Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Envoy Interview > Technical > Flashcards

Technical Flashcards

1
Q

What can you expect during departure at an airport with high density altitude?

A

Reduced available thrust, longer T/O roll, degraded climb performance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is required for 5/5/5?

A

DFW Airport info: for 5/5/5 you need CL and HIRL to be operative.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Lost Com procedure

A

Check departure jep chart for lost coms box. Otherwise, (91.185) AVEF, MEA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the speed limit below 10,000’ in Mexico?

A

250

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When do you need a second alternate?

A

When the weather at the destination and first alternate are forecast to be marginal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What would you do if the Captain has passed out and is unresponsive at flight level 350?

A

Check if he just fell asleep. Then put on an oxygen mask, put one on him and have the passengers wear an oxygen mask, and declare an Emergency.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

You fly at FL210, then you have to descend to 11000 within 25nm. Now, you have to maintain ground speed 300kts. How many feet per minute do you have to descend?

A

2000 ft/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Fly-over vs fly-by waypoints

A

Fly Over: waypoints you must actually fly over
Fly By: a waypoint that could have a turn at it therefore your gps would start you on your turn before you actually reach it to stay on path

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How long do you have to notify the FAA if you lose your certificate(s)?

A

Must notify immediately. Temporary will be valid for 60 days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

WX is reporting 100’ OVC is that a problem?

A

no. ceiling is not controlling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does CL RCLM mean?

A

CL: centerline lights
RCLM: runway centerline markings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How long are pilot certificates valid for?

A

Pilot certificates do not expire, and are valid if flight currency is maintained along with a current and appropriate medical certificate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

3000T on a V airway in altitude what does the T mean?

A

MOCA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is a green airport (Jepp)

A

VFR only airport.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What altitude are you guaranteed in the MSA?

A

1,000’ above highest obstacle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Take-off alternate, what does RVR 6/6/6 mean? Can you go with 6/5/6 or 6/m/6?

A

This depends what chart you’re shown. If it’s DFW, the takeoff mins are 5/5/5, so you can go with 6/6/6, 6/5/6, or 6/m/6.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Where is the final approach fix on the approach (ILS)

A

Glide slope interception at GS intercept altitude.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When must you notify the FAA of an address change?

A

30 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Where can you find takeoff minimums?

A

On the 10-9 page (back of the airport diagram)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How long is a temporary FAA Certificate good for?

A

(61.17) 120 days / expiration date shown / upon receipt of the permanent certificate / upon receipt of a notice that the certificate or rating sought is denied or revoked.

(If lost: 60 day temp)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What’s the lowest we can go to on a VOR approach? and what do we need to continue to land?

A

To MDA. Then you must have items listed under 91.175 to continue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is FAR 91.175

A

Takeoff and landing under IFR conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How do the flaps work on your current aircraft and how many degrees?

A

Driven by an electric motor. 0, 15, 45

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is V2?

A

Takeoff safety speed. Minimum speed must be reached before aircraft reach 35ft above surface with one engine inop.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the cloud clearances in D, B airspace?

A

D: 3 - 152, B: 3 - COC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the speed restriction in class B and D airspace?

A

Within 4nm of the primary airport of a class C or D airport, the speed limit is 200KIAS. There is no speed restriction inside class B airspace except for 250KIAS below 10,000’msl.

200KIAS below the shelf of B or within a vfr corridor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What lighting is associated with a MALSR?

A

consists of a combination of threshold lamps, steady burning light bars and flashers, provides visual information to pilots on runway alignment, height perception, roll guidance, and horizontal references for Category 1 precision Approaches.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is required for a thunderstorm to form?

A

Unstable air, visible moisture, upward force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is missing from a clearance using the C.R.A.F.T method?

A

DP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

On a Jepp enroute chart what is the number before the G, example 2500G on an airway?

A

MEA on a gps only route

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Are there any Hot Spots at the DFW airport?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the “shaded” area on the DFW airport diagram.

A

Non-movement area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Soft field symbol on Jepp charts.

A

It will be the letter “s” after the rwy length. Or turf with white runway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

If you’re inbound on the Final Approach Segment, and ATC tells you that mins are below the mins required for the approach, can you continue?

A

Yes. You have past the FAF.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is V1?

A

Speed where you decide if flight is to be continued if there’s an engine failure. pre-abort, post-continue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How do you know how much runway is left during landing rollout?

A

Runway distance remaining signs. Light change from white to yellow/white and red

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are flight time limitations for part 121 per day/week/month/year?

A

(121.471) All commercial flying: 8/30/100/1000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

When do you need a take-off alternate?

A

(121. 617)
(a) If the weather conditions at the airport of takeoff are below the landing minimums in the certificate holder’s operations specifications for that airport, no person may dispatch or release an aircraft from that airport unless the dispatch or flight release specifies an alternate airport located within the following distances from the airport of takeoff:

(1) Aircraft having two engines. Not more than one hour from the departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative.
(2) Aircraft having three or more engines. Not more than two hours from the departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative.
(b) For the purpose of paragraph (a) of this section, the alternate airport weather conditions must meet the requirements of the certificate holder’s operations specifications.
(c) No person may dispatch or release an aircraft from an airport unless he lists each required alternate airport in the dispatch or flight release.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What does MAA ensure?

A

Maximum authorized altitude. An MAA is a published altitude representing the maximum usable altitude or flight level for an airspace structure or route segment.

Adequate reception of navigation signals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

When is it required to have an FCC license?

A

Fly international

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Is an alternate required if the weather is forecasted to be exactly 2000’ ovc and 3sm vis?

A

no, must be less than

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How wide is a victor airway?

A

8nm (4nm to either side of centerline)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What does ‘D’ mean on the airport diagram?

A

Runway declared distance information available

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the zipper line on the airport diagram?

A

It’s the boundary between the ground frequencies when you switch between them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are the three types of icing?

A

Instrument, Induction, Structural (Rime, Clear, Mixed) don’t forget about frost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Convert Celsius to Fahrenheit

A

Easy way: divide by 2 and subtract 16. F-C

Long way: multiply by 1.8 and add 32. C-F

47
Q

What is the speed limit below 10,000’?

A

250 KIAS. None at 10,000 or above

48
Q

What is more controlling? RVR or Vis in SM?

A

RVR

49
Q

What are the oxygen requirements for pressurized aircraft?

A

Above FL250: 10-minute supply for each occupant

Above FL350: pilot at controls wears a mask unless there are two pilots with quick donning masks (less than 5 seconds). Also if one pilot uses the restroom.

Above FL410: one pilot must wear mask

50
Q

If I leave the cockpit, and the flight attendant is occupying my seat, do you have to be on oxygen?

A

Yes, if above FL350

50
Q

Where’s the airport beacon?

A

circle with a star in it

51
Q

Why do you want to know how much runway is left?

A

Check the back of the chart. 10-9

52
Q

ARP?

A

Airport reference point. It is the center point of an airport, where the GPS will take you direct.

53
Q

D-ATIS, what does the D stand for?

A

Digital

53
Q

What are the dimensions of class C airspace?

A

5 NM radius core extends sfc-4,000agl. 10 NM shelf 1,200-4,000agl.

55
Q

What is the Maltese Cross?

A

final approach fix for a non-precision approach

56
Q

What is the 1-2-3 rule?

A

(91.169)
Requirements for filing an alternate. 1-2-3: 1hr before to 1hr after ETA, the weather must be forecast to be 2000’ ceiling and 3SM vis

58
Q

What if the weather goes below minimums and we are inside the FAF?

A

(121.651) You can continue the approach to the DA/DH or MDA.

59
Q

You are at 21000’ and ATC wants you to be at 11000 feet at Jacob Fix. Your ground speed 300kt and you have to keep 2000 fpm rate. When do you have to start to descend and how long would it take?

A

10000’ to lose at 2000fpm is 5 minutes in the descent. You’re covering 5 miles per minute. 5x5=25 miles out I’d start the descent.

60
Q

Current Aircraft Systems. What type of engine? How does the gear work?

A

Landing gear: fixed. main gear: mounted to sprung steel struts. Nose gear: free-castering, elastomer spring.

Engine: Lycoming IO-360-M1A. Fuel injected, horizontally opposed, air cooled, normally aspirated, direct drive, 4 cylinder, 4 stroke. 180 HP at 2700RPM

61
Q

Define Altitudes of Class B airspace.

A

Generally 10,000 msl with a 30 nm code C. Some airspace is different (KDEN, KDFW)

62
Q

What does descend via mean, what’s the bottom altitude?

A

Cleared to descend via the altitudes associated with the STAR, bottom altitude will be depicted on the last point in the sequence

63
Q

Holding speeds

A

at or below 6000 - 200
6001 - 14000 - 230
above 14000 - 265

65
Q

What is a blue airport (Jepp)

A

Airports that have published instrument approaches

67
Q

What is an MEL?

A

Minimum Equipment List. It is a list designated to a company approved by the FAA listing equipment that is OK to be inoperative to continue a flight. Usually including steps to ensure safety and that it is fixed in the near future.

68
Q

LAHSO on Jepps Airport Diagram

A

Solid black line perpendicular to runway where it wants you to hold short.

69
Q

When do the runway edge lights change? What color are they?

A

White until the last 2000’ or half of the runway, whichever is less, then they become yellow.

70
Q

Tell me about Centerline Lights

A

installed on some precision approach runways to facilitate landing under adverse visibility conditions. They are located along the runway centerline and are spaced at 50-foot intervals. The runway centerline lights are white until the last 3,000’ of the runway. The white lights begin to alternate with red for the next 2,000’, and for the last 1,000’, all centerline lights are red.

72
Q

What are the different types of fog?

A

Radiation, advection, upslope, evaporation, ice, and frontal

73
Q

What is a critical engine?

A

The engine that when failed, most adversely affects the airplane.

73
Q

What are the dimensions of class D airspace?

A

Generally surface to 2,500 agl. Designed to contain instrument procedures.

74
Q

What does Grid MORA ensure?

A

Clear all terrain and man-made structures by 1000’ in areas where the highest elevations are 5000 or lower. 2000’ in areas where the highest elevations are higher than 5000

75
Q

How long do you have to notify the FAA if you move?

A

30 days

76
Q

What regulation determines the limitations between flying and alcohol consumption?

A

(91.17) You cannot be under the influence of alcohol, taken a drink in 8 hours, or have a BAC of .04 or more.

77
Q

What altitude do flight levels start?

A

18000

78
Q

Where is field elevation measure from?

A

The highest point of an airport’s usable RWY and is measure in height above MSL.

81
Q

On a STAR are “expected altitudes” mandatory?

A

No. They are for planning purposes and are not considered mandatory unless given in clearance.

82
Q

What is MAA?

A

The maximum Authorized altitude is the highest altitude at which the airway can be flown without receiving conflicting navigation signals from NAVAIDs operating on the same frequency. Chart depictions appear as “MAA-15000”.

83
Q

Is visibility or ceiling controlling for whether or not we can shoot an approach?

A

visibility

84
Q

What is an MSA, how far is the radius of an MSA?

A

Minimum Safe Altitude - typically 25nm unless otherwise depicted

85
Q

What is LAHSO?

A

Land and Hold Short Operations.

86
Q

When is the ILS critical area Hold Short in effect?

A

WX less than 800-2

87
Q

What does an airway bypass mean on a Jepp chart?

A

The half-circle on an airway that goes around a navaid or intersection means that it is not part of that route’s structure.

88
Q

What is RVR 6/6/6?

A

all three transmissometers are reporting 600 RVR.

88
Q

What happens if the RVR drops below mins inside the FAF?

A

You may continue the approach unless told not to do so

88
Q

When can you descend below MDA/DA?

A

91.175 runway environment 12 things

92
Q

What are the stages of a thunderstorm?

A

cumulus, mature, dissipating

92
Q

Identify and explain restricted areas

A

A restricted area is identified brown on a Jepp chart. While not wholly prohibited, is subject to restrictions. Restricted areas denote the existence of unusual, often invisible, hazards to aircraft such as artillery firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles. Not hot - FAA, Hot - controlling agency.

92
Q

When are you established inbound?

A

When the cdi comes alive

93
Q

What are the oxygen requirements for part 91?

A

At or above 12,500: required minimum flight crew over 30 minutes

At or above 14,000 - required minimum flight crew

At or above 15,000 - provide passengers with oxygen

94
Q

What does MOCA give you?

A

Obstacle clearance 1,000’ non-mountainous and 2,000’ mountainous. It also assures acceptable navigational signal coverage within 22nm of a navaid.

95
Q

What is the star without a circle on a taxi diagram?

A

Its the hazard beacon.

96
Q

Can you T/O with M/6/6?

A

Yes, with 3 RVR transmissometers, all are controlling. At least 2 are required to be operational.

96
Q

Why are some line solid and others dashed? Low chart

A

solid is the DP, dashed is transition

96
Q

Where does mountainous terrain start?

A

3,000’ elevation change within 10nm

97
Q

When you get out to the plane, what five documents do you need?

A

ARROW

97
Q

What is RVSM airspace? What does it give you?

A

(RVSM) is the reduction of the standard vertical separation required between aircraft flying between FL290 and FL410 inclusive, from 2,000’ to 1,000’. This therefore increases the number of aircraft that can safely fly in a particular volume of airspace.

99
Q

If you are on V123 (on the 250 radial) what radial would you be on if you crossed over the VOR?

A

070

100
Q

What is accelerate stop distance?

A

The distance required to accelerate to V1 with all engines at takeoff power, experience an engine failure at V1, and abort the takeoff and bring the airplane to a stop using only braking action without the use of reverse thrust.

100
Q

What does MCA Ensure?

A

It ensures you are at a safe altitude before continuing on the airway. It is the lowest altitude at certain fixes at which an aircraft must cross when proceeding in the direction of a higher minimum enroute IFR altitude (MEA)

103
Q

What is the black arrow mark on the airport diagram?

A

Tallest obstacle in the area

103
Q

What are the different ways to enter a hold?

A

Direct, Parallel, Teardrop

103
Q

At what altitudes does RVSM airspace begin and end?

A

FL290 - FL410

104
Q

What is MCA?

A

Minimum crossing altitude

106
Q

When is an alternate landing airport required?

A

(91.169)

1-2-3.

107
Q

What is a CDL?

A

Configuration Deviation List - Identifies any external part of an aircraft type that can be missing at the commence of a flight and the aircraft remains airworthy.

108
Q

How is a displaced threshold depicted?

A

A ten feet wide white threshold bar is located across the width of the runway at the displaced threshold. White arrows are located along the centerline in the area between the beginning of the runway and the displaced threshold.

109
Q

What does ARROW stand for?

A

Documents required to be in an aircraft by the FAA. (Airworthiness Certificate, Radio Station License, Registration Certificate, Operating Limitations, Weight and Balance.)

109
Q

What are the crew rest requirements?

A

(121.471b)
9hrs rest for less than 8hrs scheduled flight time
10hrs rest for 8-9hrs scheduled flight time
11hrs rest for 9hrs or more scheduled flight time

109
Q

What color are the nav lights?

A

Green right, Red left.

111
Q

What is VDP?

A

Point at which normal descent can be made on non precision approach

112
Q

What are IFR fuel requirements?

A

Enough fuel to fly to the destination then to alternate (furthest alternate) then thereafter for 45 mins at normal cruise.

113
Q

What equipment is required in RVSM?

A

Two independent altitude measurement systems (with ice protection), one transponder (with mode C), an altitude alerting system, and an automatic altitude control system. Altimeter error tolerance is 200ft apart.

Envoy Interview (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions