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EJET > Tech > Flashcards

Tech Flashcards

1
Q

What is the maximum take-off and landing tailwind component for the E195?

A

10kts

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2
Q

What is the Manoeuvring Speed (Va) for the E195 at seat level?

A

253KIAS

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3
Q

What is the Maximum Landing Weight of the Embraer 195?

A

45,000kg

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4
Q

What is the maximum start altitude of the APU?

A

30,000ft

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5
Q

What is the maximum N2 operational limit for the CF34-10-E7(E195)?

A

100%

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6
Q

What is the maximum engine oil temperature limit for the CF43-10E7(E195)?

A

155 degrees C

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7
Q

What is the minimum engagement height of the Auto Pilot?

A

400ft

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8
Q

What is the Maximum speed for Flaps 3 extension?

A

200 KIAS

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9
Q

What is the starter limit for the APU first and second cycles?

A

60 seconds on 60 seconds off

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10
Q

What is the Maximum Fuel Imbalance between the two fuel tanks?

A

360 kg

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11
Q

What is the maximum airspeed for landing gear extension (VLE ext)?

A

265 kts

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12
Q

What is the maximum altitude for flap extension?

A

20000?

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13
Q

What is the Maximum Take off Weight of a Flybe Embraer 195?

A

48,999 kg

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14
Q

During taxi, which part of the Aircraft requires the largest clearance?

A

Tail

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15
Q

What power source supplies the emergency lighting in the case of total electrics failure?

A

Six dedicated Emergency Lights Power Units

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16
Q

The cargo doors are:

A

Manually operated, mechanically held in position

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17
Q

Where are the Modular Avionics Units 1 and 2 located?

A

Forward electronics bay

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18
Q

What does the bleed air overheat detection system (ODS) provide?

A

An EICAS warning and bleed valve closure at leak detection of either the engine bleeds, APU bleeds, wing anti-ice bleed or air conditioning trim air ducts

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19
Q

Cabin temperature can be controlled:

A

On the flight deck control panel or when transferred to the Flight attendant control panel

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20
Q

With the Recirculation fan button in the Auto position the, fans commanded OFF:

A

If the dump button is pressed-in

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21
Q

During normal operation, the conditioned air consists of;

A

52% fresh air and 48% Recirculation air

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22
Q

During cruise above 37000ft, the normal differential pressure is limited to:

A

8.4 PSID

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23
Q

An amber bar in the APU bleed button indicates:

A

An APU bleed air leak is detected

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24
Q

Which is of the following components regulates the airflow into the ECS packs?

A

The flow Control valve

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25
Q

Pressing either manual trim switch with autopilot engaged does what?

A

The auto pilot disconnects

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26
Q

What is set to inform the AP/FD approach system that a CAT 1 approach is required?

A

Set RA/BARO to BARO on both sides

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27
Q

The AUTOTHROTTLE is engaged for take-off when:

A

AT TO mode armed and both TL’s above 50 degrees TLA

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28
Q

TRS CRZ mode becomes active when?

A

A/C airborne, and level at the BARO ALT pre set altitude for more than 90 seconds and within 5kts of selected airspeed.

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29
Q

During normal TAKE-OFF with AT armed, the FMA auto throttle annunciations will be:

A

White TO with the TLA < 50 degrees, Green TO with TLA > 50 degrees, HOLD with IAS >60kts

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30
Q

After rotating the APU selector knob from ON to OFF:

A

The APU starts a 1min cool down period, monitored and controlled by the FADEC.

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31
Q

When the APU reaches a low oil pressure condition:

A

The FADEC automatically shuts down the APU on the ground.

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32
Q

What does the AVAIL lamp on the overhead electrical panel mean?

A

The external power is connected and all quality requirements are satisfied.

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33
Q

How long will the Batteries supply in an emergency?

A

10 minutes

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34
Q

The DC electrical network consists of:

A

2 DC Busses, 3 DC ESS BUSSES, 2 BATT HOT BUSSES, 1 APU START BUS, 1 DC GND Services BUS

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35
Q

The Engine Integrated Drive Generators (IDGs) are rated at ?

A

40kVA, 115VAC, 400Hz, three-phase

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36
Q

When will the FADEC command the starter to cut out during the START sequence?

A

50% N2

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37
Q

On a ground start when will the FADEC supply fuel to the engine?

A

20-25% N2

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38
Q

Which action closes the fire wall Fuel shut off valve of Engine 2?

A

Pulling Fire handle 2 (Not turning)

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39
Q

During normal engine start:

A

The FADEC opens and closes the Starter Control Valve automatically.

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40
Q

Pushing the test button on the fire extinguisher panel in the cockpit will;

A

Test the engine and APU fire detection system as well as the cargo smoke detection system.

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41
Q

In the event of annunciation of a cargo fire in flight, the pilot presses the associated cargo compartment button. This;

A

discharges the high rate bottle and after 1 minute the low rate bottle will be discharged automatically.

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42
Q

Pulling down either engine fire handle on the flight deck will:

A

close the respective fuel, hydraulic and bleed air shut off valves.

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43
Q

Which of the following systems are not commanded by Fly-by-Wire System technology?

A

The ailerons

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44
Q

When the Ram Air Turbine is the only source of power:

A

The slats and flaps will operate at half speed.

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45
Q

What is the priority of the pitch trim switches?

A

Back up, Captain, First Officer, FCM

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46
Q

How are the ailerons controlled?

A

Hydro-mechanical

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47
Q

The two aileron PCU’s per side operate the ailerons surface:

A

In an active/active configuration

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48
Q

When the Ram Air Turbine RAT is operating what is the Maximum Flap and Slat setting?

A

Position 3

49
Q

What is the primary means of radio tuning?

A

MCDU

50
Q

Which of these statements is correct? The Flight Director source annunciation shows…

A

A green arrow indicating the selected AFCS source.

51
Q

How many minutes of cockpit audio can be DVDR record?

A

120 minutes

52
Q

What does SECTOR SCAN on the weather radar do?

A

Reduces the sweep angle to +/-30 degrees and increases the sweep rate to 24 spm

53
Q

When manual airspeed is selected by the flight crew, how is it displayed on the PFD?

A

Cyan

54
Q

The airspeed trend vector white bar projects what the airspeed will be in:

A

10 seconds time

55
Q

During abnormal operations the ADS the 1st reversion for the Captains is to:

A

ADS 3

56
Q

On A/C power up (on ground) the aircraft cannot be moved while IRS 1 and 2 align, how long will this take

A

Up to 17 minutes

57
Q

When LOW 1 is selected on the fuel control panel?

A

Fuel cross feed valve opens and AC pump 2 activates.

58
Q

The DC fuel pump:

A

Is located in the right wing tank and can be used in flight and on the ground.

59
Q

With the engines running, which fuel pumps are providing the fuel flow from the aircraft fuel tanks to the engines and the APU?

A

The primary ejector pumps

60
Q

How is overpressure in the integral wing tanks prevented?

A

A high capacity pressure relief valve opens.

61
Q

Which Electric Hydraulic pumps are automatically switched on for Take-Off and Landing?

A

System 1 and 2

62
Q

What effect does the FADEC have on 1 and 2 hydraulic system during an engine flame out?

A

Depressurise the respective EDP to reduce torque loads.

63
Q

Hydraulic system 3 powers which flight controls?

A

Elevator (Right Hand Outboard), Rudder (Lower), Ailerons (Left and; Right Outboard)

64
Q

Which power sources are used to drive the three hydraulic systems?

A

System 1 and; 2 are powered by an EDP and backed up an ACMP, system 3 is powered by an ACMP and backed up by another ACMP

65
Q

With the wing ice protection button on the ice protection panel pushed in, so that the button is dark (no light), the wing anti-ice system:-

A

Operates in either the AUTO or ON mode as selected with the MODE selector knob.

66
Q

When required the MCDU operates the anti-ice system and inhibits the ice detectors activation logic during takeoff until:

A

the aircraft reaches 1700 ft AGL or 2 minutes after lift off.

67
Q

Once activated how long after icing conditions are no longer detected will the wing and engine anti-ice valves remain open?

A

2 minutes

68
Q

For normal operation of the windshield heating system:

A

at least 2 AC sources are required

69
Q

The brake Control Modules main functions are;

A

Locked wheel protection, Anti-skid protection, Automatic wheel braking and Touchdown protection.

70
Q

Hydraulic system 2 provides hydraulic pressure for the following landing gear systems;

A

Inboard brakes, nose wheel steering, landing gear (retraction and; extension) and emergency/parking brake

71
Q

With the hydraulic system 2 pressurised how is the nose wheel steering system engaged?

A

By pressing down on the steering handle with the external steering disengage switch in the engaged position.

72
Q

The oxygen mask rotary knob has three positions. Which statement is correct?

A

EMERG supplies pure oxygen under positive pressure, 100% supplies pure oxygen at all cabin altitudes, NORM supplies an oxygen/air mixture on demand.

73
Q

How are the Pilots Oxygen Mask microphones activated?

A

Open the door of the stowage box or press the Test/Reset

74
Q

Where is the Flight Crew Oxygen cylinder stored?

A

In the forward Cargo compartment

75
Q

What do the high-density red dots on the EGPWS terrain warning display mean?

A

Terrain is more than 2000ft above the airplane.

76
Q

Which warning overrides all other warnings and voice messages?

A

Stall

77
Q

“Proximate” traffic is shown:

A

as a cyan solid diamond

78
Q

In order for TCAS to be operative it requires that other aircraft are:

A

Mode “A”, “C” or “S” equipped

79
Q

When is the wind shear detection system activated?

A

Between 10 and 1500ft

80
Q

A vertical arrow displayed at the right side of a TCAS TA/RA traffic symbol indicates?

A

Vertical motion greater than 550ft/min

81
Q

The dark and quiet cockpit principle assumes that when inflight with systems normal:

A

Panels have no lights on, no aural warnings, selector knobs positioned 12 o’clock

82
Q

On the EICAS display there are amber, cyan and white arrows pointing up and down with similar coloured numbers next to them. What does this signify?

A

There are more than 15 messages on the screen. To read them select cursor to the EICAS then using the CCD scroll either up or down.

83
Q

The handling pilots PFD has failed, how can the display be regained?

A

The display will automatically revert to the pilot MFD screen provided the display selector knob is set to auto.

84
Q

Above what Calibrated Airspeed (CAS) will the “AIRSPEED ROLLING DIGITS” be displayed?

A

30 kts

85
Q

A dedicated Page on the MFD is available for pilots to view status information about:

A

Battery, Engine Oil Level, Crew Oxygen, Doors

86
Q

When will EICAS AUTO de-clutter?

A

30 seconds after TO and gear and flaps up

87
Q

What button selection on the Guidance Panel will enable or disable LNAV mode (FMS selected lateral modes)?

A

NAV

88
Q

What is the “ACTIVE FLIGHT PLAN”?

A

The Flight Plan currently being flown.

89
Q

Which 3 databases are normally contained in the FMS memory?

A

Navigation, custom and aircraft

90
Q

FMS speed/mach values are displayed on the PFD using which colour?

A

Magenta

91
Q

Which MCDU page would you normally select in order to initiate a DIRECT TO function?

A

FPL

92
Q

What is the recall item for SMOKE EVACUATION procedure after Don Oxygen Masks and Establish Communication?

A

Pressurisation Dump Button… PUSH IN.

93
Q

In which data base are pilot entered waypoints stored?

A

Custom Database

94
Q

With regard to the ENGINE FIRE, SEVERE DAMAGE or SEPARATION memory items, which is the correct statement?

A

N1 (Operative Engine) must be AT LEAST 5% ABOVE N1 IDLE

95
Q

Text followed by (_) means:

A

Either condition applies

96
Q

What are the memory items for a Dual Engine Failure?

A

Airspeed 265 kts minimum. RAT MAN deploy lever pull.

97
Q

In an emergency descent after “Thrust Levers to Idle”, the next memory item?

A

Speed Brake FULL OPEN

98
Q

What is the first action of the Emergency Evacuation Procedure?

A

EMERG/PARK Brake ON

99
Q

You receive a BATT 1(2) OVERTEMP MSG, what action would you take?

A

Associated BATT OFF

100
Q

A continuous bell rings together with an EICAS warning message and FIRE annunciation is in the associated ITT indicator. What are the RECALL items?

A

AT disengage / N1 of the operative engine to a least 5% above idle / Thrust Level to IDLE / START/STOP selector to STOP / PULL the Fire Extinguishing Handle

101
Q

Where is the precooler?

A

The nacelle

102
Q

Where is the ATS line?

A

It is after the precooler, precooler uses fan air only.

103
Q

Cabin altitude high comes on

A

9700ft

104
Q

Abort mode not available

A

Above FL100

105
Q

APU closes down in flight for what reasons

A

Over speed , under speed or critical failure.

106
Q

Turning the IDG off

A

Opens contractor and de energises the field

107
Q

How is the AC standby bus powered

A

Battery to static inverter AC power

108
Q

Igniters on ground/ air

A

1 ground , 2. Air

109
Q

What systems are tested with APU fire test

A

APU, cargo fwd and aft, engine plus extinguisher system

110
Q

If the rudder pedals jam

A

Yaw damper, rudder control trim and high functions

111
Q

Loss of indicated airspeed what happens to trim

A

Reduces to half rate

112
Q

Which services are anti ice pneumatically

A

Outboard slats and flap, engine intake

113
Q

Flats/slats are deployed

A

Electro-mechanically

114
Q

In normal TCAS mode

A

2700ft above - 2700ft below

115
Q

Engine start perameter time on ground

A

90secs/10 secs 90/10 secs 90/5 mins 90/5mins

116
Q

How many Wind screen wiper positions

A

4

117
Q

Min oil pressure on an engine

A

25psi

118
Q

White trend line for altimeter

A

6 seconds

119
Q

When do the AC pumps come on

A

Flaps greater than 0, thrust levers set T/o or ground speed greater 50kts

EJET (5 decks)

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