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Training > SOPs > Flashcards

SOPs Flashcards

To know your SOPs by heart!

1
Q

A double briefing has to contain the following:

A

QTSAVNG

  • QNH+minima
  • Temp Corr
  • Sequence (flaps,configure)
  • AFDS + A/T
  • Visual - actions if visual
  • Not visual - actions if not
  • Gate - landing gate

“Has to include but is not limited to”:
The Autopilot modes and selections to be used during the approach & The ‘Landing Gate’.
Both crew’s intentions on becoming visual & Both crew’s intentions on reaching MDA if not visual (i.e. the Go-Around procedure for the aircraft to Flaps up)
Where Flaps 1, 5, Landing Gear, Flaps 15, (25), 30/40 are to be selected.

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2
Q

A full test of the GPWS is carried out by the?

A

F/O, first flight or crew change only

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3
Q

A Monitored Approach does NOT apply to:

A

Circle to land approaches

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4
Q

A NPA using VNAV must be stabilised by:

A

1,000 feet in IMC conditions, 500 feet in VMC

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5
Q

A runway covered with more than 3mm of ‘Slush’ is considered for performance reasons to be a:

A

“Contaminated Runway”

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6
Q

According to the ‘Before Taxi – No Engine Bleed’ Checklist, which of the following is true?

A

If wing anti-ice is required for taxi you will configure for a no engine bleed take off just prior to takeoff

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7
Q

After De-Icing or Anti-icing the aircraft, Assumed Temperature Reduced Thrust (ATRT):

A

Is not permitted

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8
Q

After landing if the turnoff is 90 degrees, what is the maximum allowed speed? Select one:

A

10 knots

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9
Q

All MCP ALT changes shall be called by the PF and confirmed by the PM.

A

The PF will leave their finger on the MCP ALT switch calling “set” to which the PM will respond “***** checked”

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10
Q

An aircraft must be fully stabilized (as defined in the FCOM) passing:

A

The Landing gate

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11
Q

An APV approach would be flown to which minima?

A

LNAV/VNAV

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12
Q

An ASR must be filed if:

A

A Go-Around has been executed below 1000ft AGL

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13
Q

An assumed temperature reduced take off is not allowed:

A

With a crosswind exceeding 10 knots

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14
Q

An ‘Emergency Turn’ (engine failure on takeoff) must be flown

A

Accelerate and maintain V2 (magenta bug) and limit bank angle to 15° during the turn.

The turn does not need to be completed before level acceleration unless specified in the ETP

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15
Q

Are you allowed to fly direct to the Final Approach Fix on an RNAV Approach?

A

No

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16
Q

As a tail strike prevention policy, when crosswind exceed 10 knots for takeoff:

A

No assume temperature reduction is allowed

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17
Q

As part of the Before Taxi Procedure, the PF blanks the lower display completely by pushing the MFD. Is that correct?

A

This is correct as the ‘Pop up’ feature will reveal the lower display in case of an exceedance or engine failure

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18
Q

As part of the evacuation checklist, the F/O will:

A

Pull all engine and APU fire switches and only rotate a fire switch that is illuminated

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19
Q

As part of the Route Check the PF will:

A

Call “Checked” and states estimated fuel remaining

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20
Q

Ash (VA) or areas where ash concentrations have been measured above which level?

A

2mg/m3

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21
Q

At the runway holding point, it is determined that a pre-takeoff contamination check is required:

A

This check must be completed externally by a qualified person

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22
Q

Before obtaining engine start clearance the transponder should be positioned to?

A

ALT OFF

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23
Q

Below FL100 in Class C airspace, ATC ask you to maintain speed 280kts for separation: Select one

A

You comply as this is a specific speed instruction from ATC

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24
Q

Below which temperature is not permitted to start or motor the engine?

A

-40°C

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25
Q

Can an enroute alternate be considered at the planning stage that is within a NFZ?

A

No

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26
Q

Can the weather radar detect volcanic ash?

A

No

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27
Q

Can you go to the Loss of Thrust On Both Engines QRH checklist if the condition statement is not met if directed by the Volcanic Ash QRH checklist?

A

Yes

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28
Q

Choose the correct statement regarding high altitude flight:

A

When using HDG SEL, the drag in a turn may increase to more than the available thrust

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29
Q

True or false?

A tail strike has a dedicated checklist in the QRH titled “Tail Strike”

A

True

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30
Q

Choose the most appropriate statement regarding the Hotmike usage.

A

I/C shall be on prior to the Descent checks and remains ON for the remainder of the flight until the Parking Brake is set at the stand, then OFF.

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31
Q

Continuous Descent Approaches (2 engines) are standard on (OMA)?

A

All (ILS) approaches except V/S NPA and SRA’s

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32
Q

Crews may plan to fly high speed below FL100?

A

Only in the climb if you are in Class A, B or C airspace and have been authorised to do so by ATC

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33
Q

Cruise altitude speed must be:

A

At least 10 knots above the lower amber band when not in LNAV

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34
Q

During a 2 engine go around, the PF calls for gear up. What should the PM crosscheck before positioning the gear up?

A

Both VSI and altimeter indicate a positive rate of climb

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35
Q

During a dual channel GO Around, who will select the appropriate mode on the MCP?

A

PF

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36
Q

During a GA, the correct roll mode at 400ft, providing routing is available is?

A

LNAV

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37
Q

During a Non Precision Approach using VNAV, at what point is the missed approach altitude set?

A

The missed approach altitude is set at 1000ft AAL

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38
Q

During a normal ILS approach in VMC conditions the flaps are not in landing configuration. What is the call at 500ft AAL?

A

“500 Go Around”

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39
Q

During a normal NADP 2 takeoff with 2 engines operative, when does the PF call “BUG UP”

A

At 1,000ft AAL

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40
Q

During a Rejected T/O, what are the steps to follow?

A

The CPT will stop the aircraft, set the parking brake. The FO will select flaps 40 and inform ATC of the RTO

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41
Q

During a single channel or manual approach, the PM should call:

A

The visual cues as they become apparent during the approach

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42
Q

During an ILS approach what is set once glideslope is captured?

A

The Missed Approach Altitude, as verified from the FMC

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43
Q

During an NADP 1 departure a SID requires a 3000ft QNH level off, when is it acceptable to accelerate and retract flaps?

A

At ALT ACQ

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44
Q

During an NADP 2 departure, when would you put in the respective autopilot?

A

At 1,000ft AAL

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45
Q

During any Go-Around when is ATC called if required?

A

After calling “SPEED CHECKS, FLAPS UP”

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46
Q

During crosswind takeoffs:

A

The control wheel should only be displaced in order to keep wings level

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47
Q

During daylight, with failed centre line lights, can you complete a CAT IIIA (CAT3a) approach and if so what are the restrictions (Part A, Chapter 8)?

A

YES, but RVR must be 300m or greater

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48
Q

During flap retraction, the speed must not only be at the manoeuvring speed for the existing flap setting, but also showing an…?

A

Accelerating speed trend vector

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49
Q

During Flight Deck Safety Inspection, what is the FIRST item to be checked in the Techlog?

A

Verify Techlog registration agrees with aircraft registration.

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50
Q

During Fuel Balancing with fuel in the center tank what should the position of the center tank fuel pumps and crossfeed selector be?

A

Both center tank fuel pumps Off and crosfeed selector OPEN

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51
Q

During hours of low visibility, for the Exterior Inspection (walkaround):

A

The pilot completing the walkround should use a flashlight

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52
Q

During ILS CATII/III approaches the maximum allowed deviation is:

A

1/3 dot Localizer (2/3 from center to dot on the localizer expanded scale)
1 dot Glideslope
Otherwise a GA is mandatory

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53
Q

During low visibility operations, the crew should:

A

Have the ILS tuned to the departure runway for take off

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54
Q

For a night time visual landing, which statement is true?

A

Visual landing are permitted only if there is a published approach

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55
Q

True or false?

During taxi in and taxi out the F/O (RHS) must acknowledge the taxi instructions, write them in the FMC scratchpad and ensure both pilots understand them.

Only essential Safety PA’s are permitted.

A

True

Only essential Safety PA’s are permitted. However, if delays to departure are experienced the Captain may inform the passengers once the parking brake is set.

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56
Q

During the climb above FL100 and after the “Altimeters” call the PF will call for the “10 checks” which will be actioned by the PM. These will be said out loud in an unobtrusive manner in the following flow:

A

Fuel
Lights
APU Off
Press and Air Cond (APU bleed off)
Seatbelts
Recall
121.5 monitor

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57
Q

During the climb as PM you see a FMC scratchpad message:

A

Both pilots must acknowledge the message before it is cleared

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58
Q

During the D.A.L.T.A setup for a circling approach, when setting the range rings for the approach and landing, the pilot should set 10 NM range ring and 4/5 NM ( VMC/IMC) range ring from the approach runway and…

A

4.2 NM including abeam radial from the landing runway

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59
Q

During the Descent and Approach preparation what are the tasks of the PF and PM?

A

PF is responsible for setting the Vref and Autobrake setting having handed over control to the PM

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60
Q

True or false?

During the Descent and Approach preparation, the PF becomes PM whilst briefing. He selects, among other items, Vref and Autobrake setting?

A

True

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61
Q

During the descent the “10 checks” are performed aloud as follows:

A

Fuel
Lights
Angle of Bank 25°
Check Air Conditioning and pressurisation
Fasten Belts
Recall
PA “10 minutes to landing” Deselect 121.500

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62
Q

During the exterior inspection the PM will:

A

Include a visual inspection of both Cargo Holds. Leave hold doors open after inspection

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63
Q

During the Final Flight Deck Preparation, the crew will use the INOP No Smoking switch in the AUTO position as a tactical reminder that:

A

The passengers are seated

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64
Q

During the Post Flight Procedures when can the Anti Collision light be switched off?

A

When N2 on both engines is less than 20%

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65
Q

During the post flight procedures who annunciates “Disarm Slides and Open Doors”?

A

Captain

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66
Q

During the pre-flight planning phase, what weather criteria should be used for the destination alternate if it has a CAT I ILS approach?

A

For a CAT I approach; use Non-precision RVR / Vis and ceiling minima

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67
Q

During the preflight Flight Deck Access System Test the correct action after the Emergency Access Code is entered
and the AUTO UNLK light illuminates is:

A

Flight deck door lock selector to DENY

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68
Q

During the Preflight Procedure, as PF, when do you check that the Brake Accumulator and Hydraulic System A and B pressure are within limits?

A

After selecting the System A and B Hydraulic Pumps ON.

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69
Q

During the Preflight Procedure, how often is the rudder and aileron trim checked to be free and zero?

A

It is completed for all flights.

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70
Q

During the preliminary pre-flight procedures the APU is normally started

A

Just prior to the L1 door closes // When the load sheet arrives

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71
Q

During the takeoff roll, when the PF calls “Set Takeoff Thrust”, the PM checks N1 against target value, checks engine instruments on the upper DU and checks for any pop-ups on the lower DU, then calls?

A

“Takeoff thrust set, indications normal”

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72
Q

During the taxi-in, the first officer will:

A

Check the hydraulic and brake pressure

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73
Q

During your walk around you see a missing security seal?

A

The requirement to check for missing seals is now removed from the exterior inspection procedure.

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74
Q

EI-FOC onwards. During cruise in VNAV PTH, a lower MCP Altitude is selected, followed by ALT INTV more than 50Nm before TOD. The aircraft will:

A

initiate a CRZ descent if the selected altitude is above any FMC altitude constraint OR initiate an early descent if the selected altitude is below any FMC altitude constraint.

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75
Q

Electric Hydraulic pumps may be switched ON while refuelling is in progress?

A

Yes, when ground crew is informed, bypass pin is installed.

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76
Q

Why should engine start be accomplished as late as possible to have the number 1 engine stabilising just as the tow bar and the tug have cleared away from the airplane?

A

To minimise fuel burn and risk of ingesting FOD close to stand

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77
Q

Engine Start: The PF calls, ‘Monitor Number__’

A

After the Start Valve Open light extinguishes and the PM calls, “Starter cut-out”

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78
Q

Engine Start: The Start Levers are moved to the idle detent when?

A

N1 rotation is observed and N2 reaches 25%

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79
Q

Entering the runway, which lights do you turn ON?

A

Fixed Landing lights

Retractable Landing lights

Strobes

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80
Q

Flight crews, during a climb out, will reduce rate of climb to 3000 FPM if in excess at 3000 feet to level off, 2000 FPM if in excess at 2000 feet to level-off and 1000 FPM if in excess at 1000 feet to level-off. This restriction will be observed:

A

At all times. VNAV performance shall be used and monitored if within the above limits

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81
Q

FMC Route Modifications en-route: Upon receipt of an ATC DIRECT TO clearance, the PM reads back the clearance and…

A

The PM promptly selects the desired WPT to the scratchpad, then to 1L of LEGS page 1.

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82
Q

For a VOR NPA approach not coded in the FMC, which is the recommended roll mode for the final approach?

A

VOR/LOC

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83
Q

For all ILS approaches, G/S capture must be achieved no later than?

A

4 or 5 miles DME / 4 or 5 nm from the RW point

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84
Q

How is the Wing Anti-Ice used in flight?

A

The Primary method is to use it as a de-icer by allowing ice to accumulate.

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85
Q

How long should the APU be running prior to using it as a bleed source?

A

2 min

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86
Q

How must an approach using LNAV/VNAV Minima be flown?

A

LNAV as the lateral mode, VNAV as the vertical mode

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87
Q

How will the cabin-crew notify the flight crew of a fire in the cabin during taxi?

A

The crewmember that first sees the fire goes immediately to the nearest interphone, presses 222, and tells the flight crew

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88
Q

How will the Captain notify the CSS in case of an emergency?

A

He will press the attendant call button once and use the phrase”No 1 to the flight deck”, over the PA

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89
Q

Ideally, Continuous Descent Approaches will be used on:

A

Only ILS Approaches under Radar Vector control except for CAT II/IIIA

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90
Q

If a conflict occurs between a TCAS RA and an ATC advisory information, which should the PF follow?

A

TCAS

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91
Q

If a No Engine Bleeds takeoff is planned:

A

It is necessary to cover this fact in the takeoff brief

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92
Q

If a normal Bleeds ON takeoff is planned:

A

It need NOT be mentioned in the takeoff brief

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93
Q

If an automatic switch over to a departure frequency is required after take-off, unless otherwise instructed by ATC, the PM selects the frequency once airborne and:

A

Calls should be initiated to ATC as specified in NADP1 or NADP2.

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94
Q

If APU operation is required on the ground and the aircraft buses are powered by AC electrical power, then:

A

An AC powered fuel pump from left side of fuel manifold should be ON

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95
Q

If conducting a NADP 1 departure and a SID requires a 2500ft QNH level off, when is it acceptable to accelerate?

A

Only accelerate once cleared to climb above 3000ft AGL

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96
Q

If ice crystal icing is suspected during flight:

A

Do the Ice Crystal Icing non-normal checklist

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97
Q

True or false?

If OAT is changed after the V speeds have been entered on the TAKEOFF REF page, the FMC removes the previously entered V speeds and a NO VSPD flag shows on the airspeed indication.

A

TRUE

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98
Q

If published, an Emergency Turn Procedure:

A

Would be completed, instead of flying straight ahead following an engine failure on Take off

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99
Q

If the ambient temperature is below -35°C how many minutes must the engine be idled before changing thrust position?

A

2 minutes

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100
Q

If the autoland proceeds normally after passing 50 ft radio minimums, the F/O calls?

A

Nothing until the speed brake deploys

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101
Q

If the EFB mounting device is not available, where should the EFB be stowed during critical phases of flight?

A

In the crewmember’s flight bag

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102
Q

If the LNAV/VNAV minima published on the chart is 350ft, what minima is to be set on the PFD (assuming no cold temperature corrections needed)?

A

350ft (no addition required)

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103
Q

If the RUNWAY INOP light is illuminated with the RUNWAY INHIBIT switch in the normal position, this indicates:

A

Some RAAS alerts may continue to function

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104
Q

If you enter a Volcanic Ash NFZ but do not encounter any Volcanic Ash, what is your course of action after the flight?

A

A techlog entry must be made.

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105
Q

If your destination and alternate become unsuitable, once you have found a suitable alternate the fuel required is:

A

the fuel from your present position to the new alternate plus the final reserve fuel

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106
Q

Who calls for the memory items in case of an APU fire?

A

The PF calls for the memory items

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107
Q

In descent when setting QNH what is the correct PF call?

A

SET QNH____, PASSING____ DESCENDING ___FEET, ___ FLAGS, STANDBY ALTIMETER SET

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108
Q

In relation to the centre tank fuel pumps, the Captain may elect to leave the centre pump switches off for T/O until passing FL 100. Correct?

A

Yes, if he deems that the amount of fuel in the centre tanks is insufficient (453kgs) to keep the fuel low-pressure lights out during T/O

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109
Q

In the cruise if speed drops below the top of the lower amber band immediately increase speed by:

A

Reducing bank angle and/or increasing thrust to MCT and/or descend

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110
Q

In the event of a ‘Engine Failure’ on Take-off one should:

A

Climb straight ahead unless there is an “Emergency Turn” and inform ATC

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111
Q

In the event of Docunet being unavailable, where can flight manuals be downloaded to?

A

Flight Dispatch Folder application

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112
Q

Before Takeoff during Cold Weather Operations, in which of the following cases must the take off be preceded by a static engine run-up?

A

When engine anti-ice is required and OAT is 3°C or below.

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113
Q

Inexperienced co-pilots or a co-pilot newly converted onto type shall not conduct the landing when specific weather conditions are experienced. Choose the most appropriate description.

A

When the crosswind is in excess of 15kt during normal operations or when the crosswind is more than 2/3 limiting value, whichever is lower

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114
Q

Is the CABIN call chime tested as part of the Preliminary Flight Deck Preparation?

A

Yes, by the PF

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115
Q

Is the Landing Dispatch Performance required to be calculated before the Final CDU Preflight Procedure?

A

Yes

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116
Q

It is policy to fly a Low Drag Approach (ILS):

A

Subject to ATC, where the cloud base is not less than 1,000ft. and the met. visibility is greater than 5km.

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117
Q

Items to be reviewed with the takeoff briefing, as part of the before takeoff checks are:

A
  • Bleeds position
  • Speeds
  • SID initial turn requirement and stop altitude
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118
Q

Low Drag Non-Precision Approaches are:

A

Not normally applicable to V/S NPA

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119
Q

Max motoring occurs when N2 acceleration is less than 1% in approximately how many seconds?

A

5 seconds

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120
Q

Maximum ground speed whilst taxiing on a contaminated taxiway is:

A

5 knots

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121
Q

MCP altitude changes during climb following an ATC instruction require the following actions and call-outs?

A

The PF selects/confirms VNAV mode on the MCP/PFD, verifies FMA and calls “VNAV” for all MCP ALT selections.

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122
Q

Minimum engine oil quantity for dispatch (as displayed on the lower DU) is:

A

12 Litres

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123
Q

Night time ‘Circle to Land’ manoeuvres are

A

Permitted provided a visual slope indicator (PAPI/VASI) or electronic slope indicator is operational on the landing runway

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124
Q

No Ryanair revenue flight shall be planned to arrive at destination with less than

A

1800Kg of fuel

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125
Q

On an ILS approach in VMC, PF should call ‘Gear down, Flaps 15’:

A

At 4nm, but not later than 3.5nm

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126
Q

On departure, when may crews fly at more than 250kts below FL100?

A

Only if you’re within Class A, B or C airspace, have been instructed “free speed” by ATC and are progressing on the course of your intended route.

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127
Q

On landing a Go-Around can be initiated at any time up to?

A

Selecting reverse thrust

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128
Q

On the ground, prior to switching on the A system pump switches, ensure:

A

Personnel are clear of the tow bar OR the bypass pin has been installed

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129
Q

Once cleared for taxi, the Captain will switch on the taxi and runway turnoff light:

A

There is no requirement to switch off any or all of these lights if the aircraft must stop during taxi

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130
Q

One of the standard callouts during engine start is?

A

‘Oil Pressure’ - PM

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131
Q

P-RNAV arrivals terminate at:

A

Final Approach Waypoint.

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132
Q

PF response to RAAS “On Runway” (cleared for take-off) is:

A

“Timing”

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133
Q

Preflight, prior to first flight. Who checks the Ships Library?

A

The PF

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134
Q

Preflight: How is the instrument crosscheck performed?

A

The PF calls Time (UTC), QNH, Altimeter, MFRA, FD and standby instruments. PM follows silently

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135
Q

Preflight: Initial Emergency Briefing: The section detailing what the crew will reject the take-off for is briefed by the:

A

Captain

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136
Q

Prior to crossing or entering a runway, either active or non active, crews must make a ‘Two Phase call’ (inter cockpit). The first phase of the ‘Two Phase Call’ requires the Captain to establish with the RHS pilot that they are cleared to cross/enter the runway, the second phase requires the RHS pilot to respond:

A

“Affirm cleared to enter” or “Affirm, cleared to cross”

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137
Q

Prior to crossing or entering a runway, either active or not active, crews must make a ‘Two Phase Call’ (inter cockpit). This ‘Two Phase Call’ requires the Captain to establish with the RHS pilot that:

A

The runway may be entered or crossed & the approach is checked clear both directions (as much as is possible)

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138
Q

Prior to pushback, the “Passengers Seated” signal: Select one

A

Is given by the No 1 prior to pushback

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139
Q

Prior to taxi the F/O should call?

A

“Clear right”

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140
Q

Regarding IRS alignment -
When are you required to do a full realignment ?

A

A full alignment is only required for the first flight of each duty period

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141
Q

Regarding operations in severe turbulence during the cruise, which statement is correct?

A

Set the FMC turbulence penetration N1 OR N1 settings from the applicable QRH section.

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142
Q

Regarding to the NO ENGINE BLEED TAKEOFF, what action shall be taken after completing the engine start procedure with both engines stable, parking brake set, tug and towbar disconnected, bypass pin removed and hand signals received from the ground crew?

A

Do not perform any action from memory and complete the NO ENGINE BLEED TAKEOFF checklist as instructed.

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143
Q

Runway conditions permitting, autobrake will be:

A

The setting is as determined by the crew having consulted the QRH (PIsection) or using the OPT

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144
Q

Ryanair and CFM recommend the following cool down period for the engine hot section thermo stabilisation?

A

Three minutes

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145
Q

Second officer (2 stripes) shall not conduct the landing when the crosswind is in excess of?

A

15kts during normal operations

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146
Q

Select which statement is true with regard to a NADP1 departure. Select one

A

At 1,000 ft AAL PF will select CMD A or B and call “COMMAND A or B” when annunciated on the FMA.

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147
Q

Selection of the autopilot Control Wheel Steering is recommended for operation in severe turbulence. Choose the
most appropriate answer.

A

True, but DO NOT use the ALT HOLD mode.

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148
Q

Self-manoeuvring Night Time Visual approaches below the MSA are:

A

Prohibited

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149
Q

Should both EFBs become inoperative during flight, with no back up paper charts available on board, crew should

A

Use available FMC information and obtain necessary enroute or approach details from the ATC unit on VHF to allow safe approach and landing at the destination/diversion airport.

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150
Q

Should the PF check the landing gear lights on the aft overhead panel during pre-flight preparations?

A

Yes

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151
Q

Standard Autobrake setting is OFF. Autobrake must be selected to a minimum of “2” when:

A

Crosswind in excess of 15kts

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152
Q

Standard callout from the PM at 500ft AAL on an ILS CAT I approach is:

A

500 continue / 500 go around

“Five hundred continue/go-around” (PM), “Check” (PF)

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153
Q

The After T/O checks are:

A

Done silently, except for “Air Conditioning & Press” which is called aloud & the “Altimeters” check, which is challenge & response

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154
Q

The After Take Off - No Engine Bleed Checklist should be read as follows:

A

PM - Read Challenge and Response, then Action and repeat Response.

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155
Q

The aircraft may be operated safely up to:

A

The maximum altitude indicated in the FMC

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156
Q

The Approach Procedure (FRISC scanflow) prior to calling for the Approach Checklist, is which of the following?

A

Frequencies, Range Rings, Idents, SBY’s and Courses

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157
Q

The Audio Switch to I/C for Hot mike usage is required:

A

After pushback and prior to obtaining taxi clearance. It shall remain ON until completion of the TEN Checks Climbing, after which it will remain crew discretion to either turn the I/C On or Off and shall be on prior to the Descent checks and remains On for the remainder of the flight until Park Brake set at stand.

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158
Q

The Autobrake performance is designed to:

A

To only use the amount of wheel braking required to achieve the selected deceleration rate
MAX - 14(12 < 80kts) fps
3 - 7.2 fps
2 - 5 fps
1 - 4 fps

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159
Q

The Boeing OPT is:

A

Is the default performance calculation application

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160
Q

The ‘Briefing’ part of RIBETS must be completed by?

A

PF

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161
Q

The Cabin Crew must be advised of refuelling when passengers are?

A

Embarking, disembarking or on board

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162
Q

The check of the intermittent warning horn (TO Configuration) is done when?

A

Done during the pre-flight checks for all flights as part of the “Speedbrake” check. It is done by the PF

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163
Q

The circuit breaker panel located behind the Capt. seat is referred to as:

A

The P-18 Panel

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164
Q

The correct FMC sequence when briefing a SID is:

A

RTE PAGE 1 and 2, INIT/REF, LEGS

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165
Q

The correct point to select Landing Gear Down and Flap 15 on a VS NPA is?

A

5nm prior to RWxx

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166
Q

The Crossfeed valve is checked for correct operation on the first flight of the day for each crew?

A

True

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167
Q

The declaration of MINIMUM FUEL informs ATC that:

A

All planned aerodrome options have been reduced to a specific aerodrome of intended landing and any change to the existing clearance may result in landing with less than planned final reserve fuel.

168
Q

The earliest point that flap retraction from F15 to F5 may be commenced on a two engine Missed Approach is at…

A

400ft

169
Q

True or false?

The engines are always started by the CPT

A

FALSE

170
Q

The Enhanced GPWS will issue an automatic 500ft aural call at:

A

500 feet Radio Altitude on an approach that has NO Glideslope

171
Q

The Fasten Belts switch should be selected to ON when:

A

Passing FL150 or 15 minutes to landing

172
Q

The First Officer will begin reading his “Before Takeoff Checklist” when:

A

The Captain calls for it

173
Q

The flight profiles of Ryanair approaches are contained in which manual?

A

QRH, Maneuvers section

174
Q

The following information should be given to ATC on contact with the first radar controller:

A

Full call sign, SID or cleared routing/heading, passing altitude/FL, Cleared altitude/FL

175
Q

The following is the correct manoeuvre for a TCAS RA (Resolution Advisory).

A

If manoeuvring is required disengage autopilot and auto-throttle and follow the correct manoeuvre as depicted on the PFD

176
Q

The frequency 121.50 MHz must be monitored:

A

On VHF 2 when cleared to cruise level

177
Q

The IFE Switch on the overhead panel is normally left:

A

ON, the IFE Switch is always turned ON as part of the pre-flight procedure

178
Q

The initial welcoming PA to passengers boarding should be done by whom and when?

A

Must be done by the Captain prior to pushback

179
Q

The INOP NO SMOKING sign is moved to the ON position. What does this indicate during the taxi out phase?

A

The cabin is secured for Take off

180
Q

The landing gate for a circling approach is 300ft AAL. What must be established by 500ft AAL on a circling approach?

A

Landing configuration only

181
Q

The maximum allowed crosswind component (winglet aircraft) for takeoff on a slush/standing water runway is:

A

15 knots

182
Q

The maximum approach speed additive is:

A

Vref +15 or landing flaps placard speed – 5kts

183
Q

The maximum crosswind component on a CATII/IIIA Approach is?

A

20kts

184
Q

The Maximum crosswind, dry runway, for takeoff and landing a winglet equipped aircraft is:

A

33 knots

185
Q

The maximum headwind, crosswind and tailwind component on a CAT II/IIIA Autoland is?

A

Max headwind: 25 kts
Max cross wind: 20 kts
Max tailwind: 10 kts

186
Q

The Maximum taxi speed on the apron in dry conditions is:

A

15 knots

187
Q

The minimum brake accumulator pressure with the hydraulics pressurised should be?

A

2,800 PSI

188
Q

The minimum flap retraction altitude (MFRA) is:

A

Found on the respective runway RTOW plate or OPT data

189
Q

The minimum visual reference required to safely continue an approach below DA/MDA is at least:

A

Elements of the approach light system including at least two cross bars

190
Q

The NAV lights should be ON:

A

When AC power is connected to the airplane electrical busses

191
Q

The ‘Outer Marker’ standard call on a ILS approach is:

A

“Outer Marker, XXXXfeet, Flags/No Flags” (PF challenge);
“Altitude Checks, Flags/No Flags: (PM Response)

192
Q

True or false?

The PF completes the ‘Before Taxi’ scan flow and BLANKS the lower display completely by pushing the ENG MFD switch

A

This is correct as the “Pop up” feature will reveal the lower display in case of an exceedance or Engine failure

193
Q

The PF during the Preflight Procedure places the pack switches to?

A

Both AUTO or HIGH

194
Q

The philosophy in which the normal checklists are used is?

A

READ-LOOK-LISTEN

195
Q

The rear hold is checked, as part of the Exterior Inspection, by:

A

The PM

196
Q

The response the GPWS “MINIMUMS” is: Select one

A

CONTINUE / GO-AROUND, FLAPS 15

197
Q

The rudder trim function is checked during?

A

On all through flights

198
Q

The Ryanair policy is to use ‘Maximum Assumed Temperature Reduction’ Take-off thrust?

A

Wherever permitted by OPT or SOP”s

199
Q

The standard call in the event of a ‘Passenger Evacuation’ is:

A

“This is an Emergency. Evacuate the aircraft using all available exits””. This call is to be repeated once

200
Q

The standard callout at V1 when taking off on a wet runway is?

A

“V1”

201
Q

The standard FMC fuel cost index is?

A

As per flight plan

202
Q

The taxi briefing on departure must always include:

A

A review of the expected taxi routing to the runway of departure

203
Q

True or false?

The TCAS OFF flag must always be called as part of the instrument X-Check?

A

False

204
Q

The V1 aural call on take-off must

A

Be complete by V1

205
Q

The ‘External Inspection’ (walk around) should be done by the:

A

Pilot Monitoring for the next sector

206
Q

The ‘Immediate Level off Procedure’ is?

A

ALT HOLD
reset MCP altitude
“SET” “CHECKED”
engage LVL CHG

207
Q

The ‘Landing Gate’ for an IMC approach (Precision or Non Precision) is?

A

1,000ft

For RNP:

  • <> .15 XTK
  • ^v +/- 75’
  • Vref-Vref+20
  • Land CONFIG
  • Land CX to lights
  • RoD as Req (NB! 1000fpm)
208
Q

The ‘Landing Gate’ requires one to be fully stabilised

A

With all checklists complete at 1,000 feet, except landing lights (IMC) (ILS approaches)

209
Q

The ‘’Briefing’’ part of RIBETS must always include:

A

The Runway for departure

210
Q

There is a cross wind in excess of 10kts, is assumed thrust reduction allowed?

A

Assumed thrust reduction is not allowed

211
Q

To achieve the target touchdown speed of Vref:

A

The PM will call “speed” whenever the speed is more than Vapp +10kts or less than Vref

212
Q

To avoid exceeding flap limit speeds on the approach the maximum approach speed additive is?

A

15 knots

213
Q

To determine the actual tailwind component is within limits for landing:

A

Use the tower reported wind

214
Q

True or false?

A NPA using Vertical Speed approach requires a 2nm level segment before the FAF // Nominated descent Point?

A

TRUE

215
Q

True or false?

The TR units output, on the electrical panel, should be checked as part of the after start scan?

A

FALSE

216
Q

Turbulence is encountered in flight. The Captain will decide whether to switch ON the seatbelt signs. Which pilot is responsible for actually moving the sign from AUTO to ON?

A

The PM as this is defined as his area of responsibility in flight

217
Q

Under which conditions do we select GEN 1 and 2 ON and the APU OFF during the engine start procedure? Select one

A

When both engines are stable provided there are no additional defects and there is no requirement to perform a NO ENGINE BLEED takeoff.

218
Q

Under which conditions is a takeoff with CSFF on upper wing surfaces allowable?

A

Both of the other two conditions must be met.

The CSFF on the wing tank upper surfaces is only within the lines defining the permissible CSFF area with no snow, ice or frost on the leading edges or control surfaces.

AND There is no precipitation or visible moisture (rain, snow, drizzle, or fog with less than 1 mile visibility).

219
Q

Unless stated, the lowest turning altitude on departure is?

A

400 feet AGL, unless a lower one is specified on the SID

Maintain V2+15 (max AoB 30 deg) to V2+25

220
Q

Visual Approaches are

A

Considered Non Precision Approaches and therefore require a Double Briefing.The “Ten Mile Rule” (Flaps 1) also applies.

221
Q

What action shall be taken after positioning the engine start lever to IDLE detent during engine start procedure?

A

Verify SPAR VALVE CLOSED light transitions from dim, to bright and then extinguishes

222
Q

What altitude should be set on the MCP prior to ATC clearance being received?

A

Expected SID plus 100ft

223
Q

What are the planning minima for a destination airport with an ILS approach available?

A

For TO Alternate & Destination:

The MET report or forecast must indicate that the RVR/visibility only, ±1 hour of ETA, will be at or above the actual approach (ILS) minima

224
Q

What considerations should be evaluated before attempting to re-engage the A/P?

A

Assure that the aircraft is following the FD commands, is in trim about all axes and thatthere is no pressure on the control column/wheel.

225
Q

What Cost Index (CI) is to be entered in the FMC pre-flight?

A

Flight plan specified Cost Index

226
Q

What course of action should be taken if during engine start the fuel is shutoff inadvertently (by closing engine startlever)?

A

Leave the engine start lever closed

227
Q

What criteria must be met to allow selection of V/S with flaps extended on departure? Select one

A

A SID speed restriction results in delaying the flap retraction schedule and the aircraft has accelerated to the assigned speed restriction and the climb rate needs to be reduced in order to comply with Ryanair policy on V/S when approaching stop altitude and AFDS is engaged above MFRA.

228
Q

What do you do when hearing the EGPWS ‘minimums’ call on a NPA using V/S with no visual contact having been confirmed?

A

The PF will push TO/GA and call “Go-around, flap 15” etc.

229
Q

What does the PF do after the PM calls ‘approaching descent’ during a V/S NPA?

A

PF sets MDA and calls ‘XXX feet set’ after verifying ALT HOLD.

230
Q

What effect on CATIIIA (CAT3A) landing minima does failed or downgraded equipment, causing the lack of Midpoint or Stop End RVR (Part A, Chapter 8)?

A

No effect

231
Q

What HDG should be selected on the MCP for take-offs?

A

Runway HDG

232
Q

What is considered a volcanic ash low contamination area?

A

Equal to or less than 2mg/m3

233
Q

What is considered a volcanic ash medium contamination area?

A

Greater than 2mg/m3, but less than 4mg/m3

234
Q

What is “Deviation Fuel”?

A

Deviation fuel allows for MEL items that will increase fuel burn and will be added by flight planning.

235
Q

What is meant by ‘fail passive’ automatic landing system?

A

In the event of a failure, autopilot disengagement causes no significant deviation of trim, flight path or attitude

236
Q

What is normal during pushback and engine-start?

A

The CAPT handles ground communication and the PF starts the engines all the time

237
Q

What is the correct AFDS re-engagement sequence?

A

PF calls for the desired Roll/Pitch modes on the MCP, assures that the aircraft is following the FD commands, is in trim about all axes and that there is no pressure on the controls. Then engages the A/P and the A/T.

238
Q

What is the correct FMC page selection for the PF once cleared for approach?

A

Prog Page 4

239
Q

What is the correct method to calculate OPT performance for take-off in gusty headwind conditions?

A

Enter wind direction and full gust value to check that crosswind is within limits. Then enter the steady wind direction (without gust value) to complete the performance calculation

240
Q

What is the correct response after thrust reverser deployment on landing roll out, both indications green?

A

Reversers Normal

241
Q

What is the correct sequence of actions during a go-around?

A

TOGA, Flaps 15, G/A thrust, Gear up

242
Q

What is the correct status of the SPAR VALVE CLOSED lights during the pre-flight procedure?

A

Illuminated dim (blue)

243
Q

What is the earliest height that Standard (1013hPa) may be set on climb out?

A

When the aircraft is above 3000ft AAL and when cleared to a FL

244
Q

What is the earliest point at which the Autopilot may be engaged on NADP2 departure?

A

1,000 ft AAL

245
Q

What is the last step of Isolated pack operation during engine start procedure?

A

ISOLATION VALVE Switch .AUTO

246
Q

What is the latest point at which the autopilot has to be disengaged on a NPA using VNAV?

A

At 158ft or E/D

247
Q

What is the latest point can the autopilot be used during a single channel approach?

A

158ft AGL

248
Q

What is the latest point to select flap 1 on any approach?

A

10 nm from touchdown // 10 nm from RW xx point

249
Q

What is the mandatory pitch mode to be used during climb?

A

VNAV, unless approaching the cleared Altitude/Flight Level, the sustained climb rate is inexcess of 3000ft, 2000ft or 1000ft per minute, where by V/S may be selected.

250
Q

What is the minimum fuel tank temperature for CSFF relief?

A

At or above -16°C

251
Q

What is the normal landing flap setting for the Boeing 737?

A

30 & 40

Is determined after reviewing in flight landing performance calculations

252
Q

What is the planning minima for destination alternates and enroute alternates for NPAs?

A

For NPA (Non Precision Approaches) – NPA minima PLUS 1000m/200ft is required

253
Q

What is the priority when a volcanic ash cloud encounter is identified?

A

Exit the ash cloud as quickly as possible by commencing a 180 degree turn.

254
Q

What is the purpose of the isolated pack operation during engine start procedure? Select one

A

To improve cabin air quality between starting the first and second engine.

255
Q

What is the recommended taxi speed when engaging a RET (Rapid Exit Taxiway) after landing? Select one

A

45 KIAS

256
Q

What is the signal to the Cabin Crew that it is safe for them to move around and get off oxygen after rapid decompression?

A

“No.1 to the Flight Deck” over the PA and a ding on the cabin ATTEND button

257
Q

What is the standard callout by the PF after he hears, ‘Flaps Up, No lights’ during normal operation?

A

“After Takeoff checklist”

258
Q

What is the three step escalation process for protecting minimum reserve fuel?

A

Request EAT – MINIMUM FUEL – MAYDAY FUEL call

259
Q

What is the volcanic ash cloud encounter recovery?

A

Select reciprocal heading and engage HDG SEL

260
Q

What level will the PF select for CRZ in the FMC pre-flight page?

A

The optimum cruise altitude (or ATC capped level, if lower)

261
Q

What must the PM verify (silently) climbing through FL200, 300 & 400?

A

Pressurisation is normal

262
Q

What position are the IRS mode selectors positioned to during the preflight procedures?

A

NAV

263
Q

What position does the FO turn the Auto Brake selector to during the Taxi in Procedure?

A

OFF

264
Q

What should be considered during the D.A.L.T.A briefing of a Non Precision Approach that has an offset of more than 5 degrees?

A

To increase the published minimum RVR from the approach plate by 400 m

265
Q

What should be declared to ATC when the calculated usable fuel on landing, at the nearest adequate aerodrome where a safe landing can be performed, is less than final reserve fuel.

A

“MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY FUEL, callsign”

266
Q

What should the packs switch position be before connecting the ground conditioned air cart? Select one

A

Both OFF. Packs can be damaged if they are operated while ground condition air is connected.

267
Q

What should the pressurisation FLT ALT window be set to during the Preflight procedure?

A

Filed level or lower if performance limited or level capped.

268
Q

What weight must be recorded on the MAXIMUM WEIGHT FOR TAKE OFF section of the load sheet?

A

The lower of the placard weight (MTOW) or the performance limiting RTOW

269
Q

When a T/O Alternate is required, the planned alternate should be based on one hour flight time at the one engine inoperative cruise speed according to the AFM, in still air the distance is:

A
  • 427 nm (B737-800) and
  • 416 nm (B737-700, B737-8200).*

@ M.79/330 Kts. (not sure about 8200)

270
Q

When at an altitude and you are cleared to a FL what is the standard callout and by whom?

A

PF ‘Set STD, passing FLXXX climbing FLXXX’

271
Q

When can both GEN1 and GEN2 be selected ON and the APU off during the engine start procedure?

A

See FCOM1 NP 21.53

Once both engines are confirmed stable by the PM and the GEN OFF BUS lights are illuminated.

272
Q

When capturing the ILS glideslope from above, the MCP altitude may be selected no lower than: Select one

A

1,000 feet AFE

273
Q

When cleared to an altitude from a FL during an approach (no delay anticipated) the following standard call applies?

A

Set QNH ___, passing XXX ft descending XXX ft, (No) flags, Standby Altimeter set

274
Q

When cleared to climb above transition altitude, and the aircraft is above 3000 feet AGL, both pilots will set their altimeters to STD. When is the standby altimeter set to Standard?

A

When climbing through the MSA

275
Q

When cleared to final cruising level, the PF shall call ‘FL___ SET, THREE TIMES’ checking the MCP Alt, FLT ALTand the FMC. Which FMC page shall be referred to?

A

CRZ Page

276
Q

When conducting a CATIIIA (CAT3a) approach in daytime with a RVR of 400 m, if the TWR reports the TDZ lights have failed. The best course of action is to:

A

Go around and check the effect on landing minima.

277
Q

When conducting a Visual Approach, the landing gate is….

A

Land Alt plus 500 feet

278
Q

When do both pilots set their altimeters to STD during an NADP 2 Departure?

A

When cleared to climb to a flight level, and the aircraft is above 3000 feet AGL.

279
Q

When do the pilots need to do a Takeoff Emergency brief?

A

Each pilot on their first flight of the day as PF

280
Q

When do we have to adjust all published altitudes using the Altimeter Cold Temperature Corrections?

A

When the surface OAT is at or below 0 degrees Celsius.

This applies to all altitude restrictions below temperature corrected MSA: Appr altitudes, Minimas, MFRA (RTOW charts only).

! Not for LNAV/VNAV minima from FAF - MAPt

281
Q

When encountering Light or Moderate Turbulence in the cruise, crew should:

A

Select CON on the FMC N1 LIMIT page

282
Q

When entering the runway the Landing, Turnoff and Strobe Lights are selected ON. When is the Taxi Light turned ON?

A

When cleared for takeoff

283
Q

When flying in severe turbulence:

A

Do not use ALT HLD, when using CWS

284
Q

When flying with an inexperienced co-pilot, the commander shall perform the take-off or landing when the following conditions are experienced:

A

Ceiling is less than 100 ft above the DA for a precision approach and 200 ft above the MDA for a NPA

285
Q

When is a go around below 500ft mandatory during a low visibility approach?

A

When Pilot incapacitation is suspected

286
Q

When is the gear down and flaps 15 selected during a NPA using VNAV?

A

At 4 or 5 nm (VMC/IMC) to the Runway.

287
Q

When is the missed approach altitude set on a Non Precision Approach?

A

1000ft AAL (Top of the white band)

288
Q

When is the parking brake released once on stand and a wind calm day?

A

Only after confirmation that dual wheel chocks are in place

289
Q

When is the transponder mode selector set 2000, then STBY, during the taxi in procedure?

A

After the airplane has come to a complete stop.

290
Q

True or false?

When on the Approach and below 1000 ft AAL, the RVR falls below the applicable minimum, may the approach be continued?

A

TRUE

291
Q

When operating in freezing conditions and taxiing for take-off on surfaces covered with slush and/or standing water:

A

Delay flap selection until reaching the holding position

292
Q

When operating the Speedbrake in flight, which pilot selects the Speedbrake?

A

The PF. He / She also stows it

293
Q

When performing a cross bleed start, when do you disconnect the ground power:

A

As stated in the supplementary procedures SP 7.4 (-800) or SP7.1 (-8200)

294
Q

When performing a NPA using VNAV, at what point does the PM call “Approaching Descent”?

A

2nm before the nominated descent point

295
Q

When performing the Flight Control checks during the Before Taxi Procedure you should?

A

Make slow and deliberate inputs, one direction at a time

296
Q

When pushing back from a stand using a tug WITHOUT a nosewheel steering bypass pin fitted, what position should the hydraulic A pumps switch position be in?

A

OFF

297
Q

When setting airspeed bugs with no operative FMC, what is the default weight?

A

32,000 kgs

298
Q

When setting minima on the PFD for an RNAV Approach to LNAV minima, what addition is made to the MDA?

A

+40 ft

299
Q

When shall the Pilot Monitoring perform the FRISC scanflow?

A

When cleared to an altitude

300
Q

When should progress page 4/4 be selected with reference to approach procedures and what is the purpose of this operation?

A

Should be selected once cleared for an approach with the purpose of monitoring lateral and vertical deviation.

301
Q

When should the EMERGENCY EXIT LIGHTS be armed?

A

As part of the Preliminary Flight Deck Procedure – PF

302
Q

When should the LOGO lights be ON?

A

At night below FL100

303
Q

When should the recirculation fan switches be turned off?

A

Never, unless following a QRH procedure

304
Q

When should the wing and engine anti-ice switches be turned off after landing in freezing/icing conditions?

A

Before entering the parking area.

305
Q

When starting the engines, the first step is:

A

Announce engine start sequence. Plan to start engines to result in minimum fuel consumption

306
Q

When the ATIS/Volmet for your destination is received, what is preselected on the PFD?

A

The ATIS/Volmet QNH is preselected

307
Q

When the engine is shutdown and the chocks are in place. Normal procedure requires the flight crew:

A

To release the Parking Brake provided that company procedures are followed

308
Q

When the MDA is 900ft AAL or higher on a non-precision approach the crew should:

A

Set the MAA in the MCP Altitude window when the aircraft is 300ft above MDA/DA

309
Q

When using LNAV/VNAV minima for an RNP APCH, cold temperature altitude corrections are NOT applied to:

A

Altitudes from the FAF to the MAPT.

310
Q

When using the ‘Rx’ point for a visual approach

A

A distance of 4nm or greater shall be selected

311
Q

When will the First Officer press the cabin attend button during the before takeoff checks?

A

After the take-off briefing has been reviewed by the CP.

312
Q

When will the First Officer start the ‘Taxi In Procedure’ (after landing flow)?

A

When clear of the active runway, taxi instructions have been received, acknowleged, written in the FMC scratchpad and understood by both pilots

313
Q

When will the ‘MINIMUMS’ aural call not sound?

A

When the Captain has not set his minimums (BARO MINS)

314
Q

When you are planning to travel on the jumpseat you must:

A
  • Make yourself known to the handling agent, flight crew and get the Captains approval
  • Be travelling in uniform since you are travelling as passive crew
  • Be in possession of a valid Ryanair ID, have a valid licence and passport
315
Q

Where can one find the Ryanair Non-Normal Flight Patterns and Manoeuvres?

A

Manoeuvres Section in the QRH

316
Q

Where can you check on EFB the required versions of all documents, apps and checklists?

A

The Crew Alert section of the Operational Flight Plan

317
Q

Where does the Captain record the stab trim setting once calculated?

A

Loadsheet and FMC scratchpad

318
Q

Where would you find a table to establish the effects on ‘Landing Minima’ during LVO operations for various runway edge and centre line lighting conditions if inoperative?

A

Operations Manual Part A, Chapter 8

319
Q

Where would you find the brake-cooling schedule?

A

QRH Performance Inflight Section (Advisory Information)

320
Q

Which annotation on the flight plan denotes approval for RNP approach procedures?

A

PBN S1 or S2

321
Q

Which is the correct order during the final CDU preflight procedure after selecting the OPT C/G in the CDU?

A

STAB TRIM, V SPEEDS, MFRA, send output

322
Q

Which is the correct PM callout at 1000 ft AAL if the aircraft meets the stabilized approach criteria during an ILS approach in IMC?

A

To say nothing

323
Q

Which is the ICAO recommended speed at the IAF?

A

220 KIAS

324
Q

Which items will the Captain review as part of the Before Takeoff checklist under ‘Takeoff Briefing’ in the correct order?

A

Packs, Bleeds, Speeds, SID - including initial turn required, STOP altitude, emergency turn (if applicable) and adverse weather

325
Q

Which of the following callouts is correct for a CAT II/IIIA autoland?

A

F/O: “Passing ___radio, flare armed”

326
Q

Which of the following is correct regarding the Emergency Turn (ET) procedure – ETP1?

A

After the turn is completed and at or above the MFRA, the PF calls “Bug up”accelerates, retracts flaps, then selects level change and MCT

327
Q

Which of the following is true regarding the ‘Emergency Escape Rope’?

A

The “Emergency Escape Ropes” (both) are attached to the flight deck

328
Q

Which of the following RNAV procedures is Ryanair approved to conduct?
RNAV (GPS) / RNAV (GNSS)
RNAV RNP
RNAV (RNP) AR

A

RNAV (GPS) / RNAV (GNSS)

329
Q

True or false?

The Isolated Pack Operation during Engine start can be performed by memory at the discretion of the Captain.

A

True

330
Q

True or false?

The Isolated Pack Operation during Engine Start Supplementary Procedure considers the Isolation Valve switch position set to CLOSE and the Right PACK switch position set to AUTO after No.2 Engine has stabilized after Engine Start.

This is to improve cabin air quality between starting the first and second engine.

A

True

331
Q

True or false?

During the TAKEOFF BRIEFING during the Before Takeoff Procedure the CPT reviews the briefing and verifies PACKS and BLEEDS as required.

A

True

332
Q

Which pilot calls the Outer Marker (challenge) check first (on a ILS approach)?

A

PF

333
Q

Which pilot handles all ATC communications whilst the aircraft is on the ground?

A

FO

334
Q

Which position should the ISOLATION valve be in for engine start?

A

OPEN

335
Q

While making a no engine bleed air takeoff and an engine failure occurs, when should the bleed air switches be positioned to ON?

A

Reaching 1500 feet AGL or until obstacle clearance height is reached.

336
Q

True or false?

If you get a “SINK RATE” GPWS aural CAUTION on approach you promptly correct the flight path and continue

A

True

337
Q

True or false?

In regard to performing the Engine Crossbleed Start (RYR) Supplementary Procedure:

The pushback must be complete with the parking brake set, the tug disconnected, and ATC clearance is obtained.

A

True

338
Q

True or false?

Regarding the circling procedure: Both pilots shall time the crosswind leg.

A

True

339
Q

True or false?

Regarding the recirculation fan switches during the preflight procedures:
Both should be left in the AUTO position

A

True

340
Q

What procedures does the PF do when ALT HOLD is annunciated during a circling procedure?

A

The PF verifies and calls ‘ALT HOLD’ from the FMA, points at the Missed Approach Altitude on the FMC legs page and calls ‘XXX FEET’. PF shall then set the MAA in the MCP altitude, point to it and call ‘SET’. PM shall call ‘CHECKED’

341
Q

True or false?

Cabin crew will follow established procedures following an RTO. ‘Cabin Crew Standby’ call at this point could interrupt these procedures.

A

True

342
Q

True or false?

When extending the airstair from the inside of the aircraft, open the entry door to the cocked position to allow clear visibility of the area outside the aeroplane to avoid injury to personnel.

A

True

343
Q

What is the procedure for MCP altitude changes following an ATC instruction?

A

PF resets MCP altitude and keeps finger in contact with MCP selector and calls “set”

344
Q

Which statement is correct with regard to tail-strikes?

A

Flap 5 is the normal departure flap setting and, in addition, when the crosswind component is in excess of 10 kts assumed temperature thrust reduction is not permitted

345
Q

True or false?

The runway is wet for departure. Both De-rated and assumed thrust reduction are allowable.

A

True

346
Q

True or false?

During a Monitored NPA at EGPWS call “minimums” with no visual contact a go-around is mandatory

A

True

347
Q

Which statement is true regarding operation above the optimum cruise altitude in LNAV?

A

The aircraft may be operated safely up to and including maximum altitude indicated in the FMC with prior consideration

348
Q

Which statement is true regarding a Flap 1 departure?

A

A flap 1 departure must be performed by the Captain

349
Q

True or false?

Flight director CAN be used for guidance during rotation

A

False

350
Q

Which statement is true regarding the Loadsheet?

A

The MLW and RTOW should reflect your regulated (structural or performance limited) weight

351
Q

True or false?

Following two weather related missed approaches, a third approach should only be commenced if weather information indicates an improvement to double the previously given weather

A

True

352
Q

Which statement regarding RTE 2 feature of the FMC is correct?

A

RTE 2 shall never be loaded on the ground

353
Q

Which Take Off speeds should be used if there’s a >1 knot difference between OPT and FMC?

A

The RTOW/OPT speeds if the FMC speed differs by more than 1 knot

354
Q

Which ‘ENGINE START IGN’ selection should be made for engine start?

A

Position right for operating through a manned maintenance base

355
Q

Whilst flying in RVSM airspace if you have a difference between the Captain’s and F/O’s altimeters of 180ft, what do you do?

A

You split the difference and use the ALT HLD mode to control the airplane’s flight path

356
Q

Whilst the aircraft is being pushed back from stand, who handles all communication with the ground crew?

A

Captain

357
Q

Who checks the engine parameters i.e. OIL QTY etc. prior to engine start up?

A

PF, during Flight Deck Preparation

358
Q

Who checks the PA system from the Flight Deck and when?

A

The PF during Preliminary Flight Deck Preparation

359
Q

Who checks the first “Takeoff CONFIG” warning of the day and when?

A

The PF during Preliminary Flight Deck Procedure

360
Q

Who completes the Light Test pre-flight?

A

PF

361
Q

Who enters the Zero-fuel weight into the FMC during the Final CDU Preflight?

A

The First Officer

362
Q

Who first checks the maintenance status prior to the first flight?

A

PF

363
Q

Who gives the ‘Cabin Crew seats for landing’ call?

A

PM, normally around 6nm from touchdown

364
Q

Who is responsible to call “FLAPS 15” when the position is indicated on the flap position indicator?

A

The Pilot Monitoring after positioning ENGINE START switches to CONT and checking RECALL

365
Q

Who selects the VHF NAV frequencies for the departure?

A

The PF as part of the Flight Deck Preparation

366
Q

Who submits the EFL flight information at the end of each sector?

A

PM

367
Q

Wing anti-ice shall be used:

A

Always on the ground when icing conditions exists unless the aircraft is or will be anti-iced using type II or type IV fluid

368
Q

With more than 453kgs in the centre tank, the Captain may elect to leave the center tank pump switches off until

A

Passing FL100

369
Q

You are level at FL350 and cleared to climb to FL370, which mode should be initially used for climb?

A

VNAV, only select V/S when VNAV is providing a sustained climb rate in excess of 2000ft or1000ft per minute with 1000 to level off.

370
Q

You are on ILS CAT I approach with a cloud base of 600ft and visibility of 2000m, what is the latest point to select the landing gear down on approach?

A

5nm

371
Q

The maximum tailwind component on a CAT II/IIIA Autoland is?

A

10 kts

372
Q

If the Boeing OPT is unavailable on both EFBs, what should crews do?

A

Download the required RTOWs to the FDF and prepare a paper load sheet.

373
Q

Which statement is correct in regard to the Engine Crossbleed Start 30 psi requirement ?

A

30 PSI is required at the commencement of the engine start only. It is normal and acceptable for duct pressure to decrease during the start process.
Thrust should NOT be increased to maintain 30 PSI during the engine start sequence.

374
Q

Which of the following is true regarding when a new loadsheet is required for an LMC (Load Instruction Document not available);

A

LMC exceeds 500kg

375
Q

An ‘Special EOSID’ (engine failure on takeoff) must be flown with a speed restriction.

A

The turn must be flown at the speed restriction

376
Q

During daylight, with failed centre line lights, can you complete a CAT IIIA (CAT3a) approach and if so what are the restrictions (Part A, Chapter 8)?

A

YES, but RVR must be 300m or greater

377
Q

From what stage during a CAT II/III approach is an automatic go-around available?

A

Once “FLARE” is armed

378
Q

If a return to land is necessary after takeoff, the following FMC requirement is necessary

A

Enter the new ‘level off’ altitude in the cruise page

379
Q

It is prohibited to takeoff in slush/standing water with a depth greater than , or Dry Snow with a depth greater than .

A

13mm / 100mm

380
Q

On the ground, prior to switching on the hydraulic pumps, which of the following should be considered?

A

Personnel are clear of the tow bar OR the bypass pin has been installed

381
Q

The minimum required take off RVR in the touchdown, midpoint and stop end for a 125m take off approved runway is :

A

125m/125m/125m

382
Q

What is the minimum altitude for selecting CMD on the second autopilot during a dual channel A/P approach?

A

800 feet RA

383
Q

What is the minimum touchdown, midpoint and stop end RVR on a CAT I approach

A

550m/125m/75m

384
Q

What lateral clearance is the Route MORA based on

A

10NM either side of the route centerline

385
Q

What visual reference is required on a CAT IIIA approach to land

A

A segment of at least 3 consecutive lights

386
Q

When making manual RTOW calculations, QNH corrections are calculated using

A

Below 1013hPa but it is dependent on variant

387
Q

The maximum Circle to Land speeds and dimensions for the B737-800 are:

A

180kts/4.20nm

388
Q

What is the range of Final Approach Speed that defines a Category C aircraft?

A

115/160 kts

389
Q

What is the range of Initial Approach Speed that defines a Category C aircraft

A

160/240 kts

390
Q

When on a precision approach, when is it allowable to descend with the glide path in relation to the localiser?

A

Half scale deflection

391
Q

Whilst completing a procedure turn (45degrees/180 degrees) in a B737-800, when shall the timing begin and for how long?

A

At the start of the turn for 1 min and 15 sec

392
Q

You are asked to hold at FL160, how long would your outbound timing be and what speed would you maintain in normal conditions?

A

90 seconds and 240 kt

393
Q

At what distance must you be at least in order to use a mobile phone whilst refuelling the aircraft?

A

3.5m of the refuelling point

394
Q

How many minutes for wake separation do you need when departing from an intermediate holding point on the same runway as an A380:

A

4 minutes

395
Q

Is it acceptable to practice a CAT II/III A approach to a CAT I runway?

A

Yes, if visibility is 1500m or greater and ceiling 500ft or higher

396
Q

It is considered best practice to request “standard speeds” from ATC when higher speeds are offered. These speeds are

A

220kts at the IAF, 180kts on base and 180kts on final approach track

397
Q

Wake Turbulence category on Approach: What is the minimum separation between a medium aircraft following a heavy aircraft on approach?

A

5NM, 3 minutes non radar

398
Q

What are the minimum RVR requirements for a CAT III A approach?

A

TDZ 200m, MID 125m, STOP 75m

399
Q

What are the visibility and cloud base criteria for Monitored Approaches?

A

ILS 1000m visibility and 300ft cloud base. NPA 3000m visibility and 1000ft cloud base

400
Q

What is Ryanair policy regarding acceptance of a Traffic Service from ATC?

A

Not to accept a Traffic Service when a Deconfliction Service is available while operating in uncontrolled airspace

401
Q

What is the minimum Fire Category that is acceptable when planning for a take-off alternate or a destination alternate?

A

2 categories below aeroplane RFFS

402
Q

What is the minimum wingtip clearance for self-manoeuvring taxiing without a marshaller guiding the wing tip?

A

15ft

403
Q

What is the required number of cabin crew for boarding when the aircraft is refuelling?

A

Four at all times when refuelling

404
Q

What weather criteria must a Takeoff alternate fulfil?

A

The forecast 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA must be above the required landing minima (CAT II/IIIA approaches not permitted

405
Q

When must the commander select at least two destination alternates?

A

Destination forecast from 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA is below minima or no weather information available for destination

406
Q

When operating in RVSM airspace, what is the tolerance for an Assigned Altitude Deviation (AAD)?

A

+/- 300ft

407
Q

You divert to an airport other than your scheduled destination but are then able to depart for your original destination airport. Are passengers allowed to disembark at the intermediate airport?

A

No this is prohibited due to security issues

408
Q

“Land After” clearances authorised for Ryanair flight operations?

A

Yes, in which requires the completion of ‘Landing Lights’ after the “Minimums” call

409
Q

The contamination check is?

A

A check of the aircraft to establish the need for de-icing

410
Q

The de-icing/anti-icing process is broken down into which of the following steps?

A
  1. Contamination check
  2. De-icing/anti-icing procedure
  3. Post treatment check
  4. Pre takeoff check
  5. Pre takeoff contamination check
411
Q

What is the planning minimum for destinations and take off alternates with an operational precision approach?

A

The weather must be at or above the required minimum RVR/Vis

412
Q

When a two-step de-icing procedure is necessary the second step should be applied

A

Less than three minutes after the first step was started and if necessary done area by area

413
Q

Which of the winter ops deicing steps is the commander responsible for?

A

Contamination check, pre takeoff check, pre takeoff contamination check, calculation of the holdover time

414
Q

Land or Ditching Emergency: At approximately what height should the “Brace, Brace” command be given?

A

50ft

415
Q

A Ramp 1 inspection should be completed by the engineers at intervals not exceeding?

A

48 hours

Training (3 decks)

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