is the first engine Bleed Switch positioned to ON?
At not less than 400 feet, and prior to 2000 feet above field elevation
For a good visual scan what ratio would you be looking outside/inside?
Outside 75%, Inside 25%
For approach, what altitude must the second Autopilot be selected for dual Autopilot operation?
800 feet RA
For ground servicing, a GROUND SERVICE Switch is placed:
on the Forward Attendant’s panel
For landing, what is the maximum fuel imbalance allowed between the No.1 and No.2 main tanks?
453 Kgs.
For RVSM operation, the maximum allowable altitude display difference for sea level, between the Captain and F/O’s on the ground is?
50 feet
For what airspace does VFR traffic not need an ATC clearance?
Class E
For which leading edge devices does the wing anti-ice system provide protection for?
The three inboard leading edge slats on each wing.
From where are the Predictive Windshear alerts triggered?
Weather Radar System
From where does the Cabin Auto Controller get its inputs?
From the ADIRUs.
Fuel for the APU is normally supplied from the:
Left side of the fuel manifold. (‘No 1 main tank, AC pump’)
What are the Fuel Temperature Limits?
- MIN: 3 degrees above the fuel freezing point (Jet A1 -47*C) or -43*C, whichever is higher (approx -44*C)
- MAX: +49* C
Full rudder pedal displacement will turn the nosewheel by:
7 degrees.
Galley busses are powered from:
The AC transfer busses
How are crew alerted to a deviation from the selected altitude?
A warning tone sounds once deviation is 300 feet from selected altitude, the current altitude
How are the Engine Bleed Air valves powered when the engine bleed air switch is in the ON position?
They are DC activated and pneumatically//pressure operated
How can the Fire Warning Bell be silenced in the flight deck?
Pushing Master FIRE WARN light or pushing the BELL CUTOUT switch located on the Overheat/Fire Protection panel
How can the Fwd Airstair be extended from outside the aircraft?
The Battery Master Switch can be on or off and the L1 door can be shut or partially open
How can TOGA be selected for takeoff if both flight directors are OFF?
Pressing TOGA after 80 knots and before 150 seconds after lift off.
How can you silence the Mach/airspeed warning in flight?
Slow the aircraft speed to below Vmo/Mmo
How do you activate the APU fire extinguisher from the wheel well?
Pull the T-handle down to arm the system, then move the discharge switch to the left position to fire the squib.
How do you set the Audio Control Panel to receive NAV and ADF voice and range audio?
Set the Filter Switch to B (Both)
How does the fluid pressure supplied by an engine driven hydraulic pump compare to an electric motor-driven hydraulic pump?
They both should supply the same pressure
How does the Stall Identification system help the pilot identify and prevent further movement into a stalled condition?
Elevator Feel Shift Module increase, hydraulic system A pressure to the Elevator Feel and Centering Unit, significantly increasing the force required to move the control column rearwards to continue into a
stalled condition.
How far from projected impact will the “TERRAIN, TERRAIN, PULL UP” aural warning be given?
20 to 30 seconds.
How far must you pull the handle before the related landing gear uplock is released?
Approximately 61cm
How is an APU bleed air duct leak annunciated in the flight deck?
By the MASTER CAUTION, AIR COND and Left WING-BODY OVERHEAT lights
How is hydraulic oil pressure stopped from entering the system when the Engine Driven Pumps (EDPs) are switched to OFF?
A blocking valve in the pump is energised allowing it to close and stop pressure entering the system
How is the auxiliary battery charger powered?
Through the AC Ground Service Bus
How is the cabin altitude warning horn silenced?
By pushing the ALT HORN CUTOUT switch on the forward overhead panel.
How is the decision height (DH) display set on the CDS?
Set independently by each pilot using his/her EFIS control panel.
How is the engine fuel heated prior to entering the engine?
Heated by passing through IDG oil heat exchanger and engine oil heat exchanger.
How is the hard alternate mode entered?
When in Soft Alternate mode, retard the thrust lever or push the EEC switch
How long are the navigation databases valid for?
28 Days.
How long does the PBE, stored under the flight deck left jump seat, provide oxygen once activated?
Approximately 15-20 minutes
How long should a fast realignment take to complete?
30 seconds
How many fire extinguisher bottles are available for the APU FIRE protection system?
1
How many fire extinguisher bottles are fitted for the Cargo compartments?
1 fire extinguisher bottle, that can be selected to be discharged into either cargo hold.
How many fire extinguishers are located on the flight deck, what type of extinguisher are they and where are they located?
1 Chemical fire extinguisher, located behind the FO
How many fire extinguishing bottles are there totally for engine and APU fires?
3
How many fuel measuring sticks are installed?
16 (6 in each wing and 4 in the centre tank)
How many fuel pumps does each tank have, and where are they located?
The centre tank has 2 AC fuel pumps mounted on the rear wall of the centre tank.
The No1 tank has 2 AC pumps mounted in the centre tank - 1 on the front wall and one one the rear wall.
The No2 tank has 2 AC pumps mounted in the centre tank - 1 on the front wall and 1 on the rear wall.
There is also a Jet pump mounted in the centre tank discharging into No1 tank
How many ILS receivers are installed in Ryanair B737-800 aircraft?
2 receivers.
How many independent Flight Control Computers (FCCs) are there in the Autopilot Director System (AFDS)?
2
How many modes of control does the outflow valve have on the 737-800?
Three. One manual and two automatic - ‘AUTO - ALTN - MAN’
How many oxygen masks are provided from each passenger service unit?
4
How many positive pressure relief valves are on the 737-800?
2
How many spark igniters are there on each engine?
2
How many times can the TRIP RESET button be used to reset a related system?
Unlimited number of times
How many Trim Air Pressure Regulators are there in the Air Conditioning system?
1
How might it be possible to determine if the toilet fire extinguisher has been discharged? Select all that apply
Extinguisher discharge nozzles change colour from flat black to aluminum grey.
Temperature indicator placard in lavatory changes colour from white to black
How much greater is the fluid volume supplied by an engine driven hydraulic pump, compared to the related electric motor-driven hydraulic pump?
6 times greater.
Hydraulic pressure from System B will be used to retract the landing gear:
After failure of the No 1 engine with the landing gear still down and the landing gear lever is positioned up
What systems does Hydraulic System A power?
- Autopilot A
- Alternate Brakes
- No1 Reverser
- Flight Spoilers (2,4,9,11)
- NWS
- GND Spoilers
- Rudder
- Aileron
- Elevator and ELEV FEEL
- L/G
What systems does Hydraulic System B power?
- Autopilot B
- Normal Brakes
- No2Reverser
- Flight Spoilers (3,5,8,10)
- Altn NWS
- Yaw Damper
- Rudder
- Aileron
- Elevator
- TE Flaps
- AutoSlat + LE Flaps and LE Slats
Hydraulic system pressure indication on the lower DU is derived from:
combined engine and electric pump outputs.
Idle Descent path but will descend to meet the altitude restriction. After achieving the altitude restriction which of the indicated flight paths will the aircraft follow for the rest of the decent?
Path A
If a cowl anti-ice valve fails to move to the selected position:
The COWL VALVE OPEN light remains illuminated bright blue
If a crossbleed start is recommended for inflight starting, what Indication displayed?
a magenta “X-BLD” above the N2 dial.
If a leak develops in the supply line to System A engine-driven hydraulic pump, what approximate reservoir quantity would you expect?
20% full
If a wheel spin-up signal is not detected on landing and the speed brake is ARMED, the flight spoilers will deploy automatically:
When the Air/Ground system senses ground mode (any gear strut compresses).
The ground spoilers will deploy when the right main gear strut compresses.
if a Wing anti-ice control valve closes in flight and the WING ANTI-ICE switch is ON, what indications will the crew see?
The respective L or R VALVE OPEN LIGHT will illuminate bright blue
If after moving the FAULT/INOP - OVHT/FIRE TEST switch to the OVHT/FIRE TEST position, one engine fire switch fails to illuminate. How would you determine which detector loop had failed?
Carry out the test again one loop at a time using the OVHTDET switch selected to A and then B.
If airplane gross weight is not available from the FMC, on the APPROACH REF page GROSS WT:
will display box prompts
If alignment is lost in flight, what action can be taken?
The navigation mode remains unavailable for the rest of the flight, but ATT mode can be selected to provide attitude reference.
If all zone and primary pack controls fail, how is cabin temperatures controlled?
The standby pack controls command the packs to produce the average temperature demand of the 2 passenger cabin zones.
If an altitude restriction is entered before TOD, the aircraft will commence the descent early to follow a new idle
descent path to achieve the descent restriction. If ALT INTV is then selected after the descent restriction, which of
the paths, shown in the diagram below, will the aircraft follow?
Path B.
Descends to achieve restriction then descends at 1000 fpm until intercepting
original idle descent path
If an engine fails in flight which FMC page can you use to get info?
The ENGINE OUT CRUISE page is information only and the execution light will not illuminate.
If an outboard display unit fails, the PFD is automatically displayed:
On the inboard display unit
If both ENGINE ANTI-ICE switches are positioned to OFF in flight:
The cowl anti-ice valves will shut and the stall warning logic returns to normal if wing anti-ice has not been used in flight.
If during RECALL on TAXI CHECKLIST, you push and release the system annunciator, the IRS light comes ON. The GPS light is illuminated on the AFT OVERHEAD PANEL, and extinguishes when Master Caution is reset. (not A/C YE003):
A single GPS sensor unit has failed
If one cargo fire detector loop loses power
The system automatically converts to a single loop detection system
If one of the two fire detection loops A or B fails, how will you notice this?
It will be noticed when performing the OVHT/FIRE test
If the airplane pitch attitude reaches the pitch limit indicator:
Stick shaker activates for existing flight condition.
If the amber LOW PRESSURE Light for the No. 1 Engine Driven Hydraulic Pump illuminates, what will the QRH direct you do?
position the pump switch to OFF
If the APU is the only electrical source in flight, which automatic shedding occurs?
Automatic shedding of all galley and main busses. If electrical load still exceeds design limits, both IFE busses are also automatically shed.
If the APU is the only electrical source on the ground, which automatic shedding occurs?
Initially attempts to carry a full electrical load. If overload is sensed, automatic shedding of galley and main busses until within limits.
If the autopilot ALT HOLD mode is manually overridden with control column pressure, which of the following occurs?
The autopilot changes to CWS P and returns to ALT HLD if control pressure released within 250 feet of selected altitude.
If the autopilot is engaged in command without a roll mode selected, what is shown in the roll section of the FMAs?
CWS R in amber below the roll FMA.
If the engine oil pressure is in the amber band at the selection of take-off thrust, which of the following is true?
Do not take-off
If the FAULT Light on the IRS Mode Selector Unit illuminates, it indicates:
A system fault affecting the respective IRS ATT and/or NAV mode has been detected
If the nose gear steering lockout pin is not installed for pushback or towing:
System A HYDRAULIC PUMPS must be switched off.
If the ON DC light on left IRS Mode Selector Unit illuminates it means the related IRS is operating on DC power. Which bus is supplying the power?
The switched hot battery bus
If the PSEU light illuminates on recall whilst performing the APPROACH checklist; what does this indicate?
A problem exists in the PSEU system because this light should be inhibited in flight.
If the required signals are not available to operate in the normal mode, what mode will the EEC automatically change to?
Soft alternate mode.
If the spoilers become jammed:
The captain’s control wheel operates the ailerons
If the thrust lever(s) are advanced after touchdown:
After 3 seconds in the advanced position, the AUTO BRAKE DISARM Light will illuminate
If there was a leak in the Standby Hydraulic system, what indication would you expect to see for Hydraulic System B?
A decrease in System B quantity, but it would not drop to zero.
If windshear is encountered during F/D take-off or go-around, and vertical speed is less than +600fpm, the F/D pitch command bar provides commands to maintain
15 degrees nose up
If you attempt to start the APU and it will not start, what may be the cause?
APU fire switch on the overheat/fire panel has been pulled up
If you engage Level Change by pressing the LVL CHG switch on the MCP and the green light illuminates, what
other indications will occur as this mode engages?
Speed window opens to show target speed, MCP SPD annunciated for pitch mode, N1 or
RETARD/ARM annunciated for thrust mode.
In
If you want to find out if you will be flying through class E, class F or class G airspace, what documents can you refer to?
HI/LO enroute chart,
Airfield brief,
RTOW watermark,
Area chart of destination
Illumination (amber) of the Electrical (ELEC) Light in flight indicates:
This light operates only when the aircraft is on the ground.
Illumination (blue) of a Generator Off Bus (GEN OFF BUS) Light indicates:
the IDG is not supplying power to the related transfer bus
Illumination of amber FAULT light with the overheat detector switch in NORMAL indicates:
Both detector loops for an engine have failed.
Illumination of the amber BLEED TRIP OFF light indicates what valve has automatically closed?
Engine Bleed Air valve
Illumination of the amber ‘DRIVE’ light on the overhead panel indicates:
IDG low oil pressure.
Illumination of the APU DET INOP Light will cause the following lights to illuminate:
‘Both MASTER CAUTION and OVHT/DET’
Illumination of the BAT DISCHARGE light indicates:
Excessive battery discharge is detected with the battery switch ON.
Illumination of the DUAL BLEED light indicates:
Possible back pressure of the APU due APU Bleed Air Valve open and engine no.1 bleed air valve ON and isolation valve OPEN.
Illumination of the ‘GND POWER AVAILABLE’ light indicates:
Ground power is connected and meets aircraft power quality standards
Illumination of the STANDBY POWER OFF lights indicates
AC standby bus unpowered
Impact fittings located in the opening of each main gear well:
Are intended to provide protection to wheel well components during gear retraction by preventing a gear with a spinning tire and loose tread from entering the wheel well.
In addition to Hydraulic System A and B, the rudder can also be powered by the Standby Hydraulic System through the…
Standby Rudder PCU
In audio system operation in degraded mode, what are the combinations for transmission and reception at the degraded station?
Captain - receive and transmit only on VHF-1
F/O - receive and transmit only on VHF-2
Observer - receive and transmit only on VHF-1
In case of an engine overheat:
Both master caution lights, the related ENGINE OVERHEAT light and the OVHT/DET system annunciator lights illuminate.
In case of cargo compartment fire
Select the FWD ARMED or AFT ARMED switch then press the DISCH button
In Europe the upper limit of uncontrolled airspace is:
Different according to State
In flight a fuel imbalance between No1 and No2 tanks can be corrected by:
Open the Crossfeed cock, turn off the pumps on the low side until the Fuel Quantity Indicators are balanced.
In flight below 2000 feet RA, on an ILS Autopilot approach with flare armed, what happens if you push a TO/GA switch once?
Autothrottle advances thrust levers to reduced Go-Around N1.
In flight the Predictive Windshear Warning Alert system:
Will activate for windshear up to 1.5NM ahead of the aircraft
Automatically below 1200 feet RA (1800’RA for RDR-4000)
In flight with both PACK switches in HIGH:
None of RECIRC fans will operate.
In flight with the ‘STANDBY POWER’ switch in the AUTO position, loss of all AC generators will result in:
AC Standby Bus is supplied by the static inverter and DC Standby Bus is supplied by battery.
In flight, if a fault prevents the EEC receiving flap or anti-ice signals; at what altitude would the Approach Idle schedule begin?
Below 15,000 MSL.
In flight, operating the Fire Warning BELL CUTOUT Switch extinguishes both Master Fire Warn lights, silence the fire waring bell, and …
Resets the system for additional warnings
In flight, when does the EEC automatically select Approach Idle?
Flaps are in the landing configuration or engine anti-ice is ON for either engine.
In flight, with Autopilot engaged in CMD B, which FCC controls the logic for the flight directors on the Captain’s
PFD.
FCC B
In MANUAL pressurization mode the outflow valve is driven by?
A motor supplied from DC standby bus
In normal operation, engine overheat and fire detection alerts are triggered when
Both loops sense an overheat or fire
In normal operation, what provides the Autothrottle system with N1 limit values?
FMC.
In order to extend the life of the APU, & stabilization time of ____ is recommended before using it as & bleed air source:
2 minutes
In the event of an elevator control column jam, an override mechanism allows:
The control columns to be physically separated. The column which is free to move will be able to provide elevator control.
In the event of the loss of all engine and APU IDGs, the Standby Power system will provide what electrical power?
115V AC and 24V DC
In the IAS/MACH Display, to the left of the displayed figure, what does a flashing “A” indicate?
Underspeed limiting, FMC or selected speed can not be reached.
In the PACK TRIP OFF or PACK FAIL non-normal procedure, the crew selects a warmer temperature in order to:
Reduce the workload on the affected air conditioning pack
In the remote situation of total generator failure, at high altitude thrust deterioration may occur. Why?
The fuel will be suction feed only, and at high altitudes fuel vapour might release and obstruct the suction feed line
In what conditions do most mid air collisions occur?
Daylight, very good visibility
In what modes will a TCAS Traffic Alert message (“TRAFFIC” displayed Red for RA and Amber for TA) be displayed on the ND whenever a TA or RA is active (the EFIS control panel TFC switch does not have to be selected on)?
All modes
Note: The TCAS RA & TA symbols will only show on MAP, MAP CTR, VOR and APP modes with TFC switch ON.
In which fuel tanks are bypass valves located?
‘Both main tanks’
In which of the following situations does moving the battery switch to OFF immediately shut down the APU?
on the ground or in flight
In-flight, the two fuel pump LOW PRESSURE Lights for main tank No.1 illuminate. What happens to the No.1 engine?
It receives fuel from main tank No.1 through a suction feed line that bypasses the pumps ( fuel tank bypass valve)
Is automatic shutdown protection provided for the APU in the event of an APU fire if the APU fire detection system is inoperative?
No
Which statement is correct when selecting a landing autobrake setting after touchdown?
Autobrakes will initiate if selected prior to decelerating through 30 knots of ground speed.
Landing gear uplock is released when (for manual gear extension) ?
manual gear extension handle is pulled to its limit, approximately 24inches (61cm).
MACH TRIM FAIL
what are the implications?
dual channel failure,
Max speed 280 KCAS / M.82
Manual IRS entries of present position or magnetic heading are normally accomplished on the:
POS INIT page or the ISDU
Minimum fuel for ground operation of the electric motor-driven hydraulic pumps is:
760 kgs in the related main tank
Minimum in-flight tank fuel temperature is:
3 degrees above the fuel freezing point or - 43 degrees, whichever is higher.
No. 1 Engine Driven Hydraulic Pump illuminates. What should you do?
Turn HYD Pump (Aff. Side) OFF
Normal hydraulic brake pressure is:
3000psi.
Of the four lights located on the APU control panel, which light will NOT cause an automatic shutdown of the APU when it illuminates?
-800: MAINT
-8200: DOOR
On aircraft from EI-DPY there are new annunciators installed. Which?
Takeoff Config light and Cabin Altitude light
On landing, when do the ground spoilers extend?
Compression of the right main landing gear strut.
On later aircraft YW059 through YW164, what is the default Vertical Required Navigational Performance (VRNP)
used by the FMC for oceanic, en route, and terminal phases of flight?
400 feet.
On later aircraft YW130 through YW164, the VHF NAV switch changes the source of the data that the DEUs use for the NDs. What data is transferred by this switch?
DME, ILS/GLS, VOR, MCP course.
On selection of FAULT/INOP we would expect to see
Both Master Caution, OVHT/DET system annunciator, FAULT, and APU DET INOP lights illuminate
On takeoff the config warning sounds. What can be the cause?
Trailing edge flaps are in a skew condition
On the Audio Control Panel (ACP) the Cabin Call lights comes ON. It will illuminate until:
Remains illuminated for 40 seconds
On the Bleed Air Duct pressure indicator the L pressure indicates 40psi, the R pressure indicates 50psi:
As long as there is sufficient air for cabin pressurization, this is normal.
On the FMC FIX INFO page what does the RAD/DIS FR indicate?
The radial and distance from the fix to the airplane, this information will update as the aircraft changes position
On the ground, what would cause the TR UNIT light to illuminate (amber)?
Any TR has failed
On the ground, with both Air Conditioning PACK Switches positioned to HIGH (and both packs operating) and both Recirculation RECIRC FAN Switches positioned to AUTO:
Only the Right recirculation fan will operate and the Left recirculation fan will shut down
On the navigation display, how is the display presented in VOR, Approach and Plan modes?
VOR = heading up, Approach = heading up, Plan = true north up.
On the PFD, what does the DISPLAYS CONTROL PANEL in amber annunciation indicate?
The EFIS control panel on the side the annunciation is displayed has failed
On which CDU page is the ground speed displayed?
POS REF page 2
On which page of the FMC is the IRS position initially set?
POS INIT page.
Once activated, a Passenger Service Unit (PSU) oxygen supply:
flows for approximately 12 minutes
Once activated, the APU DC operated fuel pump operates automatically until:
An AC fuel pump pressurises the manifold
Once an alert has occurred for deviating from the selected altitude, how is it cancelled?
return to within 300 feet of selected altitude or deviate by more than 900 feet from selected
Once the thrust reverse auto-stow circuit is activated:
The isolation valve remains open and the control valve is held in the stow position
One basic principle of operation for the 737 electrical system is:
There is no paralleling of the AC power sources (one source at a time)
or; when connecting a new source, the excisting one is automatically disconnected.
One of the purposes of the FMC FIX INFO page is to:
Create a new waypoint at the intersection of the active route with a radial or distance from a known fix.
Operating the airstairs from the exterior panel with the NORMAL/STANDBY switch to STANDBY:
Does not require the BAT switch to be ON
Operating the Cargo Fire DISCH Switch:
Discharges the total contents of the Cargo Compartment Fire Bottle into the FWD or AFT cargo hold
Operating the EXT TEST Switch:
To position 1 or 2 test bottle discharge circuits for all three extinguisher bottles
Overheat detection is available for
Engines
Placing the OVHT/FIRE TEST Switch to OVHT/FIRE position:
Tests
- overheat and fire detection loops on both engines ,
- fire detection on the APU,
- and wheel well fire detector (latter only if AC power connected)
Placing the TEST switch, on fire protection panel, to FAULT/INOP position tests:
The fault detection circuit for both engines and APU.
Positioning an engine-driven hydraulic pump switch to OFF:
Isolates the hydraulic fluid flow from the system components, but the pump keeps rotating as long as the engine is running
Positioning the ENG ANTI-ICE switch to ON in flight:
Sets stick shaker logic (stall and speed bars) for icing conditions only when ENG-ANTI ICE switch is ON.
For the remainder of the flight if WAI has been used. Does not update the Vref speeds in the FMC.
Positioning the WING ANTI-ICE switch to ON, in flight:
Adjusts stick shaker and minimum manoeuvring speed bars on air speed tape and remains set for the remainder of the flight.
Prior to returning to the oil tank, engine oil passes through:
-800: The scavenge pump and filter and main engine oil cooler
- 8200: Scavenge pump only
PROBE HEAT switches are ON. What does this indicate?
They are Heated. No lights should be visible
Pulling an engine FIRE WARNING switch up:
- Arms 1 squib on each bottle
- Closes both eng and spar fuel shutoff valves
- Closes HYD valve
- Deactivates LOW PRESSURE light
- Closes bleed air valve
- Trips Generator Relay and GCB
- Disables Thrust Reverser
Pulling the APU Fire switch up
Provides backup for the automatic shutdown feature
Pulling the No 2 ENGINE FIRE SWITCH shuts off hydraulic fluid to the:
Engine driven pump in system B
Pulling the number 2 engine fire switch up will
isolate the System B engine driven Hydraulic pump but the electric motor driven pump maintains System B pressure.
Pulling up the APU fire warning switch:
- Trips the generator control relay and breaker,
- Arms the associated extinguisher
- Closes the bleed air valve,
- Closes the fuel shutoff valve,
- Closes the APU inlet door.
Pushing cargo fire TEST switch:
Test the fwd and aft cargo fire loops only and continuity of the extinguisher bottle squib circuit
Pushing the ATTEND call switch in the flight deck:
Sounds a two-tone chime in the cabin and illuminates both pink master call lights
Pushing the VHF TEST Switch on the radio tuning panel:
Removes Auto Squelch; improves reception of weak signals
Refer to the Cabin/Flight Altitude placard. At a cruise altitude FL290, the cabin altitude should read:
Approximately 6000 feet
Refer to the thermal anti-ice (TAI) CDS indication. TAI is shown above each N1 indicator:
If green, the cowl anti- ice valve is open and the related engine anti- ice switch is ON
Reverse thrust can be selected with the forward thrust levers in what position?
Idle thrust position
What systems does the Standby Hydraulic System power?
- No1+No2 Reversers
- SBY Yaw Damper
- SBY Rudder
- AutoSlats + LE Flaps and LE Slats
Selecting the APU switch to OFF position trips the APU generator, closes the APU bleed air valve and extinguishes the APU GEN OFF BUS light. To allow for a cooling period, APU shutdown will occur automatically after a delay of _____ seconds:
60 seconds
Selecting the Cockpit Voice Recorder to ON has what effect?
Powers the cockpit voice recorder until first engine is started, then trips to AUTO.
Selecting the Flap lever to the FLAP 1 Gate causes the LE Flaps to move to what position?
Fully Extended
Selecting Wx+T on the weather radar (-700)
Shows turbulence within 50 miles
Separation is provided between IFR and VFR traffic in which Classes of airspace
Classes A, B and C
Setting the ADF mode selector switch to ANT has what effect?
No ADF bearing data available and audio reception optimised.
Some of the indications for an engine fire warning are: MASTER CAUTION and OVHT/DET annunciator lights, ENG OVERHEAT light, Master FIRE WARN lights and the red fire switch light. There is one more indication?
The fire warning bell rings
SPEEDBRAKE DO NOT ARM
what are the implications
Speedbrakes INOP, extend manually
Spoilers will deploy automatically:
Flight Spoilers:
Aircraft’s radio altitude is less than 10ft,
Thrust levers are in the IDLE position,
Landing gear strut is compressed,
Main landing gear wheels spin faster than 60 knots.
Ground Spoilers: The right main landing gear strut is compressed.
STAB OUT OF TRIM (amber) light. What is it, what do you do?
+ A/P P/RST (red) if <800’ RA on 2CH ILS
AP is not trimming correctly
- DISCO AP+AT
- Trim Manually
On 2CH G/A Might not Level Off Correctly - ALT ACQ INHIBIT
Switching ENG 1 hydraulic pump OFF:
energizes the blocking valve to block pump output.
Switching the CAB/UTIL switch OFF removes all 115v AC from the galley busses and:
Left and right recirculation fans
Give the levels of protection and CPA for TA, RA and Proximate and Other Traffic
- RA: CPA: 25s
- TA: CPA: 40s
- Proximate Traffic: <6nm and <1200’ or NO ALT
- Other Traffic: >6nm, >1200’
Give the TCAS Inhibits by Level
- <1500 RA: “Increase Descent” RA Inhibit
- <1100’ RA “Descent” RA Inhibit
- <1000’ RA, all RA Inhibits
- <500’ RA, all TCAS Voice Inhibits
TCAS TA Only mode is enabled automatically:
Below 1000ft RA when TA/RA mode is selected
The 250kt speed limit does not apply to IMC or night time operations in D, E, F or G airspace
FALSE
True or false?
The 250kt speed limit in D, E, F and G airspace can be removed by ATC using the phrase ‘No speed restriction”
FALSE
The 250kt speed limit only applies when you are on schedule
FALSE
The 737-600/700/800 is powered by two:
CFM 56-7 engines
The 737-700 displays a white bug when Vref is selected, this indicates:
Vref+15
The 737-700 is how much shorter than the -800?
5.8m shorter than the 737-800
The 737-700 is fitted with:
A single recirculation fan
One overwing exit (Each Side)
No tailskid
The 737-700 Right Duct Overheat sensor is located:
Downstream of the Mix Manifold
The Air Data Inertial Reference System (ADIRS) produces following flight data:
Position, attitude, altitude and speed
The air/ground system receives logic signals from:
Six sensors, two on each landing gear
True or false?
The Aircraft battery need to be selected ON for STANDBY operation of the Forward Airstairs from the FWD
Attendant’s Panel?
TRUE
The aircraft is not certified for operations:
Above 82N or below 82S
The bug below that indicates V2 + 15 is displayed at what stage of flight, and when is it removed?
Displayed at Takeoff, removed at first flap retraction or when Vref entered in CDU.
What do the 3 green lights indicate, when the EXT TEST switch is moved to either 1 or 2 position?
That the circuit continuity from the squib to the engine and APU fire switch is checked.
What indications will you see on the electrical panel when selecting GRD PWR ON?
GRD POWER AVAILABLE light illuminated,
SOURCE OFF lights extinguished,
GEN OFF BUS lights illuminated,
TRANSFER BUS OFF lights extinguished and
APU GEN OFF BUS light extinguished
When will the blue APU GEN OFF BUS light illuminate?
When the APU is at operational speed but is not supplying an AC transfer bus.
With both engines operating and one forward thrust lever set below approximately 20 degrees thrust lever angle, the landing gear warning horn can be silenced with the landing gear warning HORN CUTOUT switch:
with flaps UP through 10 if below 800 feet RA and above 200 feet RA
Which statement is correct about the colour on the Terrain Display (with landing gear up)?
Solid red - look ahead terrain warning active
